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AI TextHeadnote
2025 (8) TMI 97 - CESTAT NEW DELHI
Recovery of service tax with interest and penalty - appellant was collecting Affiliation Fee/Recognition Fees on which they had not discharged service tax - HELD THAT:- The issue is no longer res-integra and has been decided by this Tribunal in GOA UNIVERSITY, THROUGH ITS REGISTRAR, MR. VISHNU SAKHARAM NADKARNI, VERSUS JOINT COMMISSIONER OF CENTRAL GOODS AND SERVICE TAX, GOA COMMISSIONERATE, CENTRAL BOARD OF INDIRECT TAXES & CUSTOMS, GOODS AND SERVICES TAX COUNCIL, GST COUNCIL, DELHI. [2025 (4) TMI 1056 - BOMBAY HIGH COURT] and M/S JIWAJI VISHWAVIDHYALAYA VERSUS COMMISSIONER, CENTRAL GOODS & SERVICE TAX, & CENTRAL EXCISE, BHOPAL [2025 (5) TMI 153 - CESTAT NEW DELHI] where it was held that the activities of the petitioner University not being commercial in nature, are not amenable to GST. There is a complete absence of jurisdictional facts to issue the impugned show cause notice.
There are no merit in the impugned order - appeal allowed.
AI TextHeadnote
2025 (8) TMI 96 - CESTAT NEW DELHI
1. ISSUES:
1.1 Whether the appellant is required to pay service tax on the entire amount collected as entry fee from non-resident guests or only on the share of the entry fee retained by the appellant after remitting the balance to the other party providing accommodation and restaurant services.
1.2 Whether the sharing of the entry fee between the appellant and the other party constitutes "consideration" for a "service" under Section 67 of the Finance Act, 1994.
1.3 Whether the appellant's act of collecting the entry fee on behalf of the other party amounts to providing a taxable service to that party.
2. RULINGS / HOLDINGS:
2.1 The appellant is liable to pay service tax only on the share of the entry fee retained by it and not on the entire amount collected, as the other party pays service tax on the accommodation and restaurant services provided to the non-resident guests.
2.2 The sharing of the profit under the agreement does not amount to "consideration" for the provisions of service between the appellant and the other party, as both act on a principal-to-principal basis and neither provides a service to the other.
2.3 The appellant's collection of the entry fee on behalf of the other party cannot be considered a "service" provided to the other party, and hence, no service tax liability arises on the entire amount collected by the appellant.
3. RATIONALE:
3.1 The Court examined the Revenue Sharing Agreement clauses which clearly delineate the rights and obligations of both parties, including the adjustment of entry fee against accommodation or restaurant services and the sharing of the entry fee accordingly.
3.2 The Court noted that the other party pays service tax on accommodation and restaurant services enjoyed by the non-resident guests, while the appellant pays service tax only on the amount retained by it, consistent with the agreed terms.
3.3 The Court emphasized that the Revenue cannot add terms to the agreement contrary to the parties' intention and that the contractual arrangement reflects a joint venture with mutual interests rather than a provider-recipient service relationship between the appellant and the other party.
3.4 The Court relied on the principle that "no consideration has been provisioned in favour of the appellant for collecting entry fee," negating the characterization of the appellant's collection activity as a taxable service to the other party.
3.5 The Court referred to a subsequent Commissioner (Appeals) decision upholding the same interpretation, which was not challenged by the Revenue, thereby reinforcing the settled position on the merits.
Levy of service tax on the entire amount collected or the liability to pay service tax is limited to the share from the entry fee retained by the appellant - revenue sharing agreement - HELD THAT:- There is no manner of doubt that the agreement entered between the parties was being followed by them in letter and spirit and consequently, the liability towards service tax was discharged both by the appellant as well as by NHPL to the extent of their share. The net effect is that the Revenue has received the service tax on the entire amount of “entry fee” though the liability was stipulated between the appellant and NHPL. The Revenue is not, in any manner, prejudiced by the modus operandi adopted.
The issue on merits stands settled, in favour of the appellant and, therefore, it is not necessary to go into the question of applicability of the extended period of limitation, interest and penalty.
The impugned order is set aside. The appeal is, accordingly, allowed.
AI TextHeadnote
2025 (8) TMI 95 - CESTAT NEW DELHI
Short payment of service tax on Ocean freight, which is liable to be paid by the importer in terms of N/N.15/2017-ST and 16/2017-ST, both dated 13.04.2017 w.e.f. 23.04.2017 - HELD THAT:- Reliance was placed on the decision of the Gujarat High Court in the case of [2019 (9) TMI 1315 - GUJARAT HIGH COURT] whereby the taxability of ocean freight was held ultra vires.
The law has been well settled in terms of the decision of the Gujarat High Court and consistently followed by the Tribunal, the ocean freight is not liable to service tax and hence, no liability can be fastened on the appellant. The impugned order is, therefore, set aside.
Appeal allowed.
AI TextHeadnote
2025 (8) TMI 157 - GAUHATI HIGH COURT
Violation of principles of natural justice - proper service of SCN or not - no proper SCN attached to the Summary of the SCN - SCN were issued prior to passing the Impugned Order under Section 73 (9) or not - impugned orders under Section 73 (9) of the State Act is in conformity with Section 75(4) of the State Act and is in consonance with the principles of natural justice or not.
