Issues: (i) Whether the seized gold was liable to absolute confiscation; (ii) whether the seized Indian currency was liable to confiscation as sale proceeds of smuggled gold; (iii) whether penalty on the person from whose possession the gold was recovered was sustainable; (iv) whether penalties on the other two appellants were sustainable.

Issue (i): Whether the seized gold was liable to absolute confiscation.

Analysis: Gold is notified goods for purposes of Section 123 of the Customs Act, 1962. The gold was recovered from conscious possession, and no documentary evidence established its lawful importation, acquisition or possession. The statutory burden was therefore not discharged. The statements and attendant circumstances independently corroborated the illicit nature of the goods; the claimant had also relinquished his claim over them.

Conclusion: The gold was rightly held liable to absolute confiscation under Sections 111(b) and 111(d) of the Customs Act, 1962, against the assessee.

Issue (ii): Whether the seized Indian currency was liable to confiscation as sale proceeds of smuggled gold.

Analysis: The material on record showed that the person in possession collected and retained gold and its cash sale proceeds in the course of the bullion dealings. No contrary evidence explained the currency, and the claim over it had been relinquished.

Conclusion: The Indian currency was rightly confiscated as sale proceeds of smuggled gold under Section 121 of the Customs Act, 1962, against the assessee.

Issue (iii): Whether penalty on the person from whose possession the gold was recovered was sustainable.

Analysis: The recovery from conscious possession, statements recorded under Section 108, transaction records, substantial currency recovery, and absence of verifiable details regarding suppliers and intended recipients cumulatively established knowing involvement in transporting and dealing with smuggled gold.

Conclusion: The penalty under Sections 112(a) and 112(b) of the Customs Act, 1962 was sustained, against the assessee.

Issue (iv): Whether penalties on the other two appellants were sustainable.

Analysis: In respect of one appellant, awareness arising from a family relationship did not establish an active act of abetment or conscious dealing. In respect of the employee, the allegations rested substantially on his statement, without recovery from him or independent evidence proving knowledge and active complicity. Penal liability requires cogent corroborative evidence of conscious participation and cannot arise merely from relationship or employment.

Conclusion: The penalties on the two appellants were unsustainable and were set aside, in favour of the assessee.

Final Conclusion: The confiscation of the gold and currency and the penalty upon the person in conscious possession were maintained, while penalties lacking independent proof of knowing involvement were annulled.

Ratio Decidendi: Penalty for abetment or dealing with confiscable goods requires cogent evidence of conscious and active participation; family relationship or employment alone does not establish such liability.

Issues: (i) Whether a statutory auditor who is not a person specified under the relevant provisions may be prosecuted for non-compliance with requirements concerning the company's balance sheet and profit and loss account; (ii) Whether the allegations disclosed an offence of making false statements by the statutory auditor; (iii) Whether the allegations established wilful non-compliance by the statutory auditor with audit-reporting requirements.

Issue (i): Whether a statutory auditor who is not a person specified under the relevant provisions may be prosecuted for non-compliance with requirements concerning the company's balance sheet and profit and loss account.

Analysis: Liability for non-compliance concerning the form and contents of accounts is confined to the managing director, manager, directors, officers or employees identified by the statutory scheme, or a person specifically charged by the management with securing such compliance. The auditor was neither within those specified categories nor alleged to have been charged with that duty.

Conclusion: The petitioner could not be prosecuted for the alleged non-compliance concerning the company's accounts.

Issue (ii): Whether the allegations disclosed an offence of making false statements by the statutory auditor.

Analysis: The complaint did not allege that the petitioner made a materially false statement in the audit report or omitted a material fact while knowing it to be material. An alleged failure to report accounting-standard non-compliance by an auditor is specifically addressed by the separate provision governing auditor default and does not, without the required knowledge and false statement or knowing omission, constitute the offence alleged.

Conclusion: The allegations did not make out an offence of false statements against the petitioner.

Issue (iii): Whether the allegations established wilful non-compliance by the statutory auditor with audit-reporting requirements.

Analysis: The complaint itself recorded that the audit reports contained qualifications concerning deficient fixed-asset records and inventory verification. The asserted failures to make further enquiries or observations, even if accepted, indicated at most want of due care or dereliction of duty. Neither the complaint nor its allegations asserted a wilful default, which is indispensable for penal liability of an auditor.

Conclusion: The allegations did not establish wilful auditor default and could not sustain prosecution of the petitioner.

