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April 2, 2026
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Bail cancellation for non-compliance leads to surrender, passport restraint, forfeiture of deposit, and insolvency-linked conditions.
Cancellation of bail granted in connection with the alleged Grand Venice Mall scam after non-compliance with bail conditions. The Supreme Court directed surrender within one week, barred release of the passport without leave of the Court, and ordered forfeiture and disbursal of the deposited bail amount. Fresh regular bail may be sought only after twelve months and subject to compliance with the insolvency proceedings invoked against the petitioner's companies under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016.
April 2, 2026
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TCS certificate issuance rules govern Form No. 133, including TRACES generation, correction, duplicate issue, and credit claims.
Form No. 133 is the prescribed TCS certificate under section 395(4)(a) of the Income-tax Act, 2025, issued by the person responsible for collection of tax at source to the collectee as proof of tax collected and deposited with the Central Government. It enables the collectee to claim TCS credit on filing the return of income. The certificate is generated only after filing and processing of the quarterly TCS statement in Form No. 143 through the TRACES portal, must be issued within the prescribed time, and may be corrected, preserved, or reissued as a duplicate in accordance with the stated requirements.
April 2, 2026
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TDS certificate compliance requires Form 132 for specified payments, TRACES generation, and timely issuance after processing.
Form No. 132 is the consolidated TDS certificate for specified payments such as rent, immovable property transfers, technical services, contractual payments and transfer of Virtual Digital Assets. It must be issued by the deductor after tax is deducted and deposited, serves as proof of tax deposited with the Central Government, and enables the deductee to claim TDS credit. The certificate is generated from TRACES only after the challan-cum-statement in Form No. 141 is filed and processed, and it must be issued within 15 days from the due date for that filing.
April 2, 2026
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TDS certificate issuance rules govern Form No. 131, requiring TRACES-based generation, timely delivery, and revised statements for corrections.
Form No. 131 is the prescribed TDS certificate for payments other than salary, issued by the deductor to the deductee as proof of tax deducted and deposited, and to enable TDS credit in the return of income. It is generated only after filing and processing of the quarterly TDS statement on the TRACES portal, must be downloaded and signed before issue, and is invalid if prepared by any other mode. The certificate must be issued within the prescribed time, corrected through revised TDS statements where necessary, and retained for records.
April 2, 2026
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TDS and TCS certificate rules shift to revised TRACES-based forms with defined issuance timelines and certificate structures.
TDS and TCS certificates under section 395(4) of the Income-tax Act, 2025 are to be issued in revised Form Nos. 130, 131, 132 and 133, replacing the earlier certificate forms under the Income-tax Act, 1961. The deductor, collector or employer must request generation and download through the TRACES portal, and the certificate is valid only when generated from that portal and signed digitally or physically by the deductor or collector. The revised forms prescribe separate issuance timelines, certificate structures and linkage to the relevant statements or challan-cum-statements.
April 2, 2026
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TDS certificate Form No. 130 formalises tax credit for salary, pension, and specified senior-citizen interest income.
Form No. 130 is the annual TDS certificate issued to salaried employees, pensioners, and specified senior citizens in relation to salary, pension, or eligible interest income on which tax has been deducted and deposited. It replaces Form 16 and serves as proof of deduction and deposit of tax, enabling the deductee to claim credit for TDS. The certificate is issued by the employer or specified bank through the TRACES system, after processing of quarterly TDS statements, and issuance is mandatory once tax has been deducted and deposited.
April 2, 2026
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Tax deduction before remittance governs Form 129 applications to determine taxable income and treaty-based withholding for non-resident payments.
