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    Deduction under Section 80CCD extended to NPS Vatsalya contributions, with withdrawal taxation and partial withdrawal exemption.
    Parents or guardians may claim a statutory deduction for amounts paid into a minor's NPS Vatsalya account up to a prescribed ceiling. Amounts for which a deduction is allowed, including any accretions, will be taxed on withdrawal when deposits were made to a minor's account, whereas sums received on account closure due to the minor's death will not be treated as the parent's or guardian's income. Partial withdrawals for defined contingencies are excluded from the parent's or guardian's income to the extent they do not exceed a prescribed percentage of contributions and subject to regulatory conditions.
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    Exemption for National Savings Scheme withdrawals: qualifying pre-1992 deposits and accrued interest by individuals are excluded from taxation.
    Amendment to Section 80CCA exempts withdrawals by individuals of NSS deposits and accrued interest-limited to deposits made before 1 April 1992 for which a deduction was allowed-and applies to withdrawals made on or after 29 August 2024, with retrospective effect from that date.
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    Annual value of self-occupied property simplified, nil deemed where owner occupies or cannot occupy for any reason.
    The annual value of a property used as the owner's residence shall be taken as nil if the owner occupies it for residence or cannot actually occupy it for any reason; the existing restriction limiting this benefit to a specified limited number of houses remains unchanged and the amendment applies prospectively under the Finance Bill.
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    Obligation to furnish crypto-asset transaction information: reporting entities must file prescribed statements and correct defects promptly.
    Proposed section 285BAA mandates that prescribed reporting entities furnish statements of crypto-asset transactions to the prescribed income-tax authority in prescribed form, manner and time, allows the authority to intimate defects and permit rectification within a prescribed period, treats unrectified defects as inaccurate information, enables issuance of notices to require late filers to submit statements, requires disclosure and correction of discovered inaccuracies, and empowers the Central Government to prescribe registration, information maintenance, and due diligence obligations for identification of crypto-asset users or owners; the virtual digital asset definition is also expanded to include crypto-assets relying on cryptographically secured distributed ledgers.
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    Tonnage tax option timeframe extended - order window lengthened to quarter-end for new applications, easing verification.
    The amendment extends the decision period for applications to opt into the tonnage tax scheme: where an application is received on or after 1 April 2025 the Joint Commissioner must pass the written order approving or rejecting the option before the expiry of three months from the end of the quarter in which the application was received, providing additional time for verification, inspections, and an opportunity of being heard.
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    Amendment provides that prosecution for failure to pay tax collected at source shall not be instituted if payment has been made to the Central Government on or before the time prescribed for filing the quarterly statement under the proviso to sub section (3) of the tax collected at source provision, thereby conditioning criminal liability on meeting the quarterly statement remittance deadline.
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    Penalty authority of Assessing Officer expanded; prior Joint Commissioner approval required for penalties exceeding prescribed statutory limit.
    Penalties under specified sections will be levied by the Assessing Officer instead of the Joint Commissioner, subject to the prior approval requirement where penalties exceed the statutory threshold in sub section (2) of section 274; a consequential amendment to clause (n) of sub section (1) of section 246A is proposed. Section 271BB, a penalty tied to an omitted parent provision, is proposed to be omitted. The amendments are to take effect from the first day of April following enactment.
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    Faceless schemes notification: Government may issue ongoing directions allowing notifications beyond the prior cutoff to operationalise schemes.
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    Processing period for immunity applications extended to a longer disposal timeframe for Assessing Officers, effective from April.
    The amendment extends the Assessing Officer's processing period for applications seeking immunity from penalty and prosecution from one month to three months measured from the end of the month in which the application is received. The current filing requirement that an application for immunity from penalty be made within one month from the end of the month in which the relevant order is received remains as stated. The amendment is proposed to take effect from the first day of April, 2025.
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    Updated return time-limit extended to encourage voluntary compliance, with higher additional tax rates for later filings.
    Extension of the filing window for updated returns from two years to four years with a graded schedule of higher additional income-tax rates for filings after two, three, and up to four years; filing barred where a show-cause notice has been issued after thirty-six months, subject to an exception if a later determination finds the notice unwarranted. Effective 1 April 2025.
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    Tax exemption for SUUTI extended to March 31, 2027, barring income and related taxes on its receipts.