Final Conclusion: As none of the invoked penal provisions was attracted on the pleaded allegations, the criminal proceedings against the petitioner were unsustainable.

Ratio Decidendi: A statutory auditor cannot be criminally prosecuted for account-related defaults or false statements absent the statutorily required status, a knowingly false statement or material omission, and, where prescribed, a pleaded and supportable allegation of wilful default.

Issues: (i) Whether discounted trade receivables acquired by a bank under a TReDS reverse-factoring arrangement constitute financial debt or operational debt; (ii) Whether the alleged erroneous recording of a concession regarding precedent vitiated the impugned order; (iii) Whether a claim filed in an incorrect category required inclusion in the resolution plan despite the creditor's delayed filing in the correct category; (iv) Whether relief could be granted after approval and full implementation of the resolution plan.

Issue (i): Whether discounted trade receivables acquired by a bank under a TReDS reverse-factoring arrangement constitute financial debt or operational debt.

Analysis: Financial debt under Section 5(8) requires disbursal against consideration for the time value of money. Under the TReDS mechanism, suppliers assigned to the bank their pre-existing receivables arising from goods supplied to the corporate debtor after the bank discounted the invoices and paid the suppliers. No funds were disbursed to, or placed at the disposal of, the corporate debtor. The debtor's obligation remained the trade payable for goods received, merely payable to the assignee rather than the suppliers. The discount and charges for delayed payment were compensation for early realisation of trade receivables, not consideration for an independent loan. An assignment does not transform operational debt into financial debt; the financier steps into the suppliers' position as an operational creditor. The claimant's status as a scheduled commercial bank does not alter the substance of the transaction.

Conclusion: The TReDS reverse-factoring claim is operational debt, not financial debt, and the bank is an operational creditor.

Issue (ii): Whether the alleged erroneous recording of a concession regarding precedent vitiated the impugned order.

Analysis: The classification issue was independently determined on merits and reached the same conclusion as the adjudicating authority. Therefore, even assuming that the alleged concession was incorrectly recorded, it had no effect on the outcome.

Conclusion: The alleged error regarding concession does not vitiate the impugned order.

Issue (iii): Whether a claim filed in an incorrect category required inclusion in the resolution plan despite the creditor's delayed filing in the correct category.

Analysis: The resolution professional classified the claim as operational debt and specifically directed filing in the appropriate form. The creditor instead persisted with its financial-creditor claim and filed the operational-creditor claim only after dismissal of its application and after approval of the plan by the committee of creditors. A verifiable claim cannot be said to have been improperly ignored where the creditor did not timely lodge it in the category identified by the resolution professional.

Conclusion: The delayed operational-creditor claim did not require inclusion in the resolution plan.

Issue (iv): Whether relief could be granted after approval and full implementation of the resolution plan.

Analysis: The resolution plan had been approved, fully implemented, payments made, and the monitoring committee dissolved. Reclassification at that stage would unsettle a completed insolvency resolution process, and no ground within the limited scope for challenging an approved plan was established.

Conclusion: No relief capable of disturbing the completed resolution process can be granted.

Final Conclusion: The classification of the bank's TReDS receivables as operational debt remains undisturbed, and the completed resolution process cannot be reopened on that claim.

Ratio Decidendi: A financier acquiring discounted invoices under a TReDS reverse-factoring arrangement, without disbursing funds to the corporate debtor for the time value of money, acquires assigned operational receivables and does not become a financial creditor.

Issues: (i) Whether the Adjudicating Authority had jurisdiction under Section 60(5)(c) of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 to determine and protect access to a liquidation asset; (ii) Whether the Corporate Debtor had a subsisting prescriptive right of way over the appellants' adjoining land and whether its obstruction was connected with the liquidation process.

Issue (i): Whether the Adjudicating Authority had jurisdiction under Section 60(5)(c) of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 to determine and protect access to a liquidation asset.

Analysis: Section 60(5)(c) extends to questions of law or fact arising out of or relating to insolvency or liquidation. The disputed obstruction arose after commencement of CIRP and directly affected inspection, saleability and value realisation of land forming part of the liquidation estate. Protection of an existing access right required for liquidation does not amount to creating a fresh civil right or usurping an exclusive statutory forum's jurisdiction.

Conclusion: The application under Section 60(5)(c) was maintainable, in favour of the Liquidator.