Form No. 129 is the electronic application used by a payer remitting sums, other than salary, to a non-resident individual or a foreign company to obtain a certificate determining the amount chargeable to tax before remittance and to authorise deduction of tax on that amount. The form applies before remittance, may be withdrawn before an order is passed, and requires payer and payee particulars, transaction details, supporting documents, and treaty-based or domestic taxability details for assessment by the Assessing Officer.
April 2, 2026
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GST revenue collections and refund adjustments for March 2026 show provisional gross, net and cess figures across domestic and import streams.
Gross and net GST revenue collections for March 2026 are reported on a provisional basis, with separate disclosure of domestic and import collections, refunds, net revenue and compensation cess. The statement presents gross GST revenue by CGST, SGST and IGST, shows domestic refunds and export-linked GST refunds through ICEGATE, and derives net domestic revenue, net customs revenue and total net GST revenue after refund adjustments. It also notes that compensation cess is a transitory arrangement until the loan and interest liability is discharged, and that the figures may vary on finalisation.
April 2, 2026
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Tax deduction at lower or nil rate through Form No. 129 for non-resident payments and remittances.
Form No. 129 is an online application by a payer to obtain a certificate for deduction of tax at a lower or nil rate on payments to a non-resident or foreign company. It is filed before remittance, requires supporting documents and verification through prescribed electronic methods, and may be withdrawn before the Assessing Officer passes an order. If eligibility and compliance requirements are satisfied, the Assessing Officer issues a certificate valid for the specified tax year; otherwise, tax is deducted at the applicable rate.
April 2, 2026
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Income-tax simplification and modernisation as the new Act replaces the old regime with streamlined compliance measures.
The Income-tax Act, 2025 comes into force from 1 April 2026 and replaces the long-standing Income-tax Act, 1961. The reform is presented as a comprehensive simplification and modernisation of India's direct tax framework, aimed at improving clarity, ease of compliance, and reader-friendly presentation without altering the underlying tax policy. The Income-tax Rules, 2026 have been notified to operationalise the new Act, and the corresponding forms have also been issued to make compliance simpler.
April 2, 2026
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Export obligation discharge certificates see accelerated disposal under a special drive to clear backlog and ease exporter compliance.
The Directorate General of Foreign Trade conducted a time-bound special drive for expeditious issuance of Export Obligation Discharge Certificates under the Advance Authorisation and Export Promotion Capital Goods schemes, with daily monitoring by senior officials to accelerate closure of export obligations and improve trade facilitation. The drive was designed to support an exporter-friendly ecosystem by enabling release of bank guarantees and bonds, reducing grievance burden, and strengthening compliance monitoring under the foreign trade framework. In view of the campaign's results, the special drive was extended for a further two months with fresh guidelines. The extension continues the administrative effort to expedite EODC disposal, support timely closure of export obligations, and reduce the operational burden on exporters.
April 2, 2026
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Conditional customs duty concessions for SEZ to DTA clearances impose value addition, cap limits, and anti-double-benefit safeguards.
Conditional customs duty concessions are notified for clearance of goods manufactured in Special Economic Zones to the Domestic Tariff Area, subject to a ceiling of 30 per cent of the highest annual Free on Board export value in the preceding three financial years. Eligible units must satisfy minimum 20 per cent value addition, obtain a Development Commissioner's certificate, and comply with audit requirements, while export benefits such as duty drawback on inputs are barred to prevent double benefits.
April 2, 2026
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Lower or nil tax deduction certificate process under income tax law through electronic Form 128 filing and approval.
Form No. 128 is the electronic application under the Income-tax Act, 2025 for a certificate authorising lower or nil deduction of tax at source and lower collection of tax under section 395(1) and section 395(3). It may be filed by resident or non-resident applicants seeking reduced TDS or TCS on specified income, and requires applicant details, tax liability particulars, income estimates, supporting financial information, and payer/TAN details where applicable. The form is processed electronically, and any approved certificate can be shared with the payer for application of the authorised rate during its validity.
