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    Notification of Employer's Contribution Rate to the Insurance Fund under the Employees’ Deposit Linked Insurance Scheme, 2026
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    Employer contribution rate under the deposit linked insurance scheme fixed as one-half per cent of wages payable monthly.
    Employer's contribution rate under the Employees' Deposit Linked Insurance Scheme, 2026 is specified as one-half per cent of the wages payable in relation to each employee. The contribution is payable every month by the employer to the Insurance Fund established under the Code on Social Security, 2020.
    Notification of Employer's Contribution Rate to the Pension Fund under the Employees' Pension Scheme, 2026
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    Employer contribution rate to the Pension Fund is notified for the Employees' Pension Scheme, 2026.
    Employer's contribution to the Pension Fund under the Employees' Pension Scheme, 2026 is notified at eight and one-third per cent of wages payable to employees. The contribution must be paid every month by the employer to the Pension Fund established under the Code on Social Security, 2020, with effect from the commencement of the scheme. The notification is issued in exercise of statutory power under the Code and without prejudice to the earlier notification referenced in the text.
    Reserve Bank of India has permitted additional entities to perform authentication under the Aadhaar Act for the purposes of section 11A of the Money laundering Act, 2002
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    Aadhaar authentication permission expands for a reporting entity under money-laundering compliance standards and privacy safeguards.
    The Central Government permits a specified reporting entity to perform authentication under the Aadhaar Act for the purposes of section 11A of the Prevention of Money-laundering Act, 2002. The permission is given after consultation with the Unique Identification Authority of India and the Reserve Bank of India, and on the basis that the entity will comply with the standards of privacy and security under the Aadhaar Act.
    Notification specifying the standard of medical examination for persons selected for undergoing training in rescue and recovery work under Clause iii of Rule 140 of OSH & WC (Central) Rules, 2026
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    Rescue worker medical fitness standards require comprehensive clinical testing, prescribed physical criteria, and structured certification before training
    Medical examination standards apply to persons selected for rescue and recovery training and to rescue-trained persons. Assessment covers physical and mental fitness, locomotor function, unaided vision, hearing and audiometry, respiratory and cardiovascular health, neurological status, metabolic and blood parameters, renal function, BMI, dental health, and specified pathological conditions. Required procedures include chest radiography, spirometry, cardiovascular assessment with 12-lead electrocardiography and lipid profile, neurological examination, and the Height Pass and Vertigo Test. The certificate and report record clinical findings, investigations, supporting reports, fitness status, and any required treatment or re-examination.
    Standards for Courses of Instructions and Practices for Rescue Trained Persons under Rule 141(2) of the Occupational Safety, Health and Working Conditions (Central) Rules, 2026
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    Rescue trained person standards set mandatory instruction topics, annual practice requirements, and refresher training conditions.
    Standards are specified for the courses of instructions and practices for every rescue trained person under rule 141(2) of the Occupational Safety, Health and Working Conditions (Central) Rules, 2026. The instructions cover mine fire response, breathing apparatus, gas detection, rescue and recovery work, rope rescue, lifting equipment, fire extinguishers and cardio pulmonary resuscitation. The practice requirement prescribes at least eight annual practices, with specified distribution between mines and a training gallery, and permits a special five-day refresher course where the gap exceeds four months for valid reasons.
    Notification specify the courses of instructions and practices for initial training in rescue and recovery work under rule 141(1) of the Occupational Safety, Health and Working Conditions (Central) Rules, 2026
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    Initial rescue and recovery training covers underground fire response, breathing apparatus practice, rope rescue, CPR, and rescue tools.
    Courses of instruction and practice are specified for initial training in rescue and recovery work. The instruction covers underground fire recovery, breathing and tube apparatus, revival methods, gas detection, gas sampling, mine plans, rope rescue, lifting bags, hydraulic cutters, spreaders, jacks, ring saws, fire extinguishers and cardio pulmonary resuscitation. The practical component requires not less than ten breathing apparatus practices, minimum training on CPR and rescue tools, and a separate period for rope rescue equipment training by recommended trainers.
    Notification Specifying the Signals to be used by Members of a rescue team for Communication under Rule 152(3) of the Occupational Safety, Health and Working Conditions(Central) Rules, 2026
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    Rescue team communication signals are standardised for breathing apparatus use in belowground mines, including distress, halt, retire, and advance.
    Signals for communication by rescue team members are specified for rescue trained persons using breathing apparatus in belowground mines. The prescribed code standardises rescue communication and provides that one hoot signifies Distress or Help Wanted, with unanswered calls to be understood as distress; two hoots indicate Halt; three hoots indicate Retire; and four hoots indicate Advance.
