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April 3, 2026
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Annual reporting for film production and specified activities under the income-tax framework now requires structured disclosure and TDS linkage.
Form 164 requires persons engaged in cinematograph film production or notified specified activities to furnish an annual statement for each tax year under section 507 of the Income-tax Act, 2025, read with Rule 236. The statement is due within 60 days from the end of the tax year and covers filer particulars, film or activity details, and payment and TDS information, including aggregate payments above the prescribed threshold linked to the relevant film or activity. The revised format uses three parts and standardised digital reporting.
April 3, 2026
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Mandatory annual statement for film production and specified activities covers incomplete projects, threshold payments, TAN, and electronic filing status.
A mandatory annual statement is required under section 507 of the Income-tax Act, 2025 for persons engaged in cinematograph film production or specified activities such as event management, sports events, documentary production, OTT or TV programme production, performing arts, or similar notified activities. The filing obligation applies to every individual, partnership firm, LLP, company or other entity that produced a film or undertook a specified activity during the relevant tax year, including cases where the film or activity was not completed in that year. The statement must be filed within 60 days from the end of the tax year, and TAN is required where the filer is liable to deduct tax at source.
April 3, 2026
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Personal loan flexibility expands as longer repayment tenure, collateral-free borrowing, and faster disbursal aim to ease EMI burden.
Bajaj Finance has revised its personal loan offering by extending the repayment tenure up to 108 months, replacing the earlier 96-month structure. The longer tenure is intended to reduce monthly EMI burden and give borrowers greater flexibility in managing repayments, while shorter tenures remain available within a range of 12 months to 108 months depending on customer preference. The personal loan product is described as collateral-free and designed for planned and urgent expenses, with loan amounts ranging from Rs. 40,000 to Rs. 55 lakh.
April 3, 2026
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Indirect transfer reporting under Form 163 requires timely electronic disclosure of share transfers affecting Indian assets and control rights.
Form 163 is the reporting statement for indirect transfers of assets located in India under section 506 of the Income-tax Act, 2025 and Rule 235 of the Income-tax Rules, 2026. It is to be furnished by an Indian concern, or its representative, where a non-resident transfers shares or interests in a foreign company or entity in a manner affecting assets, rights, management or control in relation to the Indian concern. The form is filed electronically within the prescribed timelines and supports computation of income reported in Form 4.
April 3, 2026
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Foreign exchange reserves decline as rupee pressure, RBI dollar sales, and lower gold and currency assets shape weekly movement.
India's foreign exchange reserves declined to USD 688.058 billion for the week ended March 27, driven by lower foreign currency assets and gold reserves. The Reserve Bank of India continued to intervene in the foreign exchange market through dollar sales and related policy measures as the rupee remained under pressure, while Special Drawing Rights rose slightly and the IMF reserve position edged down.
April 3, 2026
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Indirect transfer reporting in Form No. 163 requires timely electronic filing, supporting documents, and a valid PAN.
Reporting of indirect transfers of assets located in India requires an Indian concern, or its representative, to furnish information in Form No. 163 under section 506 of the Income Tax Act, 2025. The form is mandatory and applies where a non-resident transfers shares of, or interest in, an offshore company or entity resulting in an indirect transfer of assets in India. It must be furnished within ninety days from the end of the financial year, or within ninety days of the transaction where management or control rights in relation to the Indian concern are transferred.
April 3, 2026
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Annual statement filing for liaison offices in India requires RBI-linked disclosure, electronic submission, and timely compliance.
Form 162 is an annual statement required under section 505 of the Income Tax Act, 2025, for non-resident entities maintaining a liaison office in India. It must be filed once in each tax year within eight months from the end of the tax year, electronically through the income-tax e-filing portal and digitally signed by the authorised signatory. The form captures head office, liaison office, RBI approval, Annual Activity Certificate, financial, employee, and counterparty details, and may be used for verification, international taxation, and transfer pricing cross-checks.
April 3, 2026
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Annual statement compliance for liaison offices requires electronic filing, certified activity records, valid PAN, and timely submission.
Form 162 is the annual statement required for non-resident entities maintaining a liaison office in India under the Income-tax Act, 2025, to be filed electronically once in each tax year within eight months from the end of the tax year. The filing requires particulars relating to the office's activities, approval details, employees, Indian counterparties, and audited financial information, along with a certified Annual Activity Certificate and valid PAN. The form cannot be submitted offline or edited after acknowledgment, and non-filing or delay may attract penalty, revocation of liaison office permission, and other assessment-related action.
April 3, 2026
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Immunity from penalty and prosecution through Form 161 depends on full payment, no appeal, and timely electronic filing.
Form 161 is the prescribed application under the Income-tax Act, 2025 for immunity from penalty and prosecution where an assessee accepts an assessment or reassessment order, pays the full tax and interest demand within the prescribed time, and does not file an appeal. The application is event-based and must be filed within one month from the end of the month in which the order is received. It requires structured taxpayer identity details, order and payment particulars, and a statutory verification, and is filed electronically with supporting assessment, demand, payment, and PAN documents.