    An amendment to sub section (1) of section 13 of the UTI Repeal Act, 2002 will provide that, notwithstanding the Income tax Act or any other enactment, no income tax or any other tax shall be payable by the Administrator in relation to the Specified Undertaking of Unit Trust of India for the period beginning on the appointed day and ending on the 31st day of March, 2027; the amendment takes effect from 1st April, 2025.
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    Provisional assessment time-limit set with limited extension; voluntary post-clearance revision permitted; Interim Board to exercise Settlement Commission powers.
    A definite time limit is imposed for provisional assessments under Section 18: finalisation within two years with a possible one year Commissioner extension and suspension grounds; Section 18A establishes voluntary post clearance revision treated as self assessment permitting duty payment or refund claims, with refund limitation of one year from payment and the relevant date for revised entry being the date of payment. Amendments also define an Interim Board and allocate Settlement Commission powers to it.
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    Tariff rationalisation compresses rate slabs and reclassifies goods to improve identification and align with international nomenclature.
    Amendments compress and lower multiple tariff slabs into streamlined rate bands and tariffise effective rates, and introduce new tariff lines and supplementary notes to improve goods identification and align classifications with WCO HS 2022; new lines include distinctions by process and variety for rice, makhana product categories, PCB/PCT/PBB concentration levels in waste oils, separate precious metal purity bands, and entries for dual-use chemicals and technical-grade pesticides, with changes effective from a designated future date.
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    Customs duty rate changes alter import tariffs across sectors, including immediate provisional increases and notified decreases.
    Amendments to the First Schedule revise import duty rates by specifying targeted tariff increases (immediately by provisional declaration for selected textile and electronics items), extensive tariff decreases across diverse commodities (with later effective dates subject to notification), and numerical rate adjustments for raw materials, ores, metals and industrial inputs, including reductions to nil for specified waste, scrap and ores; provisions are structured by tariff item and rely on finance measure clauses and a provisional collection mechanism for implementation.
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    Customs duty adjustments recalibrate import and export tariffs to incentivise specific sectors and inputs, changing duty rates broadly.
    Proposed notifications adjust Basic Customs Duty and Export Duty effective 2 February 2025, reducing or nil rating duties on specified aquafarming inputs, wet blue leather, metal waste and lithium ion battery scrap, and numerous electronics inputs and parts; add exempted capital goods for lithium ion battery manufacture for EVs and mobile phones; and amend duty rates for motor vehicles, motorcycles and toy components to recalibrate import protection and incentivise manufacturing and exports.
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    Agriculture Infrastructure and Development Cess revised to impose differentiated import cess rates on specified goods, altering tariff-stage duties.
    Notification No. 11/2021 - Customs is amended to revise the Agriculture Infrastructure and Development Cess (AIDC) rates on specified imported goods effective 02.02.2025, introducing differentiated cess where previously nil across categories including stone, footwear, motor vehicles (with special entries for concessional imports and used vehicles), solar cells and modules, PVC flex materials, electronics and parts, furniture, lighting, smart meters, yachts, bicycles, candles, platinum findings and certain laboratory chemicals.
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    Social Welfare Surcharge exemptions expanded: specified imported goods excluded from SWS levy under amended customs notification.
    Amendment to Notification No. 11/2018 exempts specified imported goods from levy of the Social Welfare Surcharge (SWS) with effect from 02.02.2025. Exempted categories include solar cells and modules, specified motor vehicles (including used vehicles and vehicles for transport of goods or ten or more persons and certain high-CIF value cars), various footwear classifications, furniture and bedding articles, lighting fittings, parts of electronic toys, candles, PVC flex films, smart electricity meters, yachts and pleasure vessels, articles of gold/silver under specified entries, dutiable personal-use imports, passenger baggage articles, and certain laboratory chemicals.
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    Customs duty exemptions review extends and modifies conditional exemptions, adds entries for drugs and satellite goods, and lapses one entry.
    Review of customs duty exemptions renews and recalibrates conditional BCD exemptions under Notification No. 50/2017 Customs: twenty four entries are extended with modifications and one entry lapses. Extensions and modifications preserve duty relief across sectors-ships and ship manufacture, bulk drugs and life saving medicines, testing imports, telecom optical fibre inputs, textile machinery, wind energy components and seeds for lab grown diamonds-while creating separate entries and refining lists for drugs, diagnostics and satellite and launch vehicle related imports.
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    Import compliance timeframe extended; end use period lengthened and reporting shifted to quarterly filings under IGCR amendment.
    Amendments to the IGCR Rules extend the period to fulfil the specified end use under Rules 6 and 7 and change the compliance reporting requirement so importers submit a quarterly statement instead of a monthly statement, thereby adjusting both the end use timeframe and the frequency of filings for imports at concessional duty for manufacture of excisable goods.

