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A new provision allows resident co-operative societies to opt for a concessional tax regime from the assessment year beginning 1 April 2021 where the society elects the option by the prescribed due date; the option is irrevocable and applies to subsequent years. Eligibility requires computing total income without specified deductions or incentives and without set-off of earlier losses or depreciation attributable to those disallowed items; such losses and depreciation are deemed given full effect and barred from future deduction, with prescribed written down value adjustments for unabsorbed depreciation. The regime attracts a 10 per cent surcharge and excludes applicability of Alternate Minimum Tax and related credit carryforward.
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Judicial custody applied where investigative agency failed to demonstrate necessity for police or CBI custodial interrogation.
The magistrate refused the investigating agency's request for custodial interrogation, finding insufficient grounds for police/CBI custody and remanding the accused to judicial custody pending further production. The accused and co accused presented conflicting accounts-one alleging he had been investigating a larger fraud and that superiors failed to act-while defence counsel warned of administrative consequences arising from custody. The magistrate applied the requirement that custodial remand be justified by demonstrable investigative necessity rather than allegation alone.
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Part III of the First Schedule prescribes rates for deduction of income-tax at source from salaries and for computation of advance tax for the financial year 2019-20; those rates also apply to charging income-tax on current incomes in special assessment cases such as provisional assessment of non-resident shipping profits, assessments of persons leaving India, persons likely to transfer property to avoid tax, and short-duration bodies.
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Rates of income-tax for co-operative societies remain as specified in Paragraph B of Part III of the First Schedule to the Finance Bill, unchanged from the prior year. A surcharge applies to the income-tax of societies exceeding a high-income threshold, subject to a cap that prevents total tax and surcharge from exceeding the tax at the threshold by more than the excess income.
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Rate of tax for firms for TDS and advance tax remains unchanged from the prior year; a surcharge of twelve per cent is levied where a firm's total income exceeds one crore rupees, subject to a cap that limits the aggregate income tax and surcharge on income above the threshold to not exceed the tax on the threshold amount by more than the excess income.
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The income-tax rate for local authorities is maintained at the prior year's level for purposes of TDS and advance tax; a statutory surcharge is levied where total income exceeds a prescribed threshold. A statutory cap limits the combined income-tax and surcharge so that the aggregate tax on income above the threshold does not exceed the income-tax payable as if income equalled the threshold by more than the excess income.
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Corporate tax rate revised, varying by domestic status; surcharge and health and education cess apply.
Income tax rates for companies distinguish domestic and other companies, with domestic companies below a specified turnover threshold subject to a lower rate and others taxed at a higher rate. Surcharge is levied in graded bands for domestic and non domestic companies, with marginal relief caps limiting excess tax attributable to incomes above prescribed thresholds. Certain specified company cases attract a prescribed surcharge rate. A Health and Education Cess is levied on tax including surcharge, and marginal relief is not available in respect of that cess.
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TDS on individual and HUF payments to contractors and professionals: new withholding applies above threshold; PAN may be used instead of TAN.
Section 194M imposes withholding on payments by individuals and Hindu undivided families to resident contractors and professionals where the aggregate annual payments exceed the statutory threshold; tax is to be deducted at the prescribed withholding rate and may be deposited using the payer's Permanent Account Number, relieving such payers from the requirement to obtain a Tax Deduction Account Number.
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TDS on transfer of immovable property now covers ancillary charges, expanding 'consideration' to include fees incidental to sale.
The Explanation to Section 194-IA is amended to state that consideration for immovable property includes ancillary charges payable by the buyer-such as club membership, car parking, electricity and water facility fees, maintenance fees, advance fees and other similar incidental charges-thereby making these amounts part of the taxable base for TDS on transfer of immovable property other than agricultural land.
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Deemed accrual of gifts: transfers by Indian residents to nonresidents treated as taxable in India under new provision.
Gifts of money or property made by a person resident in India to a person outside India, where the property is situated in India or sums are paid, are deemed to accrue or arise in India for tax purposes when made on or after 5 July 2019; existing statutory gift exemptions continue to apply and applicable DTAA provisions remain operative. The amendment takes effect from 1 April 2020 and applies to assessment year 2020-21 onward.
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Mandatory return filing for high-value transactions expands to include transaction and rollover-based filing triggers.
Amendments mandate filing of income tax returns by individuals who, during the previous year, undertake specified high-value transactions-including large current account deposits, significant foreign travel expenditure, or substantial electricity consumption-or meet other prescribed conditions; and require persons claiming capital gains rollover exemptions on reinvestment in specified assets to file returns when their pre-rollover total income exceeded the basic exemption limit, even if post-claim income is below that limit.
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Inter-changeability of PAN and Aadhaar: Aadhaar may be quoted in lieu of PAN and recipients must ensure authentication.
Proposed amendments allow a person required to quote PAN to furnish an Aadhaar number in lieu of PAN and provide that persons entering certain prescribed transactions who lack a PAN must apply for one; recipients of documents must ensure PAN or Aadhaar is duly quoted and authenticated, and a penalty provision is amended to enforce compliance.
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PAN-Aadhaar linkage: failure to intimate Aadhaar renders PAN inoperative while preserving prior transactions under proposed amendment.
Failure to intimate Aadhaar will result in the PAN being made inoperative in the prescribed manner rather than being deemed invalid, with an express provision preserving the validity of transactions previously carried out through that PAN; the amendment is prospective and will take effect from the notified effective date.