Issue (ii): Whether the Corporate Debtor had a subsisting prescriptive right of way over the appellants' adjoining land and whether its obstruction was connected with the liquidation process.

Analysis: The non-agricultural permission of 1999 recorded access from the National Highway through the adjoining blocks. The access was openly and continuously used for approximately two decades without contemporaneous objection, including after the appellants acquired the servient land. The alternate route crossed third-party land and was not a legally secure access. Satellite imagery and the timing of the obstruction supported the finding that the established access was blocked after CIRP in a manner detrimental to value maximisation.

Conclusion: The Corporate Debtor possessed a subsisting right of way under Section 15 of the Indian Easements Act, 1882, and the obstruction was connected with and prejudicial to liquidation, in favour of the Liquidator.

Dissenting Opinion: Justice N. Seshayee considered that a contested prescriptive easement imposes a burden on third-party property and requires proof of a defined route, adverse user as of right, uninterrupted twenty-year enjoyment, and examination of evidence. Such a civil dispute falls outside the Tribunal's summary jurisdiction and must be pursued before a civil court with leave under Section 33(5) of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016.

Final Conclusion: The existing access was validly protected as integral to effective realisation of the liquidation estate, and consequential measures to keep it unobstructed were sustained.

Ratio Decidendi: Section 60(5)(c) of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 permits protection of a pre-existing access right where post-insolvency obstruction has a direct and proximate nexus with liquidation and asset value realisation.

Issues: (i) Whether the appeal was time-barred and whether a clerical rectification of the original order restarted the appellate limitation period; (ii) Whether the Section 9 application was time-barred, including whether the balance confirmations constituted valid acknowledgments extending limitation; (iii) Whether a pre-existing dispute barred initiation of insolvency proceedings under Section 9.

Issue (i): Whether the appeal was time-barred and whether a clerical rectification of the original order restarted the appellate limitation period.

Analysis: Section 61(2) of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 permits filing within 30 days, with condonation limited to a further 15 days. Limitation runs from pronouncement of the original order. The subsequent order corrected only the date of pronouncement and made no substantive alteration to the findings; hence it did not create a fresh limitation period. Section 60(6) applies to suits and applications by or against a corporate debtor during moratorium and does not extend the period for an appeal under Section 61. Administrative delay in authorising the appeal could not enlarge the statutory outer limit.

Conclusion: The appeal was barred by limitation; the clerical rectification did not restart limitation.

Issue (ii): Whether the Section 9 application was time-barred, including whether the balance confirmations constituted valid acknowledgments extending limitation.

Analysis: Article 137 of the Limitation Act, 1963 applies to a Section 9 application, and limitation runs for three years from the date of default. The admitted default date was 07.03.2015, whereas the application was filed on 23.09.2021. A valid acknowledgment under Section 18 must be written, proved, unequivocal, and made before expiry of the applicable limitation period. The balance confirmations were unproved and reflected materially inconsistent outstanding amounts; together with the creditor's own inconsistent credit-balance communication, they did not establish an unequivocal acknowledgment of an ascertained liability.

Conclusion: The Section 9 application was time-barred and was not saved by a valid acknowledgment of liability.

Issue (iii): Whether a pre-existing dispute barred initiation of insolvency proceedings under Section 9.

Analysis: Correspondence predating the demand notice recorded objections concerning account reconciliation, set-offs and the correctness of ledger figures. These communications disclosed a genuine and continuing dispute concerning the debt claimed, rather than a spurious, hypothetical or illusory defence. The shifting amounts in the balance confirmations reinforced that the debt was not crystallized.

Conclusion: A genuine pre-existing dispute existed, independently rendering the Section 9 application unsustainable.

Final Conclusion: The operational creditor could not invoke the insolvency process for a stale and disputed claim, and the refusal to commence CIRP remained legally sustainable.

Ratio Decidendi: A clerical rectification that does not substantively modify an insolvency order does not reset appellate limitation, and a Section 9 application cannot proceed where the claim is time-barred or subject to a genuine pre-existing dispute.

Issues: Whether the extended period of limitation could be invoked for the excise-duty demand where the relevant facts and records had been made available during audit.

Analysis: The demand covered April 2011 to November 2013, while the audit had issued a deficiency memo on 10.03.2014 based on the assessee's records. The show-cause notice was issued only on 13.04.2016 by invoking the extended period. Availability of the material records to audit did not establish suppression or any conduct justifying invocation of the extended limitation period.