HELD THAT:- The Proper Officer is mandated to issue a SCN only under specific circumstances as outlined in Section 73. Therefore, the SCN must clearly state the reasons and circumstances justifying its issuance under this section. Only then can the recipient effectively respond, particularly if they wish to challenge the applicability of Section 73. Section 73(9) requires the Proper Officer to determine the tax, interest, and penalty after considering the representation. Section 73(2) and 73(10) are interconnected, while Section 73(10) allows passing the order within three years from the due date of the annual return, Section 73(2) mandates that the SCN must be issued at least three months before the deadline. Furthermore, a combined reading of subsections (1) to (4) of Section 73 shows that the legislature has made a clear distinction between a Show Cause Notice and a Statement. Even if a Statement is issued under Section 73(3), a separate and proper SCN is still required.
In addition to the Show Cause Notice to be issued under Section 73 (1) and the Statement of determination of tax under Section 73 (3), there is an additional requirement of issuance of a Summary of the Show Cause Notice in GST DRC-01 and the Summary of the Statement in GST DRC-02. The natural corollary from the above analysis is that the issuance of the Show Cause Notice and the Statement of determination of tax by the Proper Officer are mandatory requirement in addition to the Summary of Show Cause Notice in GST DRC-01 and Summary of the Statement in GST DRC-02.
The Division Bench of the Hon’ble Jharkhand High Court in Nkas Services Pvt. Ltd. [2022 (2) TMI 1157 - JHARKHAND HIGH COURT] held that a summary in GST DRC-01 cannot replace a proper SCN. Similarly, in LC Infra Projects Pvt. Ltd. [2019 (8) TMI 84 - KARNATAKA HIGH COURT], the Hon’ble Karnataka High Court emphasized that issuing a proper SCN is essential before the recovery of interest or penalty under the Act.
The Court holds that merely attaching a tax determination order to the summary in DRC-01 does not amount to valid initiation under Section 73. The summary is only supplementary to a full SCN. Thus, the impugned orders, having been passed without a proper SCN, are in violation of Section 73 and Rule 142(1)(a).
Whether the determination of tax as well as the order attached to the Summary to the Show Cause Notice in GST DRC-01 and the Summary of the Order in GST DRC-07 can be said to be the Show Case Notice and Order respectively? - HELD THAT:- Section 73 mandates that the Proper Officer must issue the SCN, the Statement under Section 73(3), and the final Order under Section 73(9). As per Section 2(91), a Proper Officer is the Commissioner or someone entrusted by him. Therefore, unless these documents are duly authenticated by the Proper Officer, they fail to meet the statutory requirements and are rendered invalid and unenforceable. Section 73 of the Act requires that notices and order be issued by the Proper Officer but it does not prescribe the mode of authentication outside Chapter III of the Rules. Since no specific rule under Chapter XVIII (relating to Demand and Recovery) governs authentication, a regulatory gap exists. Given the critical importance of authentication by the Proper Officer, the Court held that, until proper rules or notifications are issued by the Board to address this gap, Rule 26(3), which requires digital or e-signature, must be applied by default. This ensures that any notice, statement or order issued under the Act maintains its legal validity and enforceability.
Whether the impugned orders under Section 73(9) conform to Section 75(4) of the State Act and is according to the principles of natural justice? - HELD THAT:- The Court observed that the Summary of the Show Cause Notice did not mention any date of hearing, leaving the relevant column blank. The petitioner was merely asked to submit a reply, without being offered a cleared opportunity for personal hearing.
Section 75(4) of both the Central and State GST Acts mandates that an opportunity of hearing must be granted when a written request is made by the person chargeable with tax or penalty, or when any adverse decision is contemplated against such person - Failing to provide a hearing renders the second part of Section 75(4) meaningless, and thus, passing an adverse order without a hearing in such circumstances violated both the statutory mandate and the principles of natural justice.
This Court, upon detailed analysis, hold that the Summary of the SCN issued in FORM GST DRC-01 does not substitute the proper SCN required under Section 73(1) of both the Central and State GST Acts. A formal and duly authenticated SCN is mandatorily required to initiate proceedings under Section 73. The Statement of tax determination under Section 73(3), which is attached to the summary in the present case cannot be treated as a valid SCN. Therefore, initiating proceedings solely based on such a statement is not in conformity with law.
The impugned order dated 29.04.2024 is interfered with and set aside. However, as it appears that the respondents have proceeded under the mistaken impression that attaching the determination of tax to the summary constitutes a valid Show Cause Notice, the Court grants them liberty to initiate de novo proceedings under Section 73, if considered appropriate - Petition allowed.
AI TextHeadnote
2025 (8) TMI 156 - GAUHATI HIGH COURT
Violation of principles of natural justice - proper service of SCN or not - no proper SCN attached to the Summary of the SCN - SCN were issued prior to passing the Impugned Order under Section 73 (9) or not - impugned orders under Section 73 (9) of the State Act is in conformity with Section 75(4) of the State Act and is in consonance with the principles of natural justice or not.