April 2, 2026
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Lower or nil tax deduction certificate through TRACES requires advance electronic filing, PAN, and supporting documents.
Form No. 128 is the electronic application for a certificate authorising lower or nil deduction of income-tax and lower collection of income-tax under section 395(1) and section 395(3) of the Income-tax Act, 2025. The form is optional, must be filed through the TRACES portal before the relevant transaction, and cannot be processed once the TDS/TCS transaction is completed. It requires PAN, supporting documents, and electronic submission with e-verification.
April 2, 2026
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Tax collection at source declaration for non-trading use of goods enables buyers to obtain goods without TCS.
Form No. 127 is the declaration required from a buyer to obtain goods without collection of tax at source where the goods are intended for manufacturing, processing, production, or generation of power and are not meant for trading. The buyer must furnish the declaration to the seller at or before the purchase or payment event, and the seller must verify the declaration, upload monthly details to the e-filing portal by the 7th of the following month, and forward the declaration to the tax authority.
April 2, 2026
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TCS exemption declaration for specified goods requires PAN, timely filing, and seller reporting obligations.
Form No. 127 is a buyer's declaration under section 394(2) of the Income-tax Act, 2025 for obtaining specified goods without collection of tax at source. A resident buyer may furnish the declaration to the seller where the goods are intended for manufacturing, processing, producing articles or things, or generating power, and not for trading. PAN is mandatory, the declaration must be furnished on or before the date of transaction, and once received the seller must report the particulars and include the transactions in the quarterly TCS statement.
April 2, 2026
Show AI Summary
Tax deduction relief for non-resident branch operations through a unified Form No. 126 compliance framework.
Form No. 126 is a unified self-declaration and treaty-benefit request for specified non-residents carrying on business or profession in India through a branch to obtain a certificate for receipt of certain sums without deduction of tax at source. Banking companies and insurers, and other eligible non-resident persons, must satisfy the conditions in Rule 209, including tax compliance, branch-based receipt on own account, and, for non-banking applicants, continuous business in India for five years and prescribed fixed assets. The application is filed electronically, processed by the Assessing Officer, and the certificate remains valid for the relevant tax year unless cancelled earlier.
April 2, 2026
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Rupee recovery follows RBI cap on banks' net open position amid capital outflows and crude-driven pressure.
Rupee recovered in early trade after the Reserve Bank of India capped banks' net open position in the onshore forward delivery market and required compliance by April 10, 2026. The currency remained under pressure from foreign capital outflows, a stronger dollar, rising crude oil prices, geopolitical volatility, widening trade deficit, declining remittances and sustained foreign portfolio investor selling.
April 2, 2026
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Customs duty exemption on critical petrochemical imports aims to stabilise supply chains and ease cost pressures.
Full customs duty exemption has been granted on specified critical petrochemical imports as a temporary and targeted measure to protect supply stability amid disruptions in global supply chains caused by the West Asia crisis. The exemption is intended to ensure continued availability of essential petrochemical inputs for domestic industry, reduce cost pressures on downstream sectors, and provide relief to consumers of final products. The exemption remains valid until June 30 and covers Methanol, Anhydrous ammonia, Toluene, Styrene, Dichloromethane, Vinyl chloride monomer, Poly butadiene, Styrene butadiene and Unsaturated polyester resins.
April 2, 2026
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GST fraud through fake firms and fake invoices exposed alleged illegal input tax credit claims and circular trading.
GST fraud involving fake firms, shell companies, fake invoices and circular trading was detected during a police investigation. The alleged racket used fake Aadhaar and PAN details to unlawfully avail input tax credit and underreported sales in GST returns, causing an estimated loss of around Rs 3 crore to the government exchequer, with the total involvement suspected to be higher. One accused was arrested, while efforts continued to trace other persons involved.

