Municipal debt securities disclosure rules expand pooled financing, electronic advertising, investor incentives, ESG issuance conditions and special purpose vehicle compliance.
Special purpose vehicles established for pooled municipal financing must obtain constituent-municipality agreements before raising funds, disclose those agreements, and be formed as trusts or companies. Schedule IB requires extensive offer-document and placement-memorandum disclosures for listed municipal debt securities, covering issuer governance, project objects, refinancing, financial information, borrowings, litigation, creditor dues, approvals, undertakings and risk factors. Electronic public-issue advertising remains subject to a national-daily notice with a QR code and link. Specified investor categories may receive additional-interest or issue-price incentives only as initial allottees.

Securitisation governance and investor-risk rules tightened with limits on board representation, trustee conflicts, and single-asset concentration risk.
Amendments to the Securities and Exchange Board of India (Issue and Listing of Securitised Debt Instruments and Security Receipts) Regulations, 2008 introduce changes to governance, eligibility, disclosure, and risk classification in securitisation structures. They limit board representation by an RBI-regulated originator, prohibit acquisitions from originators linked to the trustee, replace references to originator with servicer in specified provisions, expand investor-interest based action under regulation 20, update trustee replacement language under regulation 45, and add concentration risk from single asset securitisation in Schedule V.

Provident fund contribution rate set at twelve percent for employers and employees, with specified industrial and insolvency exclusions.
Sets the contribution rate under the Employees' Provident Funds Scheme, 2026 at twelve percent for both employer and employee in covered establishments, subject to specified exclusions. The exclusions include establishments with an approved resolution plan or repayment plan under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016, and specified establishments in the jute, beedi, brick, coir other than the spinning sector, and guar gum sectors. The notification is deemed effective from 21 November 2025.

Employer contribution rate under the deposit linked insurance scheme fixed as one-half per cent of wages payable monthly.
Employer's contribution rate under the Employees' Deposit Linked Insurance Scheme, 2026 is specified as one-half per cent of the wages payable in relation to each employee. The contribution is payable every month by the employer to the Insurance Fund established under the Code on Social Security, 2020.

Employer contribution rate to the Pension Fund is notified for the Employees' Pension Scheme, 2026.
Employer's contribution to the Pension Fund under the Employees' Pension Scheme, 2026 is notified at eight and one-third per cent of wages payable to employees. The contribution must be paid every month by the employer to the Pension Fund established under the Code on Social Security, 2020, with effect from the commencement of the scheme. The notification is issued in exercise of statutory power under the Code and without prejudice to the earlier notification referenced in the text.

Aadhaar authentication permission expands for a reporting entity under money-laundering compliance standards and privacy safeguards.
The Central Government permits a specified reporting entity to perform authentication under the Aadhaar Act for the purposes of section 11A of the Prevention of Money-laundering Act, 2002. The permission is given after consultation with the Unique Identification Authority of India and the Reserve Bank of India, and on the basis that the entity will comply with the standards of privacy and security under the Aadhaar Act.

Rescue worker medical fitness standards require comprehensive clinical testing, prescribed physical criteria, and structured certification before training
Medical examination standards apply to persons selected for rescue and recovery training and to rescue-trained persons. Assessment covers physical and mental fitness, locomotor function, unaided vision, hearing and audiometry, respiratory and cardiovascular health, neurological status, metabolic and blood parameters, renal function, BMI, dental health, and specified pathological conditions. Required procedures include chest radiography, spirometry, cardiovascular assessment with 12-lead electrocardiography and lipid profile, neurological examination, and the Height Pass and Vertigo Test. The certificate and report record clinical findings, investigations, supporting reports, fitness status, and any required treatment or re-examination.

Rescue trained person standards set mandatory instruction topics, annual practice requirements, and refresher training conditions.
Standards are specified for the courses of instructions and practices for every rescue trained person under rule 141(2) of the Occupational Safety, Health and Working Conditions (Central) Rules, 2026. The instructions cover mine fire response, breathing apparatus, gas detection, rescue and recovery work, rope rescue, lifting equipment, fire extinguishers and cardio pulmonary resuscitation. The practice requirement prescribes at least eight annual practices, with specified distribution between mines and a training gallery, and permits a special five-day refresher course where the gap exceeds four months for valid reasons.

Initial rescue and recovery training covers underground fire response, breathing apparatus practice, rope rescue, CPR, and rescue tools.
Courses of instruction and practice are specified for initial training in rescue and recovery work. The instruction covers underground fire recovery, breathing and tube apparatus, revival methods, gas detection, gas sampling, mine plans, rope rescue, lifting bags, hydraulic cutters, spreaders, jacks, ring saws, fire extinguishers and cardio pulmonary resuscitation. The practical component requires not less than ten breathing apparatus practices, minimum training on CPR and rescue tools, and a separate period for rope rescue equipment training by recommended trainers.

Rescue team communication signals are standardised for breathing apparatus use in belowground mines, including distress, halt, retire, and advance.
Signals for communication by rescue team members are specified for rescue trained persons using breathing apparatus in belowground mines. The prescribed code standardises rescue communication and provides that one hoot signifies Distress or Help Wanted, with unanswered calls to be understood as distress; two hoots indicate Halt; three hoots indicate Retire; and four hoots indicate Advance.