Conclusion: The extended period of limitation was not invocable; the demand raised by its invocation was time-barred and was set aside in favour of the assessee.

Issues: (i) Whether the additional input tax credit benefit was fully passed on to eligible homebuyers; (ii) whether free additional construction work could substitute commensurate reduction in prices; (iii) whether interest was payable on the unpassed benefit; and (iv) whether penalty was attracted for the contravention.

Issue (i): Whether the additional input tax credit benefit was fully passed on to eligible homebuyers.

Analysis: Section 171(1) requires the benefit of additional input tax credit to reach each recipient through a commensurate reduction in price. The supplementary verification accepted that the benefit had been passed to four homebuyers, but determined a remaining differential amount of Rs. 99,435 for two homebuyers. The revised computation and supporting material disclosed no factual or legal infirmity.

Conclusion: The Respondent failed to pass on Rs. 99,435 of the additional input tax credit benefit to the concerned homebuyers, contrary to Section 171(1), in favour of Revenue.

Issue (ii): Whether free additional construction work could substitute commensurate reduction in prices.

Analysis: The statutory mode of passing on tax or input tax credit benefit is commensurate reduction in price. An equivalent commercial advantage, including free additional construction work, does not fulfil that prescribed mode even where its asserted value exceeds the differential benefit.

Conclusion: Free additional construction work is not valid compliance with the obligation to pass on input tax credit benefit through commensurate reduction in prices, in favour of Revenue.

Issue (iii): Whether interest was payable on the unpassed benefit.

Analysis: Rule 133(3)(b) mandates interest where an amount has not been passed on by commensurate reduction in prices. The affected recipients were deprived of the monetary benefit from the dates on which the higher amounts were collected.

Conclusion: Interest at 18% per annum is payable on the differential profiteered amount from collection of the higher amount until actual payment, in favour of Revenue.

Issue (iv): Whether penalty was attracted for the contravention.

Analysis: The contravention continued after Section 171(3A) came into force on 01.01.2020. The statutory proviso preserves the consequence that no penalty is leviable if the profiteered amount is deposited within thirty days of the order.

Conclusion: The Respondent is liable to penalty under Section 171(3A), in favour of Revenue.

Final Conclusion: The remaining input tax credit benefit must be passed to the affected recipients with statutory interest, and the contravention attracts the applicable anti-profiteering penalty regime.

Ratio Decidendi: The benefit of additional input tax credit under Section 171 must be transmitted to each recipient by commensurate reduction in price and cannot be replaced by in-kind or other commercial benefits.

Issues: (i) Whether the Inland Container Depot is a public place under the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988; (ii) Whether a Reach Stacker used within the Inland Container Depot is a motor vehicle under the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988.

Issue (i): Whether the Inland Container Depot is a public place under the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988.

Analysis: A public place requires a right of access vested in the public. The Inland Container Depot is a customs bonded area where ingress and egress are controlled and access is confined to duly authorised persons. Its specially designed internal roads, used for movement of heavy machinery and containers, are not places to which members of the public can claim entry as of right.

Conclusion: The Inland Container Depot and its internal roads are not a public place under the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988. This conclusion is against the claimant.

Issue (ii): Whether a Reach Stacker used within the Inland Container Depot is a motor vehicle under the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988.

Analysis: The requirement that a mechanically propelled vehicle be adapted for use upon roads entails its suitability and dominant utility for ordinary roads. The Reach Stacker substantially exceeds prescribed road-weight limits, is transported in dismantled form, lacks ordinary road-safety features, and operates on specially reinforced internal roads for limited container-handling functions. Though wheeled and mechanically propelled, it is a special-purpose vehicle adapted only for use in enclosed premises and falls within the statutory exclusion. Its non-registration is consistent with this classification, since registration is required only for a motor vehicle.

Conclusion: A Reach Stacker of this nature is excluded from the definition of motor vehicle under the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988. This conclusion is in favour of the appellant.

Final Conclusion: The compensation claim under the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 cannot be maintained in respect of the accident involving the Reach Stacker within the restricted Inland Container Depot; the clarification preserves claims involving regular road-going vehicles entering that area.

Ratio Decidendi: A special-purpose mechanically propelled vehicle whose dominant use is confined to enclosed premises and which is not suitable for ordinary public roads is excluded from the statutory definition of a motor vehicle, notwithstanding its wheels and mechanical propulsion.

Issues: Whether a person required to furnish information in an ongoing SFIO investigation has an enforceable right at the preliminary stage to obtain the Central Government's investigation orders and the material underlying those orders.