HELD THAT:- The Proper Officer is mandated to issue a SCN only under specific circumstances as outlined in Section 73. Therefore, the SCN must clearly state the reasons and circumstances justifying its issuance under this section. Only then can the recipient effectively respond, particularly if they wish to challenge the applicability of Section 73. Section 73(9) requires the Proper Officer to determine the tax, interest, and penalty after considering the representation. Section 73(2) and 73(10) are interconnected, while Section 73(10) allows passing the order within three years from the due date of the annual return, Section 73(2) mandates that the SCN must be issued at least three months before the deadline. Furthermore, a combined reading of subsections (1) to (4) of Section 73 shows that the legislature has made a clear distinction between a Show Cause Notice and a Statement. Even if a Statement is issued under Section 73(3), a separate and proper SCN is still required.
In addition to the Show Cause Notice to be issued under Section 73 (1) and the Statement of determination of tax under Section 73 (3), there is an additional requirement of issuance of a Summary of the Show Cause Notice in GST DRC-01 and the Summary of the Statement in GST DRC-02. The natural corollary from the above analysis is that the issuance of the Show Cause Notice and the Statement of determination of tax by the Proper Officer are mandatory requirement in addition to the Summary of Show Cause Notice in GST DRC-01 and Summary of the Statement in GST DRC-02.
The Division Bench of the Hon’ble Jharkhand High Court in Nkas Services Pvt. Ltd. [2022 (2) TMI 1157 - JHARKHAND HIGH COURT] held that a summary in GST DRC-01 cannot replace a proper SCN. Similarly, in LC Infra Projects Pvt. Ltd. [2019 (8) TMI 84 - KARNATAKA HIGH COURT], the Hon’ble Karnataka High Court emphasized that issuing a proper SCN is essential before the recovery of interest or penalty under the Act.
The Court holds that merely attaching a tax determination order to the summary in DRC-01 does not amount to valid initiation under Section 73. The summary is only supplementary to a full SCN. Thus, the impugned orders, having been passed without a proper SCN, are in violation of Section 73 and Rule 142(1)(a).
Whether the determination of tax as well as the order attached to the Summary to the Show Cause Notice in GST DRC-01 and the Summary of the Order in GST DRC-07 can be said to be the Show Case Notice and Order respectively? - HELD THAT:- Section 73 mandates that the Proper Officer must issue the SCN, the Statement under Section 73(3), and the final Order under Section 73(9). As per Section 2(91), a Proper Officer is the Commissioner or someone entrusted by him. Therefore, unless these documents are duly authenticated by the Proper Officer, they fail to meet the statutory requirements and are rendered invalid and unenforceable. Section 73 of the Act requires that notices and order be issued by the Proper Officer but it does not prescribe the mode of authentication outside Chapter III of the Rules. Since no specific rule under Chapter XVIII (relating to Demand and Recovery) governs authentication, a regulatory gap exists. Given the critical importance of authentication by the Proper Officer, the Court held that, until proper rules or notifications are issued by the Board to address this gap, Rule 26(3), which requires digital or e-signature, must be applied by default. This ensures that any notice, statement or order issued under the Act maintains its legal validity and enforceability.
Whether the impugned orders under Section 73(9) conform to Section 75(4) of the State Act and is according to the principles of natural justice? - HELD THAT:- The Court observed that the Summary of the Show Cause Notice did not mention any date of hearing, leaving the relevant column blank. The petitioner was merely asked to submit a reply, without being offered a cleared opportunity for personal hearing.
Section 75(4) of both the Central and State GST Acts mandates that an opportunity of hearing must be granted when a written request is made by the person chargeable with tax or penalty, or when any adverse decision is contemplated against such person - Failing to provide a hearing renders the second part of Section 75(4) meaningless, and thus, passing an adverse order without a hearing in such circumstances violated both the statutory mandate and the principles of natural justice.
This Court, upon detailed analysis, hold that the Summary of the SCN issued in FORM GST DRC-01 does not substitute the proper SCN required under Section 73(1) of both the Central and State GST Acts. A formal and duly authenticated SCN is mandatorily required to initiate proceedings under Section 73. The Statement of tax determination under Section 73(3), which is attached to the summary in the present case cannot be treated as a valid SCN. Therefore, initiating proceedings solely based on such a statement is not in conformity with law.
The impugned order dated 28.12.2023 is interfered with and set aside. However, as it appears that the respondents have proceeded under the mistaken impression that attaching the determination of tax to the summary constitutes a valid Show Cause Notice, the Court grants them liberty to initiate de novo proceedings under Section 73, if considered appropriate - Petition allowed.
AI TextHeadnote
2025 (8) TMI 148 - ITAT MUMBAI
Disallowance u/s 14A r/w Rule 8D - corresponding disallowance while computing book profit u/s 115JB -AO noted that the assessee had invested in instruments yielding exempt income - assessee had made a suo moto disallowance - CIT(A) deleted addition
HELD THAT:- Out of the total investment Rs. 13.08 crore shares were acquired from EBPL, which had recorded these shares at a nominal value of Rs. 27, having received them at nil consideration. The assessee, in turn, recorded these shares at a fair value of Rs. 1,466.60 crores post-amalgamation. It is not in dispute that neither EBPL nor the assessee incurred any interest-bearing expenditure for acquiring these shares.
