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    Deemed cost of acquisition set as fair market value where accreted income is taxed under Chapter XIIEB.
    Where capital gain arises from transfer of an asset held by a trust or institution for which accreted income has been computed and tax paid under Chapter XIIEB, the cost of acquisition of that asset shall be deemed to be the fair market value taken into account for computing accreted income as on the specified date referred to in sub section (2) of section 115TD.
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    Where capital gains arise from transfer of a specified capital asset received under the Andhra Pradesh Capital City Land Pooling Scheme and transferred after two years from the end of the financial year in which possession was handed over, the cost of acquisition shall be deemed to be the stamp duty value of the asset as on the last day of the second financial year after the end of the financial year when possession was handed over; the amendment also defines "stamp duty value."
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    The amendment provides that the cost of acquisition of a share in a project consisting of land or building, given as consideration under specified agreements (for example, joint development agreements), shall be the amount deemed as the full value of consideration under the related provision, subject to the proviso excluding certain capital assets, and applies prospectively from the effective date for subsequent assessment years.
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    Deemed cost of acquisition: equity received on conversion of preference shares treated as costing the original preference shares.
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    Cost of acquisition rule: consolidated-plan unit transfers deemed to carry forward cost from consolidating-plan units, affecting capital gains.
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    Where shares in an Indian company are transferred in a demerger, the transferee's cost of acquisition shall be the cost for which the previous owner acquired those shares, increased by any cost of improvements, by virtue of the Clause 25 amendment; the change takes effect from 1 April 2018 and applies to assessment year 2018-19 onward.
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    Conversion of preference shares into equity not treated as transfer, changing capital gains treatment from assessment year 2018-19.
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    Interest income recognition on bad debts: cooperative banks aligned with accrual-or-receipt tax treatment for recovered interest.
    Amendment extends the rule that interest on certain bad or doubtful debts is taxable in the year it is credited to profit and loss or actually received, whichever is earlier, to co-operative banks while excluding primary agricultural credit societies and primary co-operative agricultural and rural development banks; it also adds in-section definitions of those terms and specifies a prospective operative date applying to the indicated assessment year and subsequent years.
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    Actual cost adjustment for assets subject to investment-linked deduction reduces cost by allowable depreciation, altering basis for deemed income.
    The proviso to Explanation 13 provides that where a capital asset in respect of which deduction or part of deduction was allowed under section 35AD is deemed to be the assessee's income under sub section (7B), the asset's actual cost shall be the actual cost reduced by an amount equal to depreciation calculated at the rate in force that would have been allowable had the asset been used for business since acquisition.
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    Restriction on cash payments for capital expenditure conditions recognition of actual cost and depreciation claims on payment mode compliance.
    Amendment adds a proviso to section 43(1) that excludes from the actual cost for depreciation any expenditure on acquisition of an asset where payments to a person in a day exceed a specified cash threshold unless made by account-payee cheque, account-payee bank draft or electronic clearing system through a bank account, thereby conditioning depreciation eligibility on permitted modes of payment.
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    Restriction on deduction for specified domestic transactions removes arm's length deduction and subjects payments to disallowance rules.
    The Finance Bill 2017 amends section 40A to withdraw automatic deductibility for payments under specified domestic transactions made at Arm's Length Price; such payments are now subject to the disallowance rules of section 40A(2). The amendment also alters the proviso to clause (a) of sub section (2) consequential to the transfer pricing provision, aligning domestic specified transaction treatment with the transfer pricing framework and applying retrospectively as provided in the Bill.
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    Amendment lowers the cash payment threshold for deductibility from twenty thousand rupees to ten thousand rupees per person per day and requires payments above that limit to be made by account payee cheque, account payee bank draft, or electronic clearing through a bank account; amounts paid otherwise will be disallowed as deductions or deemed to be profits and gains of business or profession. Consequential changes to related sub provisions are also proposed, effective 1 April 2018 for the relevant assessment year.

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      Interpreting Section 80G Provisions: ITAT's Stance on Charitable Institution Registration

      8 August, 2024

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      Deciphering Legal Judgments: A Comprehensive Analysis of Case Law

      Reported as:

      2024 (3) TMI 1202 - ITAT KOLKATA

      Introduction

      This article provides a comprehensive analysis of a judgement delivered by the Income Tax Appellate Tribunal (ITAT) concerning the registration of a charitable institution u/s 80G of the Income Tax Act. The case revolves around the rejection of the assessee's application for final approval u/s 80G(5)(iii) by the Commissioner of Income Tax (Exemption) [CIT(E)]. The ITAT's decision sheds light on the interpretation of the relevant provisions and the procedures to be followed for obtaining registration u/s 80G.