    Notify the Form of Reporting Accidents Arising Out of the Use of Rescue Apparatus under Rule 131(6) and (7) of the Occupational Safety, Health and Working Conditions (Central) Rules, 2026
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    Rescue apparatus accident reporting form prescribed for below ground mines, rescue stations and rescue rooms under safety rules.
    Specifies the prescribed form for reporting accidents arising out of the use of rescue apparatus in a below ground mine, rescue station or rescue room under Rule 131(6) and (7) of the Occupational Safety, Health and Working Conditions (Central) Rules, 2026. The report is to be submitted by the Manager or Rescue Superintendent to the Chief Inspector-cum-Facilitator and Inspector-cum-Facilitator and must include particulars of the location, owner, accident time and place, casualties, apparatus details, cause of accident, and details of persons killed or injured.
    Notification Specifying the procedure for testing of breathing apparatus, flow meter and purity of oxygen for use in breathing apparatus under Rule 131(5) of the Occupational Safety, Health and Working Conditions (Central) Rules, 2026
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    Breathing apparatus testing standards require periodic inspection, oxygen purity checks, and mandatory recordkeeping for rescue equipment.
    Specifies the procedure for testing breathing and resuscitating apparatus, flow meters and the purity of oxygen used in breathing apparatus. The standard applies to apparatus in rescue stations and rescue rooms and requires periodic testing of condition, leakage, cylinder pressure, relief valve discharge pressure, oxygen delivery rate and automatic demand valve operation, with records kept in bound or non-editable electronic form. Oxygen purity must be tested, and oxygen containing more than one per cent impurities must not be used. Apparatus testers must also be checked for accuracy at manufacturer-recommended intervals.
    Notification Specifying the Apparatus and Equipment for Belowground Mines without a Rescue Room at the Mine Entrance under Rule 131(2) of Occupational Safety, Health and Working Conditions(Central) Rules, 2026
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    Mine safety equipment standards set for belowground mines without rescue rooms, with minimum rescue and gas-detection provisions required.
    Specification of the apparatus and equipment to be provided and maintained at the surface entrance of a belowground mine where no rescue room is located under Rule 131(2) of the Occupational Safety, Health and Working Conditions (Central) Rules, 2026. The notification applies to all such mines and prescribes minimum safety and rescue equipment, including breathing apparatus, self-rescuers, gas detectors, hygrometers, safety belts, resuscitating apparatus, first-aid boxes, blankets, scoop stretchers and a spine board. The Chief Inspector-cum-Facilitator of Mines may also require additional or higher-capacity equipment by written order.
    Notification Specifying the minimum number of Apparatus and Equipment to be Provided and Maintained at Rescue Stations and Rescue Rooms for Immediate Use under the OSH & WC (Central) Rules, 2026
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    Rescue station equipment standards now prescribe minimum apparatus, rescue tools, and safety gear for underground mine operations.
    Minimum apparatus and equipment standards are specified for rescue stations and rescue rooms for immediate use under the Occupational Safety, Health and Working Conditions (Central) Rules, 2026. The standards apply to all rescue stations or rescue rooms established and maintained for serving any below ground mine or a group of below ground mines, and set out the minimum quantities of breathing apparatus, resuscitating apparatus, ancillary equipment, lamps, gas detectors, air and temperature measuring instruments, communication devices, safety and first-aid equipment, fire-fighting equipment, and miscellaneous rescue tools to be kept available at each facility.
    Amendment in Sixth Schedule of the Delhi Value Added Tax Act, 2004
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    VAT exemption for the High Commission of Jamaica is extended in Delhi, subject to invoice-based refund conditions.
    VAT exemption/refund facility is extended, on the basis of reciprocity, to the High Commission of Jamaica in New Delhi by amending the Sixth Schedule of the Delhi Value Added Tax Act, 2004 to insert the embassy in the list of embassies eligible for concessional treatment. The refund of Value Added Tax is subject to the condition that each invoice must have a minimum value of Rs. 5000, and the notification takes effect from 21 November 2025.
    Sea Cargo Manifest and Transshipment (Second Amendment) Regulations, 2026
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    Sea cargo manifest and transshipment rules updated by substituting the FORM-XII date entry in the regulatory table.
    The Sea Cargo Manifest and Transshipment Regulations, 2018 are amended by substituting the date entry against serial number 6 in the table after FORM-XII. The amendment updates the specified date to 31.08.2026, and the regulations come into force on publication in the Official Gazette.
    GST Appellate Tribunal Appeals: Deadline Extended up to 31st July 2026 and within the prescribed three-month or six-month periods from communication or passing of the order, as the case may be, for order thereafter.
