Sir,
Whether Service tax attracts on pure labour (daily wages labour) which is hired without any contractor.
kindly reply in detail.
Just a moment...
Generate professional replies to Show Cause Notices, assessment orders, audit objections, and other legal communications using TaxTMI's AI Drafter.
Step 1 – Issue Identification & Review
The AI analyses your query, notice, order, or uploaded documents and identifies the key issues involved.
• Review the issues identified by the AI
• Add, edit, remove, or refine issues as required
Step 2 – Draft Generation
Once you approve the issues, the AI performs issue-wise legal research and prepares a structured draft response.
• Relevant statutory provisions
• Judicial precedents and Supreme Court, High Court and other citations
• Issue-wise legal analysis
• Practical arguments and supporting content
• Professionally structured draft ready for further review. 
Are you sure you want to delete your reply beginning with '' ?
Are you sure you want to delete your Issue titled: '' ?
Sir,
Whether Service tax attracts on pure labour (daily wages labour) which is hired without any contractor.
kindly reply in detail.
Press 'Enter' after typing page number.
All members are request to give their opinion. Specially Kasturi Sethi Sir, please reply
In our view it is payable since the definition of manpower supply had been amended on this matter long back.
Any reference which clear the doubts on this issue, please give.
Dear Querist,
We are talking of pre-GST era. For leviability of Service Tax, there were three parameters and these were as follows:
(i) There must be a taxable Service Provider.
(ii) There must be a service receiver.
(iii) There must be consideration. (may be in some guise. That also falls in the definition of 'consideration'.
As per query, pure labour has been hired. Who has hired the labour is liable to pay ST ? You may not call him a 'contractor'. Since the activity (pure labour), conforms to all the above parameters, it is liable to ST. we are not to go by the nomenclature of 'contractor'.
I also welcome the views of other experts on this issue.
Rule 2(g) of Service Tax Rules, 1994 defines: Supply of manpower temorarily or otherwise to another per to under under his superintendence of control.
Sir,
In my query, it's clear that contractor has not hired labour through any contract, he has hired labour directly on daily wages worker without any contractor. So I don't think it will under the manpower supply proviso.
The fact can be ascertained from the examination of statutory as well as non-statutory records of the party.
Sir,
In my opinion the supplier of the labourers need not have entered into contract with any other contractor or the individual labourer. If he supplies man power for consideration then he is deemed to provide taxable service. Therefore you are liable to pay service tax under reverse charge mechanism since supply of labourer service is under RCM. Even issue of an invoice demanding consideration for the supply of service will be deemed as a contract.
Invoice is a written contract. It has been held by Bombay High Court in 2007.
In any case, ST is payable on such transactions under RCM.
Shri Rengarajan's reply is very clear on the query. thank you sir
We do endorse the views of our experts.
Queries is lucky to have maximum opinions. Thus he be would be able to take a firm decision.
Sl no 8 of notf 30/12 prescribes supply of manpower in form.This condition is absent in case of direct hiring of labour. No s.tax is leviable.
Again the recipient needs to be a body corporate for rcm
Press 'Enter' after typing page number.