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      Reopening of assessment - Substance over Form - Failure to disclose material fact - Duty of the AO to make an enquiry to test the correctness of the disclosure made even if the statutory forms signed and certified by the Chartered Accountant

      10 July, 2019

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      2019 (7) TMI 415 - MADRAS HIGH COURT

      2018 (10) TMI 442 - MADRAS HIGH COURT

      Reopening of the assessment for the year 2010-2011. - Whether ingredients of Section 147 r.w.s 148 are satisfied?

      Facts of the case

      In the present case, deduction u/s 10B of Income Tax Act, 1961 was allowed to assessee (100% EOU) on the basis of Form No.56G. In the said Form in Column No.8 it is mentioned as 10th year of claim, but, in Column No.7, the date of commencement of manufacturing is mentioned as 28.03.2000. Thus the Assessing Officer stated that the year under consideration happens to be 11th year. The Assessing Officer also referred to the copy of the Form 56G for the assessment year 2001-2002. Accordingly the Assessing Officer informed the assessee that the assessee has exclusively extended its 10B holiday period to the 11th year and hence become ineligible for deduction under Section 10B.

      Submission of the assessee

      There was no opening stock as on 1.4.2000. The first invoice was raised only on 31.05.2000 to UNICEF, New Delhi. With regard to the date of commencement of manufacturing activity, the assessee stated that the firm came into existence on 20.03.2000, registered as an EOU on 29.03.2000 and has commenced manufacturing activity only after 01.04.2000.

      With regard to the discrepancy pointed out by the Assessing Officer in the notice dated 25.01.2017, the assessee stated that the substance over Form is required to be taken into consideration and mere reporting of the date in the Form 56G does not give a conclusive picture as to the date of starting of manufacturing activity which is only in the month of April or which only in the assessment year 2001-02 which has been clearly claimed as the first year of exemption. Therefore, the assessee requested to drop all the assessment proceedings and reopen the assessment.

      Single member bench [2018 (10) TMI 442 - MADRAS HIGH COURT], while entertaining the writ petition, has observed that:

      Every non disclosure of material facts will not or cannot be a justifiable reason for reopening sustainable under judicial scrutiny.

      On the other hand, such non disclosure of a material fact must be of such nature that, but for such non disclosure, the income, relatable to such material fact, would not have escaped assessment. In other words, it should lead to an irrebuttable conclusion that by the conduct of the assessee, either by providing wrong or incorrect particulars or by not providing the full and correct particulars, he should have made the Assessing Officer not to bring a particular income to tax, which is otherwise liable to be taxed. If this test is applied to the present case, I am of the view that the Revenue has to fail.

      Revenue took the matter before the division bench of the High Court [2019 (7) TMI 415 - MADRAS HIGH COURT] wherein it was observed that:-

      There can be no escape from this fact and the assessee should accept this mistake.................It may be true that the assessee can now take a stand that substance over form is to be considered but what is important is that the assessee at the first instance had a duty to give proper and correct details. We may say that the assessee failed in doing so. Be that as it may, what is required on the part of the Assessing Officer is not to go mechanically by the details disclosed by the assessee in the statutory form and or for that matter signed and certified by the Chartered Accountant.The Assessing Officer being cast with a statutory duty an enquiry is required to test the correctness of the disclosure made in such statutory forms. This is why the concept of substance over form was always preferred by Courts while dealing with such matters.

      The second mistake which the assessee committed, which had invited the problem, was not mentioning the correct date of commencement of commercial production in its reply dated 02.02.2007 and this again was submitted through the very same Chartered Accountant. In the reply, there is a vague statement with regard to the commencement of manufacturing activity and what has been stated is that the assessee commenced manufacturing activity only after 01.04.2000. Thus, we are of the view that the assessee appears to have not been very seriously contesting the matter at the relevant point of time. Wisdom dawned upon the assessee only after the appellant passed the order dated 13.02.2017. It is thereafter the assessee through their Chartered Accountant gave the exact date of production/manufacture as 25.05.2000.

      Keeping aside all these issues, we have examined the correctness of the order passed by the learned Single Bench and we note with approval the findings of the learned Single Bench in paragraphs 16 and 17 of the impugned order. The above finding rendered by the learned Single Bench is just and proper.

      As pointed out by the learned Single Bench every non-disclosure of material facts will not or cannot be a justifiable reason for reopening an assessment. We reiterate that what was required to be considered is that, substance over form.

      Therefore, we are of the considered view that the learned Single Bench was perfectly right in allowing the writ petition which had been done after thorough examination of the facts and the legal position. In our considered view the revenue has not made out any grounds to interfere with the order passed by the learned Single Bench.

       


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      2019 (7) TMI 415 - MADRAS HIGH COURT

      2018 (10) TMI 442 - MADRAS HIGH COURT

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      ActsIncome Tax