Analysis: The notice under Section 217 disclosed that the information was sought in connection with an investigation into identified companies and because of the petitioner's financial transactions with them, and specified the categories of records required. The investigation was ongoing, involved multiple entities, and the investigation orders and underlying material contained sensitive information. Disclosure at that stage could prejudice the wider investigation and connected proceedings. No prejudicial action against the petitioner had yet reached a stage warranting disclosure or invocation of remedies based on natural justice.

Conclusion: The petitioner had no enforceable right to disclosure of the investigation orders or underlying material at the preliminary stage; it may pursue remedies available in law if prejudicial action is taken subsequently.

Issues: (i) Whether recovery of central excise duty by invocation of the extended limitation period was sustainable; (ii) Whether Nicotine Sulphate was classifiable under CTH 24039990 or CTH 29399900; (iii) Whether the manufacturer and purchaser were related parties for valuation of the goods supplied to the purchaser.

Issue (i): Whether recovery of central excise duty by invocation of the extended limitation period was sustainable.

Analysis: The manufacturer had informed the department of manufacture and classification of Nicotine Sulphate under Chapter 29 and had consistently disclosed the disputed classification in monthly ER-1 returns. The disclosed material did not support an allegation of suppression or misstatement necessary to invoke the extended period.

Conclusion: The demand for June 2015 to June 2017 issued by invoking the extended limitation period was barred by limitation, in favour of the assessee.

Issue (ii): Whether Nicotine Sulphate was classifiable under CTH 24039990 or CTH 29399900.

Analysis: The manufacturing process showed that the product was a vegetable alkaloid. Heading 29.39 covers alkaloids and their derivatives, and the Chapter 29 restriction concerning separately chemically defined compounds did not exclude this product because alkaloids are an identified exception under the HSN general notes. The report relied on by Revenue concerned a sample drawn from a third-party premises without the manufacturer's representative, tested more than a year after drawal contrary to the prescribed sampling standard, and included a classification opinion beyond the chemical examiner's analytical role. Factory samples tested subsequently described the product as an aqueous solution of Nicotine Sulphate and an organic chemical.

Conclusion: Nicotine Sulphate was correctly classifiable under CTH 29399900 and not under CTH 24039990; the consequential duty, interest and penalty were unsustainable, in favour of the assessee.

Issue (iii): Whether the manufacturer and purchaser were related parties for valuation of the goods supplied to the purchaser.

Analysis: The allegation of related-party status rested on one individual being a partner of the manufacturer and managing director of the purchaser. No supporting evidence established that the entities satisfied the statutory requirements of related persons. The valuation demand based on 110% of cost of production consequently lacked foundation.

Conclusion: The entities were not established to be related parties; the differential duty, interest and penalty on this count were unsustainable, in favour of the assessee.

Final Conclusion: The extended-period demand and the related-party valuation demand fail, while the declared Chapter 29 classification of Nicotine Sulphate prevails.

Ratio Decidendi: A disclosed tariff classification cannot attract the extended limitation period absent suppression, and Nicotine Sulphate, as a vegetable alkaloid derivative, falls under the alkaloid heading notwithstanding the general requirement of separate chemical definition in Chapter 29.

Issues: (i) Whether acquittal in proceedings for dishonour of cheque bars the civil suit through issue estoppel or res judicata; (ii) Whether the plaintiff proved voluntary execution and delivery of the cheque so as to establish the transaction and attract statutory presumptions.

Issue (i): Whether acquittal in proceedings for dishonour of cheque bars the civil suit through issue estoppel or res judicata.

Analysis: Findings in criminal proceedings were not relevant or binding in the civil suit. Criminal prosecution requires proof beyond reasonable doubt, whereas the civil claim is determined on a preponderance of probabilities. An acquittal may only establish failure to prove criminal guilt and does not establish that debt or civil liability has been disproved. The civil court must independently assess the evidence, even where the cheque, witnesses and material overlap.

Conclusion: The acquittal did not create issue estoppel or res judicata and did not bar the civil suit; this issue was against the appellant.

Issue (ii): Whether the plaintiff proved voluntary execution and delivery of the cheque so as to establish the transaction and attract statutory presumptions.