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Alignment of the time limit for furnishing the form for accumulation of income and tax audit report

1 February, 2023

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Union Budget 2023-24 + FINANCE Bill, 2023

8. Alignment of the time limit for furnishing the form for accumulation of income and tax audit report

8.1 The trusts and institutions under the first regime are required to get their accounts audited as per the provisions of clause (b) of the tenth proviso to clause (23C) of section 10 of the Act. The trusts and institutions under second regime are required to get their accounts audited as per the provisions of sub-clause (ii) of clause (b) of sub-section (1) of section 12A of the Act. The audit report under both the regimes is required to be furnished at least one month before the due date for furnishing the return of income.

8.2 Explanation 3 to the third proviso of clause (23C) of the section 10 of the Act provides that where the trust or institution under the first regime accumulates or sets apart its income, such trust or institution is required to furnish a statement in the prescribed form (Form 10) on or before the due date specified under sub-section (1) of section 139 of the Act for furnishing the return of income for the previous year.

8.3 Clause (c) of sub-section (2) of section 11 of the Act provides that where the trust or institution under the second regime accumulates or sets apart its income, such trust or institution is required to furnish a statement in the prescribed form (Form 10) on or before the due date specified under sub-section (1) of section 139 of the Act for furnishing the return of income for the previous year.

8.4 Clause (2) of Explanation 1 to sub-section (1) of section 11 of the Act provides that where the trust or institution under the second regime deems certain income to be applied, such trust or institution is required to furnish a statement in the prescribed form (Form 9A) on or before the due date specified under sub-section (1) of section 139 of the Act for furnishing the return of income for the previous year.

8.5 The due date for furnishing form 9A and form 10 is same as the due date of furnishing the return of income. The trusts are also required to furnish audit report in form 10B/10BB one month before the due date for furnishing return of income. The auditors are required to report the details of form 10/9A in the audit report. Since the due date for furnishing form 9A/10 is one month before the due date of furnishing the ITR, auditors find it difficult to report.

8.6 In order to rationalise the provisions, it is proposed to provide for filing of Form No. 10A/9A at least two months prior to the due date specified under sub-section (1) of section 139 for furnishing the return of income for the previous year. Necessary amendments in this regard are proposed in,

a) clause (c) of Explanation 3 to third proviso of clause (23C) of section 10 of the Act;

b) clause (2) of Explanation 1 sub-section (1) of section 11 of the Act;

c) clause (c) of sub-section (2) of the said section 11 of the Act.

8.7 These amendments will take effect from 1st April, 2023 and will accordingly apply to the assessment year 2023-24 and subsequent assessment years.

[clauses 5 & 7]

 


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Union Budget 2023-24 + FINANCE Bill, 2023

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Acts Income Tax