Further, 9.62 crore shares were received by the assessee as gifts from various group concerns, which again involved no cost or borrowing. The remaining 1.42 crore shares were purchased by the assessee for Rs. 176.47 crores, financed entirely through interest-free loans received from Edison Continental Laboratories Pvt. Ltd. The ledger account of Edison, confirmations, and bank statements were duly placed on record in preceding years, substantiating that no interest-bearing funds were utilized for these acquisitions.
As from the financials of the assessee, it is evident that as on 31st March 2013, the assessee was in possession of substantial own funds, comprising share capital and reserves amounting to Rs. 95,100.08 lakhs, which far exceeded the value of investments at Rs. 17,647.78 lakhs. Therefore, it would be a fallacy to presume that any part of the investment in tax-free instruments was funded through interest-bearing borrowings.
CIT(A) has rightly relied upon the binding decisions of the Tribunal in the assessee’s own case for A.Ys. 2014–15 and 2015–16 [2023 (7) TMI 855 - ITAT MUMBAI] where the identical issue had arisen and was adjudicated in favour of the assessee.
AI TextHeadnote
2025 (8) TMI 147 - ITAT SURAT
Addition u/s 68/69A - additions to dissolved firm - credit transactions in bank account unexplained - HELD THAT:- The active operation of bank account post the purported dissolution proves continued existence of the firm for all intent and purpose. If business is carried on under the same PAN/bank account, the entity is liable to explain credits, even if it claims to have been dissolved. In the instant case, assessee failed to discharge the burden of proof by furnishing satisfactory explanation for credits.
The Hon’ble Supreme Court in case of CIT vs. P. Mohankala [2007 (5) TMI 192 - SUPREME COURT] has held that if assessee fails to provide satisfactory explanation and supporting evidence for credits, addition u/s 68 of the Act is justified. Decided against assessee.
AI TextHeadnote
2025 (8) TMI 146 - ITAT DELHI
Penalty u/s 271(1)(c) - TDS u/s 195 - payments made by the appellant to its AE(s) for purchase of online advertisement on third party platforms after deeming them Fees for Technical services - HELD THAT:- These 15C as and 15CBs were filed for all transactions, be it from Japan or Singapore. No penal action was taken under TDS sections against the Assessee nor were any steps taken by the department to tax the amounts received by Microad Singapore entity.
The fact that online advertisements brought from abroad are not taxable under the provisions of the Income Tax act read with the relevant Double Taxation Avoidance Agreements is corroborated by introduction of Equalization Levy (popularly known as Google Tax) from April 1, 2016 as laid u/s 165 of the Finance Act 2016 (and not Income Tax Act) to tax such transactions explicitly.
Thus we find that the addition pertains to an amount on which there was a difference of opinion, and attributing concealment or inaccurate furnishing of facts, is not justified. The fact that the CIT(A) allowed a quantum of transactions itself proves that there is a difference of opinion between the AO, Assessee and the CIT(A) towards how to the aforesaid transactions ought to be treated from TDS perspective. The grounds are sustained and appeals is allowed.
AI TextHeadnote
2025 (8) TMI 145 - ITAT DELHI
TP Adjustment - addition of notional interest in respect of the loans advanced by the assessee to its AE - HELD THAT:- Assessee had made substantial sales to Non- AE’s also from which the assessee has not charged any interest on receivables. It is settled position of law that if no interest has been charged from Non AEs then no adjustment qua outstanding receivables with AE can be made. Therefore, on this ground also no adjustment is called for.
International interest on outstanding receivables - TPO as well as CIT(A) are not justified in sustaining the addition of notional interest vis-à-vis outstanding receivables with AEs. There are so many judgments on this aspect wherein it has been held that when no interest has been charged from the non AEs on delayed payments then the Department cannot attribute any notional addition towards the outstanding with its AEs. This ground of appeal of the assessee for all the three years is allowed
Notional commission on corporate guarantee -Respectfully following the verdict in assessee’s own case i [2015 (7) TMI 147 - ITAT DELHI] we direct the AO to apply the rate of 1% vis-à-vis transaction of guarantee commission.
AI TextHeadnote
2025 (8) TMI 144 - ITAT DELHI
Ad-hoc disallowance being 90% of revenue expenditure - allowable business expenditure or not? - consistent method adopted for accounting - as per revenue expenditure claimed as deduction by the assessee are directly or indirectly linked to the project and since no revenue from the project is recognized, those expenditure need to be considered as part of the project cost / inventory / work in progress and accordingly not to be allowed as deduction.
HELD THAT:- We hold that assessee has followed the consistent practice of claiming deduction of revenue expenditure not related to the project since beginning i.e. from Assessment year 2011-12 onwards.
Assessee’s method of accounting of claiming deduction has been accepted by the revenue in Assessment year 2011-12 except the finance cost and thereafter from Assessment year 2016-17 onwards.
As far as Assessment years 2012-13 to 2015-16 are concerned, the revenue has only disputed the allowability of deduction of revenue expenditure not related to the project cost which has already been addressed by us in the present appeal.
The fact of the business of the assessee being set up and expenditures being incurred wholly and exclusively for the purpose of business are not being doubted by the revenue. Considering the consistent method adopted by the assessee in the past and also in subsequent assessment years, we hold that a sum would be squarely eligible for allowability of deduction in the year under appeal.