Analysis: Proof that the signature on a cheque belongs to the defendant is distinct from proof that the cheque was voluntarily executed and delivered as an operative instrument. Since execution was specifically denied, the plaintiff had the initial burden to establish voluntary execution before relying on statutory presumptions. The evidence did not satisfactorily prove the circumstances of delivery or execution: the material witness's account concerning payment, completion and delivery of the cheque was materially inconsistent. The trial court's inferences concerning the alleged borrowing were founded on surmise rather than evidence.

Conclusion: The plaintiff failed to prove voluntary execution and delivery of the cheque or the alleged transaction; consequently, the statutory presumptions did not arise. This issue was in favour of the appellant.

Final Conclusion: The civil money claim founded on the cheque could not be sustained because its execution and the underlying transaction were not established.

Ratio Decidendi: Where execution of a cheque is specifically denied, proof of the drawer's signature alone does not invoke presumptions of consideration and liability; the claimant must first prove voluntary execution and delivery of the cheque as an operative instrument.

Issues: Whether a demand based on alleged undervaluation of guarantees could be confirmed under Section 73 without prior scrutiny and investigation to ascertain revenue leakage.

Analysis: Following self-assessment, the statutory framework requires scrutiny of returns and permits audit, special audit and inspection or investigation mechanisms to verify whether transactions resulted in tax leakage. The authorities issued the demand notice and confirmed it without undertaking those measures to determine whether the guarantees were corporate guarantees or whether taxable value had been suppressed.

Conclusion: The demand-confirming order is unsustainable and is quashed; the matter is remitted for inspection or investigation and fresh determination, if warranted.

Issues: Whether the compounding fee was required to be computed under the CBDT Guidelines dated 16.05.2008 or under the revised Guidelines dated 17.10.2024.

Analysis: The applicability of the 2008 Guidelines had been determined in earlier proceedings between the same parties and that determination, affirmed in appeal, had attained finality. A direction to calculate and communicate the compounding fee was confined to quantification and did not permit reopening the settled question governing the applicable guidelines. The statutory power to issue compounding instructions could not override a final inter partes judicial determination. Further, the 2024 Guidelines did not apply because the application had not been rejected for a curable defect contemplated by those Guidelines.

Conclusion: The compounding fee must be recomputed strictly under the CBDT Guidelines dated 16.05.2008 after crediting the amount already paid by the assessee.

Issues: Whether writ jurisdiction should be exercised to adjudicate the disputed denial of input tax credit, interest and penalty despite the available statutory appellate remedy.

Analysis: The dispute required verification of the existence and utilisation of the ERP software, as well as the genuineness of the underlying transaction. These factual matters had not been tested by either side. Given the statutory appeal mechanism, writ jurisdiction was not appropriate for resolving that factual controversy. In the special circumstances, an opportunity was provided to pursue the statutory appeal without pre-deposit.

Outcome: The writ appeal was disposed of with liberty to file a statutory appeal within 30 days; the appellate authority was directed to entertain it without pre-deposit and decide it on merits within three months.

Issues: Whether an assessment order under the Uttar Pradesh Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017 could be sustained where the show-cause notice was uploaded only on the GST portal after cancellation of the taxpayer's registration.

Analysis: Following cancellation of registration, the taxpayer was not obliged to monitor the GST portal. Service of a show-cause notice in those circumstances required recourse to an alternative mode of service. Uploading the notice solely on the portal denied an effective opportunity of hearing and breached the principles of natural justice.

Conclusion: The assessment order was vitiated for breach of the principles of natural justice and was quashed, in favour of the assessee.

Issues: (i) Whether unspent Government grant constituted taxable income; (ii) Whether interest on unutilised grant was allowable as a deduction; (iii) Whether depreciation could be denied for individual assets retired from active use within a block of assets.

Issue (i): Whether unspent Government grant constituted taxable income.

Analysis: The grants were received for implementing the specified micro-irrigation scheme and were subject to directions governing their utilisation. Applying the established treatment of project-specific Government grants, the amount could not be regarded as income of the assessee.

Conclusion: Unspent Government grant was not taxable income. The issue was decided in favour of the assessee.

Issue (ii): Whether interest on unutilised grant was allowable as a deduction.

Analysis: The obligation to pay interest on the unspent grant arose from the terms governing disbursement of the grant and was an ascertained business liability, rather than a contingent liability.

Conclusion: Interest payable on the unutilised grant was deductible. The issue was decided in favour of the assessee.

Issue (iii): Whether depreciation could be denied for individual assets retired from active use within a block of assets.