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Corp. Laws / SEBI / IBC

Vedanta questions evaluation metrics behind selection of Adani's bid for JAL

April 10, 2026

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New Delhi, Apr 10 (PTI) Mining giant Vedanta Group on Friday questioned the evaluation metrics adopted by lenders of Jaiprakash Associates Ltd (JAL), which had selected the lower bid of Rs 3,400 crore from Adani Enterprises for the debt-ridden company.

During proceedings of the insolvency appellate tribunal National Company Law Appellate Tribunal (NCLAT), the counsel representing Vedanta Ltd said the "valuation in the process has been used to wipe out commercial wisdom" by the committee of creditors (CoC).

Pointing towards the evaluation matrix used by the CoC, senior advocate Abhijeet Sinha asked whether it was used "to achieve value maximisation or is it being used for some other purpose".

He submitted that the evaluation matrix, RFRP (request for resolution plan) and process note relied upon by the CoC are merely guiding tools and cannot override the core objective of the insolvency framework, which is maximisation of value.

Contending that Vedanta's bid was Rs 3,400 crore higher in gross value and Rs 500 crore in net present value (NPV) than the resolution plan submitted by the Adani Group, Sinha alleged that there was no discussion in the CoC meeting for going for a lower bid.

The CoC has appointed BTO India LLC to carry out feasibility and viability analysis of resolution plans received, which provided scoring to each of the five resolution plans as per the evaluation metrics, which does not reflect "sound exercise of commercial wisdom".

"In this, the max score is 35… out of 35, Adani gets 29.30, we get 18.51," Sinha said, adding, "Now, this is actually, we are told, the only factor which has made (the basis of the decision)... but that is also a scoring factor, which the CoC itself has also not done." For NPV, Vedanta has 35 out of 35. "The other factor where we are lower is equity, quasi-equity infusion for improving business operations within 180 days. We are 2.56 and 5," he said.

NCLAT was hearing petitions filed by Vedanta Ltd, which has challenged the selection of Adani Enterprises as the successful resolution applicant for JAL.

Vedanta's counsel argued that the CoC, after introducing a challenge process due to sub-optimal bids, approved the very plan it initially found inadequate, undermining the integrity of the process.

He alleged material irregularities and a lack of transparency in the conduct of the entire process, and argued that the design of the challenge mechanism itself was inherently unfair, as bidders were required to submit both upfront and deferred payment components but were only shown the highest NPV after each round.

Earlier on March 24, NCLAT declined any interim stay over the Vedanta Group's plea against the order passed by the NCLT approving Rs 14,535-crore bid by the Adani Group's bid for acquiring JAL.

However, it had also said the plan would be subject to the outcome of the appeals filed by the Anil Agarwal-led Vedanta Group.

This interim order by NCLAT was challenged before the Supreme Court, which also declined to grant a stay. However, the apex court had directed that if the monitoring committee planned to take any major policy decision, it should first obtain the Tribunal's sanction.

On March 17, the NCLT, Allahabad bench, approved Adani Enterprises Ltd's Rs 14,535-crore bid to acquire JAL through the insolvency process.

Adani Enterprises had outbid Vedanta and Dalmia Bharat to win the bid for JAL. Adani got the maximum 89 per cent votes from creditors, followed by Dalmia Cement (Bharat), and Vedanta Group.

The CoC defended its decision, saying the process complied with all Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC) rules. They maintained that no bidder has a guaranteed right to win, even if it offers the highest value.

They said plans were evaluated on multiple factors, including upfront cash, feasibility, and execution, not just headline value.

JAL, which has high-quality assets and business interests spanning real estate, cement manufacturing, hospitality, power and engineering & construction, was admitted to the CIRP in June 2024 after it defaulted on payments of loans aggregating Rs 57,185 crore.

JAL has major real estate projects like Jaypee Greens in Greater Noida, a part of Jaypee Greens Wishtown in Noida (both on the outskirts of the national capital), and the Jaypee International Sports City, located near the upcoming Jewar International Airport.

It also has three commercial/industrial office spaces in Delhi-NCR, while its hotel division has five properties in Delhi-NCR, Mussoorie, and Agra.

JAL has four cement plants in Madhya Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh, and a few leased limestone mines in Madhya Pradesh.

It also has investments in subsidiaries, including Jaiprakash Power Ventures Ltd, Yamuna Expressway Tolling Ltd, Jaypee Infrastructure Development Ltd, and several other companies. PTI KRH KRH TRB

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