AI TextHeadnote
2025 (8) TMI 143 - ITAT DELHI
Disallowance u/s 36(1)(iii) - interest paid on loans advanced to subsidiary companies - Whether investments were made from interest free funds available with the assessee? - HELD THAT:- It is a case where the assessee was having own sufficient funds, more than the sum advanced by the assessee to its subsidiary. Further no material has been brought on record by the AO to show that the loans were not advanced on account of commercial expediency. Therefore, we are of the view that no disallowance u/s 36(1)(iii) can be made in this case.
Further our view is fortified by the judgment of Reliance Industries [2019 (1) TMI 757 - SUPREME COURT] wherein as held that where the assessee is having sufficient interest free funds then it can be presumed that investments were made from interest free funds available with the assessee.
So far as the reliance on the order of Abhishek Industires[2006 (8) TMI 123 - PUNJAB AND HARYANA HIGH COURT] we observe that in the case of Munjal Sales [2006 (10) TMI 89 - PUNJAB AND HARYANA HIGH COURT] has already reversed this judgment, and hence the contention of the Ld. DR is of no use.
Disallowance u/s 14A r.w. Rule 8D - whether 14A provisions can be invoked in a case where there is no exempt income? - HELD THAT:- As decided in Cheminvest Limited [2015 (9) TMI 238 - DELHI HIGH COURT] and GVK Project and Technical Services Ltd.[2019 (5) TMI 725 - SUPREME COURT] has held that 14A provisions cannot be applied in those case where there is no exempt income. Therefore, we direct the AO to decide this issue after verifying this fact as to whether there is any exempt income earned by the assessee in this year. We direct the AO not to make any disallowance u/s 14A in case the assessee is not having any exempt income. With these observations, this ground of appeal is allowed.
TP Adjustment - Addition of AMP expenses - CIT(A) deleted addition - HELD THAT:- CIT(A) has followed the observations of APA authority and then adopted a mid-way path. It is not a case where no addition has been sustained by the CIT(A) qua AMP expenses rather a case where the disallowance has been restricted to such figure which is arrived after applying the methodology propounded by APA authorities In this back drop we do not find any infirmity in the approach of the Ld. CIT(A) and, hence, this ground of the Revenue’s appeal is decided against the Revenue.
Payment of excess remuneration to the Directors - CIT(A) deleted addition - HELD THAT:- We observe that in this case, the Directors have been remunerated on the basis of approval granted by the Government of India, Ministry of Corporate Affairs vide its letter dated 16th March, 2010, this much before the culmination of the financial year, therefore, we do not find any reason to interfere with the findings of the CIT(A). CIT(A) is correct in deleting the addition.
AI TextHeadnote
2025 (8) TMI 142 - ITAT DEHRADUN
Disallowance of deduction made u/s 80IB - income derived from the excess provisions written back and late payment surcharges received having no direct nexus with the assessee's business activities of power generation - HELD THAT:- Respectfully, following the decisions of assessee’s own cases for AYs 2008-09 to 2015-16 [2015 (6) TMI 385 - ITAT DELHI] we hereby do not find any infirmity in the finding of the CIT(A) on the core issue of the claim of deduction u/s 80IA of the Act on the income derived from the excess provisions written back and the late payment surcharges on debtors. Hence, we decline to interfere with the finding of the Ld. CIT(A) on this score. Assessee appeal allowed.
AI TextHeadnote
2025 (8) TMI 141 - ITAT AHMEDABAD
ISSUES:
1. Whether depreciation claimed at 15% on plant and machinery used for less than 180 days is allowable under the Income-tax Act, 1961.
2. Whether additional depreciation under Section 32(1)(iia) of the Income-tax Act, 1961, can be allowed when not claimed in the original return of income.
3. Whether Explanation 5 to Section 32(1) mandates allowance of depreciation irrespective of claim in the return.
RULINGS / HOLDINGS:
1. The court held that depreciation at 15% on plant and machinery used for less than 180 days is not allowable; only 7.5% is permissible, and the disallowance of excess depreciation is justified as the appellant admitted the bonafide mistake.
2. The court held that additional depreciation under Section 32(1)(iia) cannot be entertained if not claimed in the original return, as the Income Tax Act does not permit amendments during assessment without a revised return, consistent with the principle established in Goetze (India) Ltd. vs. CIT.
3. The court recognized the appellant's reliance on Explanation 5 to Section 32(1) that depreciation is mandatory and must be allowed irrespective of whether it was claimed in the return, and accordingly allowed the additional depreciation claim.
RATIONALE:
The court applied the statutory provisions of the Income-tax Act, 1961, particularly Section 32(1) and Explanation 5 thereto, and Section 143(1) relating to processing of returns. It relied on the principle from the Supreme Court ruling in Goetze (India) Ltd. vs. CIT that any modification to a return must be made by filing a revised return, not during assessment proceedings.
The court distinguished between the disallowance of excess depreciation claimed erroneously and the entitlement to additional depreciation which is mandatory under Explanation 5 to Section 32(1), thus allowing additional depreciation despite it not being claimed originally.
No dissent or doctrinal shift was noted; the decision aligns with established legal principles on depreciation claims and the procedural requirements for return amendments.