Analysis: Under the block-of-assets regime, individual assets in a block cannot be segregated for restricting depreciation where the business assets in the block are used. Simultaneous active use of every individual item is not required.

Conclusion: Depreciation could not be denied merely because particular assets within the block had been retired from active use. The issue was decided in favour of the assessee.

Final Conclusion: The deletions of additions relating to the grant and interest, and the allowance of depreciation, remain undisturbed; no substantial question of law arose.

Ratio Decidendi: A project-specific Government grant subject to mandated utilisation is not taxable income; liabilities arising from its governing terms are deductible when ascertained; and depreciation under the block-of-assets regime cannot be restricted by isolating individual inactive assets.

Issues: Whether the challenge to the seizure of gold and the pending customs show-cause proceedings should be adjudicated in writ jurisdiction before completion of statutory adjudication.

Analysis: The pending proceeding before the Additional Commissioner of Customs was considered an available forum for determination of the parties' claims. No view was expressed on the legality of the seizure, the show-cause notice, or the merits of the competing claims. The petitioners were directed to submit further material and participate in the adjudication, which must be concluded through a reasoned order after fair opportunity of hearing.

Outcome: The writ petitions were kept pending and adjourned sine die pending completion of adjudication by the customs authority.

Issues: (i) Whether construction of a mini agricultural market and agricultural facilitation centre for a government organisation qualified for exemption as a structure predominantly meant for use other than commerce, industry or business; (ii) Whether construction of residential units under government-approved housing projects was rendered to a competent government authority and eligible for exemption; (iii) Whether construction of a government high school under contracts entered into after 01.03.2015 qualified for exemption under Entry 14A.

Issue (i): Whether construction of a mini agricultural market and agricultural facilitation centre for a government organisation qualified for exemption as a structure predominantly meant for use other than commerce, industry or business.

Analysis: Entry 12A(c) of Notification No. 25/2012-ST dated 20.06.2012 exempts original works provided to Government, a local authority, or a governmental authority where the structure is predominantly meant for non-commercial use. Commercial use requires assessment of the factual purpose of the activity. Although the market infrastructure was created under a government drought-mitigation scheme, no statutory mandate for collection of user fees or evidence that such fees were deposited into the government treasury was established. The activity therefore did not fall within statutory public functions undertaken for non-commercial use.

Conclusion: The exemption was rightly denied and service tax on construction of the mini agricultural market remained confirmed, against the assessee.

Issue (ii): Whether construction of residential units under government-approved housing projects was rendered to a competent government authority and eligible for exemption.

Analysis: The work orders for residential units at Vasant Vihar and Chhatarpur were issued by the Executive Engineer of the M.P. Housing and Infrastructure Development Board and showed that the works formed part of government-approved residential housing projects. The basis that services were not supplied to a competent authority was therefore unsupported.

Conclusion: The service-tax demand on construction of residential units was set aside, in favour of the assessee.

Issue (iii): Whether construction of a government high school under contracts entered into after 01.03.2015 qualified for exemption under Entry 14A.

Analysis: Entry 14A restricts the exemption to original-work contracts entered into before 01.03.2015. The relevant school-construction work orders were dated 26.09.2016, after the prescribed date.

Conclusion: The exemption was rightly denied and service tax on construction of the government high school remained confirmed, against the assessee.

Final Conclusion: The residential-units demand was excluded, while the tax liabilities relating to the agricultural mini market and government high school were sustained.

Ratio Decidendi: An exemption for government-related original works requires fulfilment of the prescribed non-commercial-use conditions; infrastructure involving fee-based use is not shown to be non-commercial merely because it is created under a government scheme, and a contract-specific temporal condition for exemption must be strictly satisfied.

Issues: Whether penalty could be imposed for alleged manipulation of Form-38 where machinery parts imported for the assessee's own repair and maintenance use were accompanied by requisite documents and no evasion or attempted evasion of tax was established.

Analysis: The goods were accompanied by the tax invoice, goods receipt, Form-38 and Form-402, with no discrepancy in their description, quantity or value. The only irregularity was use of a correction marker in a Form-38 column concerning invoice-tax amount. The machinery parts were not intended for resale, and no material showed that the assessee dealt in or sold such plant and machinery. Further, the authorities had recorded no finding that tax had been evaded or that there was an attempt to evade it. The applicable precedents governed the matter.

Conclusion: Penalty under Section 54(1)(14) was not sustainable; the issue was decided in favour of the assessee and against the Revenue.