Rescue apparatus accident reporting form prescribed for below ground mines, rescue stations and rescue rooms under safety rules.
Specifies the prescribed form for reporting accidents arising out of the use of rescue apparatus in a below ground mine, rescue station or rescue room under Rule 131(6) and (7) of the Occupational Safety, Health and Working Conditions (Central) Rules, 2026. The report is to be submitted by the Manager or Rescue Superintendent to the Chief Inspector-cum-Facilitator and Inspector-cum-Facilitator and must include particulars of the location, owner, accident time and place, casualties, apparatus details, cause of accident, and details of persons killed or injured.

Breathing apparatus testing standards require periodic inspection, oxygen purity checks, and mandatory recordkeeping for rescue equipment.
Specifies the procedure for testing breathing and resuscitating apparatus, flow meters and the purity of oxygen used in breathing apparatus. The standard applies to apparatus in rescue stations and rescue rooms and requires periodic testing of condition, leakage, cylinder pressure, relief valve discharge pressure, oxygen delivery rate and automatic demand valve operation, with records kept in bound or non-editable electronic form. Oxygen purity must be tested, and oxygen containing more than one per cent impurities must not be used. Apparatus testers must also be checked for accuracy at manufacturer-recommended intervals.

Mine safety equipment standards set for belowground mines without rescue rooms, with minimum rescue and gas-detection provisions required.
Specification of the apparatus and equipment to be provided and maintained at the surface entrance of a belowground mine where no rescue room is located under Rule 131(2) of the Occupational Safety, Health and Working Conditions (Central) Rules, 2026. The notification applies to all such mines and prescribes minimum safety and rescue equipment, including breathing apparatus, self-rescuers, gas detectors, hygrometers, safety belts, resuscitating apparatus, first-aid boxes, blankets, scoop stretchers and a spine board. The Chief Inspector-cum-Facilitator of Mines may also require additional or higher-capacity equipment by written order.

Rescue station equipment standards now prescribe minimum apparatus, rescue tools, and safety gear for underground mine operations.
Minimum apparatus and equipment standards are specified for rescue stations and rescue rooms for immediate use under the Occupational Safety, Health and Working Conditions (Central) Rules, 2026. The standards apply to all rescue stations or rescue rooms established and maintained for serving any below ground mine or a group of below ground mines, and set out the minimum quantities of breathing apparatus, resuscitating apparatus, ancillary equipment, lamps, gas detectors, air and temperature measuring instruments, communication devices, safety and first-aid equipment, fire-fighting equipment, and miscellaneous rescue tools to be kept available at each facility.

VAT exemption for the High Commission of Jamaica is extended in Delhi, subject to invoice-based refund conditions.
VAT exemption/refund facility is extended, on the basis of reciprocity, to the High Commission of Jamaica in New Delhi by amending the Sixth Schedule of the Delhi Value Added Tax Act, 2004 to insert the embassy in the list of embassies eligible for concessional treatment. The refund of Value Added Tax is subject to the condition that each invoice must have a minimum value of Rs. 5000, and the notification takes effect from 21 November 2025.

Sea cargo manifest and transshipment rules updated by substituting the FORM-XII date entry in the regulatory table.
The Sea Cargo Manifest and Transshipment Regulations, 2018 are amended by substituting the date entry against serial number 6 in the table after FORM-XII. The amendment updates the specified date to 31.08.2026, and the regulations come into force on publication in the Official Gazette.

GST Appellate Tribunal filing deadlines extended, with transitional cut-offs based on communication and passing of orders.
The filing period for appeals and applications before the GST Appellate Tribunal is extended up to 31 July 2026. Appeals in cases where the order is communicated before 1 May 2026 may be filed by that extended date, while appeals for later communications remain subject to the prescribed three-month period from communication of the order. Applications in cases where the order is passed before 1 February 2026 may be filed by 31 July 2026, while later orders remain subject to the prescribed six-month period from the date of passing.

Appellate Tribunal filing timelines prescribe transitional deadlines and regular limitation periods for GST appeals and applications.
Appellate Tribunal filing timelines under the Meghalaya Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017 fix 31 July 2026 as the final date for appeals against orders communicated before 1 May 2026 and applications concerning orders passed before 1 February 2026. Appeals for later-communicated orders must be filed within three months of communication. Applications relating to later-passed orders must be filed within six months from the date of the order.

Customs tariff values revised for edible oils, brass scrap, gold, silver and areca nuts under the amended valuation notification.
Tariff values are revised for specified imported goods by substituting the customs tariff value tables for edible oils, brass scrap, gold, silver, and areca nuts. Separate valuation entries apply to certain forms of gold and silver linked to specified customs exemption entries, with exclusions and definitions governing the scope of the silver and gold findings entries. The amended tariff values are stated in US dollars per metric tonne, per 10 grams, or per kilogram, and take effect from 1 July 2026.

Special Additional Excise Duty on Aviation Turbine Fuel exports gets a revised rate effective from July 2026.
Special Additional Excise Duty on Aviation Turbine Fuel cleared for exports is amended by substituting the table entry at serial number 1, column (4), with the revised rate of Rs. 7.5 per litre. The amendment operates as a further modification to the principal central excise notification governing the export clearance rate and takes effect from 1 July 2026.