Difference in income under the head business and profession as against shown in the return of income filed primary reason for the variation was disallowance of excess depreciation - assessee had claimed depreciation at 15% on plant and machinery put to use for less than 180 days during the previous year - HELD THAT:-We find that the assessee claimed depreciation at 15% on new plant and machinery that was used for less than 180 days. As per the law, only 7.5% depreciation is allowed in such cases. The assessee admitted this as a bonafide mistake. Hence, keeping in view the fact that there is no ineligibility to the assessee, we hold that additional depreciation shall be allowed.
Appeal of the assessee is allowed.
AI TextHeadnote
2025 (8) TMI 140 - ITAT AHMEDABAD
Validity of reassessment order u/s 147 - no valid notice u/s 143(2) was served before finalization of the reassessment order - HELD THAT:- We find that, in the present case, the Revenue has failed to produce any evidence to establish that notice u/s 143(2) dated 11.07.2018 was served upon the assessee. It is also a fact on record that no such notice is available either on the ITBA or the e-filing portal, and even the requests made by the assessee in this regard remained unanswered.
Therefore, in view of the binding precedents of SUKHINI P. MODI [2014 (11) TMI 50 - GUJARAT HIGH COURT] and M/S. HOTEL BLUE MOON [2010 (2) TMI 1 - SUPREME COURT] held non-issuance and non-service of notice u/s 143(2) renders the reassessment order null and void - Appeal of the assessee is allowed.
AI TextHeadnote
2025 (8) TMI 112 - BOMBAY HIGH COURT
Seeking grant of anticipatory bail - compoundable and non-baliable offences punishable under Sections 132 and 135 of the Customs Act, 1962 - misdeclaration in the importation of goods - free import of walnuts - HELD THAT:- The search and seizure operations in this matter have already been concluded. The primary allegation pertains to the submission of false declarations, and it is undisputed that the case rests predominantly on documentary evidence. The allegedly forged declarations and their supporting documents are already in the possession of the customs department. Furthermore, access to relevant emails has been provided by the son of applicant No. 1, who was arrested and subsequently released on bail. There is no record of any prior convictions against the applicants.
The applicants have demonstrated their willingness to pursue the statutory remedy of compounding the alleged offence. In this context, they may be directed to cooperate with the investigation, subject to appropriate conditions to allay the concerns of the investigating authority.
The object of the compounding mechanism is to ensure enforcement of the Act while providing a route for voluntary compliance and avoidance of protracted litigation or incarceration. In the past, the Courts extended interim protection to the applicants therein during the pending investigation under the Customs Act and the Central Excise Act.
In the totality of the circumstances, and in the facts of the present case, the applicants’ willingness to comply with compounding provisions, the stage of the investigation, absence of prior criminal record, the documentary nature of the evidence, the willingness on the part of the applicants to jointly deposit a total amount of Rs.5 Crores with the respondent, and the completion of search and seizure operations collectively merits consideration - this Court deems it fit to allow this application subject to the fulfilment of conditions imposed.
Bail application allowed.
AI TextHeadnote
2025 (8) TMI 111 - KERALA HIGH COURT
Seeking to evict the petitioner firm under Section 11 (2) (a) and (b) of the Kerala Buildings (Lease and Rent Control) Act, 1965 - interplay between the provisions of the Special Economic Zones Act, 2005 and the provisions of the KBLR Act - remedy of eviction of a defaulter tenant, available to a landlord under the KBLR Act - Arbitrability of the dispute - overriding provisions of the SEZ Act, and the dispute resolution mechanisms over the provisions of the KBLR Act or not.
Arbitrability of the dispute - whether the dispute between the parties is one that is inherently non-arbitrable? - HELD THAT:- Under Section 42 of the SEZ Act, in the absence of any designated court under Section 23 to try the dispute, the dispute between an entrepreneur and a developer in the SEZ has to be referred to arbitration and decided by the arbitrator to be appointed by the Central Government. In other words, for an entrepreneur and developer, whose activities are regulated by the SEZ Act, arbitration is not an optional alternative to a statutorily prescribed adjudication mechanism; it is the sole adjudication mechanism mandated by the statute. It is against the backdrop of the said statutory scheme, therefore, it is required to examine whether the dispute between the entrepreneur and the developer in the instant case is inherently non-arbitrable for any other reason.
The landlord-tenant disputes covered and governed by rent control legislations would not be arbitrable because a specific court or forum has been given exclusive jurisdiction to apply and decide special rights and obligations. However, the observations have to be read in the context in which they were made. Not all tenancies are covered and governed by rent control legislations and it is only those ‘pure tenancy’ agreements, wherein the creation of the tenancy is the sole purpose of the agreement and brings into existence the landlord-tenant relationship between the parties, that can be seen as covered and governed by rent control legislations and therefore non-arbitrable. There may be myriad circumstances where a notional landlord-tenant relationship comes into existence as incidental to the main relationship between the parties, as in the instant case where it was only because the petitioner firm qualified to be an entrepreneur that it had to, and could, enter into a lease agreement with the developer for the premises in question. In such cases, there is no creation of special rights and obligations in respect of the tenancy. There were only special rights and privileges made available to the petitioner firm when it satisfied the eligibility conditions for qualifying as an entrepreneur under the SEZ Act - the permission given to the petitioner to occupy the premises was only a privilege accorded to the petitioner for so long as it continued to be an ‘entrepreneur’, which privilege could be withdrawn at any time if it committed a breach of any statutory condition or obligation under the SEZ Act and Rules. The ‘tenancy’ that came into being was thus not covered and governed by any rent control legislation but was rather one that arose as incidental to the petitioner’s status as an entrepreneur and governed by the provisions of the SEZ Act and Rules. Axiomatically, the dispute regarding payment of rent and other charges, had also to be seen as stemming from the relationship of entrepreneur and developer, and hence, to be adjudicated through the statutory arbitration as mandated by Section 42 of the SEZ Act.
