Monthly fee framework for custodians replaces annual fee payment and revises transitional liability under the amended schedule.
The amendments replace the annual fee framework for custodians with a monthly fee framework, including corresponding changes in the regulatory provisions and Second Schedule. The revised schedule prescribes a monthly fee and sets out payment timing, proportionate liability for newly registered custodians, and transitional treatment for custodians already registered before commencement, including adjustment of any overlapping annual fee already paid.

Intraday borrowing by mutual funds clarified for timing mismatches, subject to Board-specified conditions.
Mutual funds are permitted to engage in intraday borrowing for addressing timing mismatches between a scheme's outflows and inflows, subject to conditions specified by the Board. The amendment clarifies that such borrowing is not barred where it is used for liquidity management within a scheme and remains controlled by regulatory conditions.

TDS exemption for IFSC ship lease rent applies only upon annual declaration within the elected deduction period.
TDS exemption applies to lease rent or supplemental lease rent for a ship paid to a qualifying IFSC Unit engaged in ship leasing. The lessor must provide the lessee a verified Form No. 1(N) declaration for each tax year within its elected twenty consecutive tax-year deduction period. After receiving the declaration, the lessee may not deduct tax and must report the exempt payments in the applicable tax-deduction statement. The exemption is unavailable outside the declared period, for which tax deduction remains required.

Aircraft lease rent tax exemption allows qualifying IFSC lessors to receive payments without tax deduction during their declared deduction period.
Exemption from tax deduction at source on aircraft lease rent applies to qualifying lease rent or supplemental lease rent paid to an IFSC Unit engaged in aircraft leasing that opts for the applicable deduction. The lessor must furnish and verify Form No. 1(N) for each selected tax year within twenty consecutive tax years. After receiving the declaration, the lessee must not deduct tax on qualifying payments and must report those payments in the prescribed tax-deduction statement. The exemption is limited to the declared period, and tax remains deductible for other years.

Origin determination rules under the India-UK trade agreement set proof requirements, product-specific tests, and verification safeguards.
Origin determination rules are prescribed for goods traded under the Comprehensive Economic and Trade Agreement between India and the United Kingdom. The rules define the criteria for originating status, including wholly obtained goods, goods produced exclusively from originating materials, and goods produced using non-originating materials where Annexure-A requirements are met. The framework also covers valuation, qualifying value content, cumulation, tolerance, proof of origin, record keeping, verification, temporary suspension, confidentiality, and product-specific origin rules, together with declaration templates, authentication procedures, and data protection safeguards.

Event animals receive customs and integrated tax exemption subject to identification, security requirements, and timely re-export
The notification exempts animals imported into India under the India-United Kingdom Comprehensive Economic and Trade Agreement for specified events, public functions, or use as guide dogs from applicable customs duty and integrated tax, subject to re-export. Importers must file a prescribed declaration, execute a bond equal to the goods' value, and generally provide security equal to 110% of the otherwise payable duty. The animals must remain identifiable, cannot be removed from the event location without customs permission, and must be re-exported within six months, subject to specified extensions for eligible institutional importers. Home consumption is permitted before expiry on payment of applicable duties and interest.

Anti-dumping duty on Normal Butanol is continued for five years with producer-specific invoice conditions and country-based rates.
Anti-dumping duty is continued on imports of Normal Butanol or N-Butyl Alcohol originating in or exported from Malaysia, South Africa and the United States of America, after final findings indicated a likelihood of continuation or recurrence of dumping and injury if the duty ceased. The notification supersedes the earlier 2021 measure, prescribes country-specific and producer-specific duty rates, and makes the lower rates for named Malaysian producers conditional on a valid commercial invoice containing a prescribed declaration of manufacture. The duty applies for five years from publication in the Official Gazette and is payable in Indian currency.

Anti-dumping duty absorption review keeps Glufosinate imports under provisional assessment with guarantee for differential duty.
Provision is made for provisional assessment of imports of Glufosinate and its salt originating in or exported from the People's Republic of China pending completion of an anti-absorption review investigation. The designated authority has initiated the review and recorded prima facie evidence of absorption of anti-dumping duty, so the subject imports remain provisionally assessed until the Central Government takes a decision under the review provisions. The assessment is subject to a guarantee for any differential anti-dumping duty that may become payable, while the existing anti-dumping duty continues to be levied and collected.

Anti-dumping duty provisional assessment ordered for Insoluble Sulphur imports from China during anti-absorption review.
Provisional assessment of imports of Insoluble Sulphur from the People's Republic of China is ordered pending completion of an anti-absorption review investigation, on the basis of prima facie evidence of absorption of anti-dumping duty. The provisional assessment is subject to furnishing a guarantee for any differential anti-dumping duty that may become payable, while the existing anti-dumping duty on imports from China and Japan continues to be levied and collected under the earlier notification.

Exemption for specified income of development authority subject to non-commercial activity, unchanged operations, and return filing conditions.
Mussoorie Dehradun Development Authority is notified for exemption under section 10(46) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 in respect of specified income arising to it as an authority constituted by the State Government of Uttarakhand. The exemption covers grants, loans and advances, statutory fees and charges, income from disposal of properties, lease or rent, and interest on bank deposits. The exemption is subject to conditions that the Authority shall not engage in commercial activity, its activities and income profile remain unchanged, and it files returns as required.