      Arguments Presented

      The assessee, a charitable institution, was previously registered u/s 80G(5) of the Income Tax Act. However, due to an amendment introduced by the Taxation and Other Laws (Relaxation and Amendment of Certain Provisions) Act, 2020, effective from April 1, 2021, the assessee was required to reapply for approval under Clause (i) of the First Proviso to Section 80G(5) within three months.

      Instead of applying under Clause (i), the assessee mistakenly applied for provisional approval under Clause (iv) of the First Proviso to Section 80G(5), which is meant for institutions applying for the first time. The assessee was granted provisional approval under Clause (iv) on May 28, 2021.

      Subsequently, the assessee applied for final approval under Clause (iii) of the First Proviso to Section 80G(5). However, the CIT(E) rejected the application, observing that the assessee had already commenced its activities long before the grant of provisional registration, and the time period for making an application under Clause (iii) had expired.

      Discussions and Findings of the Court

      The ITAT observed that the issue was squarely covered by the decision of the Coordinate Kolkata Bench of the Tribunal in the case of TOMORROW’S FOUNDATION VERSUS CIT (EXEMPTION) , KOLKATA - 2024 (3) TMI 941 - ITAT KOLKATA. The Tribunal discussed the relevant provisions of Section 80G(5) and the procedures to be followed for obtaining registration.

      The Tribunal noted that institutions already approved u/s 80G(5)(vi) before the amendment were required to reapply for fresh registration under Clause (i) of the First Proviso to Section 80G(5) within three months from April 1, 2021. However, the assessee mistakenly applied under Clause (iv), meant for institutions applying for the first time.

      The Tribunal held that once an institution has been granted provisional approval under Clause (i) or Clause (iv) of the First Proviso to Section 80G(5), it is entitled to apply for final registration under Clause (iii) of the First Proviso. The application for final registration cannot be rejected on the ground that the institution had already commenced its activities before the grant of provisional registration.

      Analysis and Decision by the Court

      The ITAT analyzed the provisions of Section 80G(5) and the relevant CBDT circulars. It observed that the CIT(E) had misconstrued the proviso to Section 80G(5) and the applicability of the CBDT circulars regarding the extension of dates for final applications.

      The Tribunal held that after the grant of provisional approval, the application for final registration cannot be rejected on the ground that the institution had already commenced its activities before the grant of provisional registration. The date of commencement of activity will be counted when an activity is undertaken after the grant of provisional registration under Clause (i) or Clause (iv) of the First Proviso to Section 80G(5).

      Consequently, the ITAT set aside the impugned order of the CIT(E) and directed the CIT(E) to grant provisional approval to the assessee under Clause (iii) of the First Proviso to Section 80G(5), if the assessee is otherwise found eligible. The CIT(E) was instructed to decide the application for final approval within two months.

      Furthermore, the Tribunal directed that if the assessee is granted final approval, the benefit of approval u/s 80G, available to the assessee prior to the amendment, will be deemed to have continued without any break. The assessee will not be deprived of the benefit during the period between March 31, 2021, and the date of grant of provisional approval under Clause (iv), due to technical errors and confusion in interpreting the relevant provisions.

      Comprehensive Summary

      The ITAT's judgement clarified the interpretation and application of the provisions of Section 80G(5) of the Income Tax Act, particularly concerning the procedures for obtaining registration as a charitable institution. The Tribunal held that after being granted provisional approval under Clause (i) or Clause (iv) of the First Proviso to Section 80G(5), an institution is eligible to apply for final registration under Clause (iii), irrespective of whether it had commenced activities before the grant of provisional registration.

      The Tribunal set aside the CIT(E)'s order rejecting the assessee's application for final approval and directed the CIT(E) to grant provisional approval under Clause (iii) if the assessee is otherwise found eligible. The Tribunal also ensured that the assessee's benefit u/s 80G would continue without any break, considering the technical errors and confusion in interpreting the relevant provisions.

      The judgement highlighted the importance of correctly interpreting and applying statutory provisions while considering the legislative intent and the object and purpose of the relevant provisions.

       


      Full Text:

      2024 (3) TMI 1202 - ITAT KOLKATA

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      ActsIncome Tax