Interplay between the SEZ Act and the KBLR Act - whether the provisions of the SEZ Act, and the dispute resolution mechanisms envisaged thereunder, would override and exclude the provisions of the KBLR Act? - HELD THAT:- As for the interplay between the provisions of the SEZ Act and the KBLR Act, the former is a central legislation traceable to Entry 41 of List I of the VIIth Schedule to the Constitution of India whereas the latter is a State legislation traceable to Entry 18 of List II therein. There can therefore be no repugnancy as envisaged under the Constitution of India between the provisions of the two statutes unless they cover the same field. In that context, it is trite that if the dominant intention of the two statutes is different and they cover different subject matters, then merely because the two statutes refer to some allied or cognate subjects, they cannot be seen as covering the same field - The doctrine of pith and substance mandates that, if on a scrutiny of the statute in question, it is found that the statute is in substance on a matter assigned to the legislature enacting the statute, then that statute as a whole must be held to be valid notwithstanding any incidental encroachment upon matters beyond its competence. On the facts of the instant case, we would think that since the tenancy in question was merely incidental to the primary relationship of the parties as developer and entrepreneur under the SEZ Act, an adjudication of rent arrear disputes between the parties that fall within the scope of that Act, would have to be in accordance with the provisions of that Act. This is because even if one statute partially covers an area occupied by another statute, albeit in a different context and to achieve a different purpose, it cannot be seen as a repugnancy, and the attempt of a Court must be to see whether there is room or possibility for both enactments to apply. In fact, it is only if there is no such room or possibility that a repugnancy will arise.
The Smart City Kochi Masterplan, as available in the respondent’s website, and an extract of which is produced by the appellants as Ext.P28, describes the SEZ as an Industrial Township and this description also finds mention in Ext.P11 sub-lease deed entered into between the appellant and the respondent, where the latter is referred to as the “Township authority”. The above aspects assume significance because Section 17 of the 1999 Act clearly states that the KBLR Act, 1965 shall not apply to any premises belonging to the Industrial Township authority under Section 15 of the 1999 Act. It is clear therefore that under the scheme of SEZ’s as regulated by the SEZ Act and the allied State legislations, leased premises within the SEZ are not covered or governed by the KBLR Act, 1965.
The remedy chosen by the respondent to evict the petitioner firm was not one that was available to it in law. As per the scheme of the SEZ Act, the dispute regarding non-payment of arrears of rent and other charges has to be seen as integral to the larger issue of whether the petitioner firm is entitled to continue in the SEZ as an ‘entrepreneur.’ Accordingly, its entering into a tenancy agreement with the developer has to be seen as one of the conditions for the grant of the letter of approval to the petitioner firm, a breach of the terms of which agreement would have a bearing on the approval granted to the petitioner firm, and could possibly entail a cancellation thereof. On such cancellation, the petitioner firm would be considered as an ‘unauthorised occupant’ of the premises within the SEZ, which would answer the description of public premises under the PPEUO Act owing to the lands in question being vested in the Central Government for administrative purposes, and the developer could then proceed to evict it in accordance with the provisions of the PPEUO Act.
The impugned order is set aside - petition allowed.
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2025 (8) TMI 105 - CESTAT NEW DELHI
Levy of penalty u/s 114 of the Customs Act, 1962 read with section 13 of the Foreign Exchange Management Act for the various acts of omissions and commission - illegal purchase of foreign currency - reliability of statements u/s 108 of the Customs Act for imposing penalty - HELD THAT:- The impugned order is based solely on the statements made by Manish Garg and Mohammad Kashif under section 108 of the Customs Act.
The submission advanced by the learned authorised representative for the department that since Manish Garg, Mohammad Kashif and Shahzad had not filed appeals to assail the impugned order, no relief should be granted to the appellant cannot be accepted. The filing of appeal by the appellant is not dependent upon whether the remaining three persons covered by the impugned order have filed appeals or not.
It is, therefore, not possible to sustain the order dated 02.02.2021 passed by the Commissioner in so far as it imposes penalty of Rs. 1 crore upon the appellant. It is, accordingly, set aside and the appeal is allowed.