Buy-back regulations tighten open market limits, disclosure timelines, and compliance duties while allowing optional merchant banker engagement.
The buy-back regulations are amended to revise eligibility conditions, procedural timelines, disclosure obligations and compliance requirements. The amendments cap open market buy-back through stock exchange at less than fifteen per cent of paid-up capital and free reserves from 1 August 2026, bar a fresh offer within the prescribed interval from closure of the preceding offer, and prohibit any buy-back that would breach minimum public shareholding requirements. The public announcement, offer period, escrow, bank guarantee, promoter share freeze, and extinguishment procedures are also updated, and companies may dispense with a merchant banker if specified responsibilities are reassigned.

Municipal debt securities disclosure rules expand pooled financing, electronic advertising, investor incentives, ESG issuance conditions and special purpose vehicle compliance.
Special purpose vehicles established for pooled municipal financing must obtain constituent-municipality agreements before raising funds, disclose those agreements, and be formed as trusts or companies. Schedule IB requires extensive offer-document and placement-memorandum disclosures for listed municipal debt securities, covering issuer governance, project objects, refinancing, financial information, borrowings, litigation, creditor dues, approvals, undertakings and risk factors. Electronic public-issue advertising remains subject to a national-daily notice with a QR code and link. Specified investor categories may receive additional-interest or issue-price incentives only as initial allottees.

Securitisation governance and investor-risk rules tightened with limits on board representation, trustee conflicts, and single-asset concentration risk.
Amendments to the Securities and Exchange Board of India (Issue and Listing of Securitised Debt Instruments and Security Receipts) Regulations, 2008 introduce changes to governance, eligibility, disclosure, and risk classification in securitisation structures. They limit board representation by an RBI-regulated originator, prohibit acquisitions from originators linked to the trustee, replace references to originator with servicer in specified provisions, expand investor-interest based action under regulation 20, update trustee replacement language under regulation 45, and add concentration risk from single asset securitisation in Schedule V.

Provident fund contribution rate set at twelve percent for employers and employees, with specified industrial and insolvency exclusions.
Sets the contribution rate under the Employees' Provident Funds Scheme, 2026 at twelve percent for both employer and employee in covered establishments, subject to specified exclusions. The exclusions include establishments with an approved resolution plan or repayment plan under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016, and specified establishments in the jute, beedi, brick, coir other than the spinning sector, and guar gum sectors. The notification is deemed effective from 21 November 2025.

Employer contribution rate under the deposit linked insurance scheme fixed as one-half per cent of wages payable monthly.
Employer's contribution rate under the Employees' Deposit Linked Insurance Scheme, 2026 is specified as one-half per cent of the wages payable in relation to each employee. The contribution is payable every month by the employer to the Insurance Fund established under the Code on Social Security, 2020.

Employer contribution rate to the Pension Fund is notified for the Employees' Pension Scheme, 2026.
Employer's contribution to the Pension Fund under the Employees' Pension Scheme, 2026 is notified at eight and one-third per cent of wages payable to employees. The contribution must be paid every month by the employer to the Pension Fund established under the Code on Social Security, 2020, with effect from the commencement of the scheme. The notification is issued in exercise of statutory power under the Code and without prejudice to the earlier notification referenced in the text.

Aadhaar authentication permission expands for a reporting entity under money-laundering compliance standards and privacy safeguards.
The Central Government permits a specified reporting entity to perform authentication under the Aadhaar Act for the purposes of section 11A of the Prevention of Money-laundering Act, 2002. The permission is given after consultation with the Unique Identification Authority of India and the Reserve Bank of India, and on the basis that the entity will comply with the standards of privacy and security under the Aadhaar Act.

Rescue worker medical fitness standards require comprehensive clinical testing, prescribed physical criteria, and structured certification before training
Medical examination standards apply to persons selected for rescue and recovery training and to rescue-trained persons. Assessment covers physical and mental fitness, locomotor function, unaided vision, hearing and audiometry, respiratory and cardiovascular health, neurological status, metabolic and blood parameters, renal function, BMI, dental health, and specified pathological conditions. Required procedures include chest radiography, spirometry, cardiovascular assessment with 12-lead electrocardiography and lipid profile, neurological examination, and the Height Pass and Vertigo Test. The certificate and report record clinical findings, investigations, supporting reports, fitness status, and any required treatment or re-examination.

Rescue trained person standards set mandatory instruction topics, annual practice requirements, and refresher training conditions.
Standards are specified for the courses of instructions and practices for every rescue trained person under rule 141(2) of the Occupational Safety, Health and Working Conditions (Central) Rules, 2026. The instructions cover mine fire response, breathing apparatus, gas detection, rescue and recovery work, rope rescue, lifting equipment, fire extinguishers and cardio pulmonary resuscitation. The practice requirement prescribes at least eight annual practices, with specified distribution between mines and a training gallery, and permits a special five-day refresher course where the gap exceeds four months for valid reasons.

Initial rescue and recovery training covers underground fire response, breathing apparatus practice, rope rescue, CPR, and rescue tools.
Courses of instruction and practice are specified for initial training in rescue and recovery work. The instruction covers underground fire recovery, breathing and tube apparatus, revival methods, gas detection, gas sampling, mine plans, rope rescue, lifting bags, hydraulic cutters, spreaders, jacks, ring saws, fire extinguishers and cardio pulmonary resuscitation. The practical component requires not less than ten breathing apparatus practices, minimum training on CPR and rescue tools, and a separate period for rope rescue equipment training by recommended trainers.