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    GST Appellate Tribunal filing deadlines extended, with transitional cut-offs based on communication and passing of orders.
    The filing period for appeals and applications before the GST Appellate Tribunal is extended up to 31 July 2026. Appeals in cases where the order is communicated before 1 May 2026 may be filed by that extended date, while appeals for later communications remain subject to the prescribed three-month period from communication of the order. Applications in cases where the order is passed before 1 February 2026 may be filed by 31 July 2026, while later orders remain subject to the prescribed six-month period from the date of passing.
    Supersession Notification No. ERTS (T) 3/2025/467, dated 17th September, 2025
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    Appellate Tribunal filing timelines prescribe transitional deadlines and regular limitation periods for GST appeals and applications.
    Appellate Tribunal filing timelines under the Meghalaya Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017 fix 31 July 2026 as the final date for appeals against orders communicated before 1 May 2026 and applications concerning orders passed before 1 February 2026. Appeals for later-communicated orders must be filed within three months of communication. Applications relating to later-passed orders must be filed within six months from the date of the order.
    Fixation of Tariff Value of Edible Oils, Brass Scrap, Areca Nut, Gold and Silver
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    Customs tariff values revised for edible oils, brass scrap, gold, silver and areca nuts under the amended valuation notification.
    Tariff values are revised for specified imported goods by substituting the customs tariff value tables for edible oils, brass scrap, gold, silver, and areca nuts. Separate valuation entries apply to certain forms of gold and silver linked to specified customs exemption entries, with exclusions and definitions governing the scope of the silver and gold findings entries. The amended tariff values are stated in US dollars per metric tonne, per 10 grams, or per kilogram, and take effect from 1 July 2026.
    Seeks to amend Notification No. 08/2026-Central Excise, dated the 26th March, 2026 - effective rate of Special Additional Excise Duty on Aviation Turbine Fuel when cleared for exports
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    Special Additional Excise Duty on Aviation Turbine Fuel exports gets a revised rate effective from July 2026.
    Special Additional Excise Duty on Aviation Turbine Fuel cleared for exports is amended by substituting the table entry at serial number 1, column (4), with the revised rate of Rs. 7.5 per litre. The amendment operates as a further modification to the principal central excise notification governing the export clearance rate and takes effect from 1 July 2026.
    Seeks to amend Notification No. 06/2026-Central Excise, dated the 26th March, 2026 - Special Additional Excise Duty on export of petrol and diesel.
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    Special Additional Excise Duty on petrol and diesel exports revised through amended rate entries effective from 1 July 2026.
    Special Additional Excise Duty on export of petrol and diesel is revised by amending the existing exemption notification. The table entries are substituted so that the applicable rates become Rs. 4 per litre for one specified entry and Rs. 8.5 per litre for the other specified entry. The amendment operates in public interest and comes into force with effect from 1 July 2026.
    Seeks to amend Notification No. 04/2019-Central Excise, dated the 6th July, 2019 - Effective rate of Road and Infrastructure Cess as additional duty of excise on Petrol and Diesel - Negative List extended.
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    Road and Infrastructure Cess negative list expanded to include Maldives and Mauritius under the excise notification.
    Amends the effective rate framework for Road and Infrastructure Cess as additional duty of excise on petrol and diesel by expanding the applicable negative list. The existing reference to Nepal, Bhutan, Bangladesh and Sri Lanka is substituted to include Maldives and Mauritius, thereby extending the specified country list for the notification's operative coverage. The amendment takes effect immediately on issuance.
    Seeks to amend Notification No. 11/2026-Central Excise, dated the 26th March, 2026 - Rates of Road and Infrastructure Cess for petrol and diesel, when cleared for exports - Negative list extended.
    Show AI Summary
    Road and Infrastructure Cess export exclusions extended to include Maldives and Mauritius for petrol and diesel clearances.
    Road and Infrastructure Cess treatment for petrol and diesel cleared for exports is amended by extending the negative list of destinations. The substituted clause broadens the specified countries from Nepal, Bhutan, Bangladesh and Sri Lanka to also include Maldives and Mauritius, thereby adjusting the export-related exclusion within the existing cess notification framework.

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      Waiver the amount of late fee payable furnish the return in FORM GSTR-3B - G. O. Ms. No. 54/CT/2017-18 - Puducherry SGST

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      Late fee waiver for delayed GSTR-3B filing allows relief beyond nominal per-day charges, lower threshold when tax is nil.
      The notification waives the amount of late fee payable by any registered person for failure to furnish FORM GSTR-3B for the month of October 2017 onwards ... Summary

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