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2025 (8) TMI 104 - CESTAT CHENNAI
Valuation of imported goods - determination on the basis of a value appearing in an unsigned contract by rejecting the declared value - rejection of declared value - whether the declared invoice value should be accepted as the transaction value under Customs Valuation (Determination of value of imported goods) Rules, 2007? - violation of principles of natural justice - HELD THAT:- It is found that a copy of the draft contract which was reportedly retrieved from the Appellant’s computer on the date of search i.e., 21.04.2011 and which was signed by the Appellant on 14 pages. The Authority has relied upon this unsigned draft contract copy for redetermination of the value. Though the Appellant has repeatedly pleaded for supply of a copy of the contract, this was not given to submit his defense. Events in this appeal further indicate that the Bill of Entry No. 3174066 dated 11.04.2011 was filed by the Appellant and his office-cum-residential premises was searched on 21.04.2011 where his statement was also recorded. After the search, the Appellant came forward to pay the differential duty as computed by SIIB officers vide his Letter dated 25.01.2011 and asked for adjudication without issuance of Show Cause Notice and waived even personal hearing.
Finally, the Show Cause Notice was issued on 01.06.2011 which was adjudicated on 10.09.2011. We find that the Appellant was not supplied with the unsigned contract copy on which redetermination of value was based, and the Original Adjudicating Authority has travelled beyond the Show Cause Notice issued by relying on Bill of Entry No. 796051 dated 03.03.2011 for similar goods but no detailed examination was done as to how this can be adopted as contemporaneous value. The procedure mandated for redetermination of transaction value under the Customs Valuation (Determination of value of imported goods) Rules, 2007 was not adhered to. Due to non-observance of the principles of natural justice it is adequate enough to set aside the impugned Order-in-Appeal C.Cus.II No. 346/2015 dated 30.03.2015.
Further, as the Adjudicating Authority has travelled beyond the show cause notice by referring to a contemporaneous import, the rejection of declared value based on such contemporaneous import is set aside. Therefore, it is not deemed necessary to discuss the rival contentions regarding the identical / comparable nature of the contemporaneous import relied upon by the adjudicating authority to reject the declared value. As there was no ground found for enhancement of the transaction value of imported goods, confiscation and imposition of penalties cannot be sustained and so, ordered to be set aside.
Appeal allowed.
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2025 (8) TMI 103 - CESTAT AHMEDABAD
Mis-declaration of value of PVC Flex Sheets imported - under-valuation of imported goods - amissible evidences or not - extended period of limitation - HELD THAT:- The department however has come up with a proposition that PVC flex sheets are to be valued on per sqm basis. This is based on the evidences recovered by the DRI officers during search of the premises of other importers. They also relied on the CRCL test report dated 21.11.2007 in respect of 10 samples drawn on 12.09.2007 from the premises of the appellant. In this test report, it is found that GSM of all 10 samples are different ranging from 306 to 629.8. The appellant had questioned the sampling process saying that only 10 samples have been taken out of 540 rolls and, therefore, the test report does not give any idea about GSM wise quantity of PVC flex sheets/ rolls. In addition, it is found that no such data of GSM wise import is available for the earlier consignments. On the basis of various evidences, the department has tabulated actual rates of PVC flex sheets of different GSM imported from China. Except for a quantity of 2.519 MT imported under bill of entry No. 197326 dated 25.06.2007, which is taken of 600 GSM with value @ 0.70 USD per sqm, the rest quantity under this bill of entry as well as of earlier consignments imported by the appellant has been assumed to be of 320 GSM and rate of 0.40 USD per sqm has been applied.
The evidences relied upon by the department in this case for alleging undervaluation by the appellant are not admissible as neither supplier of the goods is same nor similarity or identical nature of the goods has been established by the department. Reliance on the party’s letter dated 15.02.2008 which later on, was retracted on 20.02.2008 is also not sustainable as the same has been obtained under duress - the department has not been able to sustain its charges of undervaluation against the appellant.
Appeal allowed.
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2025 (8) TMI 94 - CESTAT AHMEDABAD
Refund of accumulated / unutilized CENVAT Credit availed of service tax paid on input services for the financial years, 2008-09 to 2013-14 lying as on 31st March, 2014 - rejection on the ground that appellant have not taken registration and the CENVAT Credit taken by them for the period 1st November, 2008 to October, 2009 - HELD THAT:- It is settled position that CENVAT Credit and refund thereof cannot be denied merely because the claimant has not taken registration of Service Tax / Central Excise.
Whether refund of input duty / input service tax is admissible when appellant’s goods, which were exported are exempted from Central Excise duty and Service Tax and the export of the goods was made without bond / LUT? - HELD THAT:- Since, the appellant is availing full exemption and not even registered and the exempted goods were not exported under bond, refund has been denied. This issue was considered by Hon’ble High Court of Himachal Pradesh in the case of CCE vs. Drish Shoes Ltd. [2010 (5) TMI 334 - HIMACHAL PRADESH HIGH COURT]. Hon’ble High Court has held that refund of input credit is admissible when exempted goods are exported without execution of bond. Similar view was taken by the Hon’ble Bombay High Court in Retro India Ltd vs. Union of India [2007 (12) TMI 209 - BOMBAY HIGH COURT]. Therefore, the conclusion in the impugned order that the appellant is not eligible for exemption since the goods have not been exported under bond or LUT cannot be sustained. The Tribunal has also observed that execution of bond is only a procedure and its violation should not disentitled the appellant from taking of credit and claiming refund thereof.
The impugned order passed by the Commissioner and the Order-in-Original passed by the Adjudicating Authority be set aside and the matter may be remanded to the Adjudicating Authority for processing the refund claim and for passing suitable order - appeal allowed by way of remand.