April 3, 2026
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Immunity from penalty and prosecution through Form 161 requires full payment, no appeal, and online filing.
Form 161 is the prescribed application under section 440(2) of the Income-tax Act, 2025 for seeking immunity from penalty and prosecution after an assessment or reassessment order. It is optional and event-based, must be filed within one month from the end of the month of receipt of the order, and is available only where the taxpayer has paid the full tax and interest demand and has not filed any appeal. The form requires order details, demand details, proof of payment, and PAN, and can be submitted only online through the e-Filing portal.
April 3, 2026
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Refund of wrongly deducted tax through Form 160 requires full transaction details, supporting documents, and timely filing.
Refund of tax deducted at source and deposited to the Central Government is available through Form 160 where tax was not required to be deducted on the relevant income or transaction. The form is filed by the deductor before the Assessing Officer having jurisdiction, within thirty days from payment of tax, and must contain transaction details, deductee details, agreement particulars, and proof of the tax deducted and deposited. Supporting documents and verification enable examination of whether the refund claim is admissible.
April 3, 2026
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Refund of wrongly deducted tax through Form 160 requires proof that no tax was deductible and full TDS disclosure.
Refund of tax deducted at source and paid to the Central Government may be sought through Form 160 where the deductor contends that no tax was deductible on the relevant income or transaction. The form is the prescribed application under the Income-tax law and is to be used only in cases where tax was actually deducted and deposited, but the applicant later claims that the deduction was not required under the Act. It is filed before the TDS Assessing Officer having jurisdiction over the applicant, and the application is supported by the statutory particulars needed to test the claim of non-deductibility.
April 3, 2026
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Tax Clearance Certificate Form 159 governs clearance for persons leaving India and requires Assessing Officer issuance on Form 158.
Tax Clearance Certificate in Form 159 is issued by the Assessing Officer in response to Form 158 and is prescribed under section 420(5) of the Income-tax Act, 2025 read with Rule 228 of the Income-tax Rules, 2026. The form records the departing person's identity details and travel-linked validity, is issued through ITBA functionality, and has no statutory timeline for issue. Form 158 is the supporting application, and the note states that the taxpayer cannot leave India without the requisite clearance certificate.
April 3, 2026
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Tax Clearance Certificate governs departure-related compliance and is issued by the Assessing Officer on a Form 158 application.
Form 159 is the Tax Clearance Certificate issued by the Assessing Officer in response to Form 158. It is not filed by the taxpayer, but is issued to the specified taxpayer through the ITBA functionality, subject to the requirements of the Income-tax Act, 2025. No statutory time limit is prescribed for issuance, and the certificate is event-based, depending on the travel requirements of the person leaving India.
April 3, 2026
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Tax clearance certificate requirements for persons leaving India are set out through electronic filing of Form 158.
Form 158 is the application for a Tax Clearance Certificate required from a person directed by the Assessing Officer to obtain clearance before leaving India. It is filed each time the requirement applies, captures travel, identification, business, and passport details, and must be supported by documents such as passport or emergency certificate, PAN, and travel booking records. The form is filed electronically through the income-tax portal and digitally signed; on processing, Form 159 is issued as the Tax Clearance Certificate.
April 3, 2026
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Tax Clearance Certificate filing under Form 158 requires mandatory electronic submission before leaving India.
Form 158 is the mandatory electronic application for a Tax Clearance Certificate for domiciled persons required to obtain clearance before leaving India under the Income-tax Act, 2025. It must be filed each time the person leaves India, through the e-filing portal only. PAN is mandatory, while Aadhaar is not required. Supporting documents include passport or emergency certificate details and travel booking documents. The form cannot be edited after submission, and verification may be completed through prescribed electronic modes.
April 3, 2026
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Foreign departure undertaking for persons without PAN or taxable income is proposed as a manual compliance form.
Form 157 is a manual undertaking to be furnished by persons domiciled in India leaving India at the time of departure under section 420(4) of the Income-tax Act, 2025 and Rule 228 of the Income-tax Rules, 2026. It applies only to persons without PAN or without income chargeable to tax. The form requires identity and passport details, an undertaking regarding PAN or taxable income status, and particulars of the foreign visit, supported by passport documents or an emergency certificate where no passport is available.
April 3, 2026
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Form 157 certificate filing rules for domiciled persons leaving India without PAN or taxable income
Form 157 is a proposed new income-tax certificate form for persons domiciled in India leaving India who do not have PAN, do not have income chargeable to tax in India, or are not required to obtain PAN. It is mandatory subject to notified exceptions, must be filed each time the person leaves India, and is to be submitted manually before the jurisdictional Assessing Officer with the prescribed identity documents. The form does not require proof of tax payment, Aadhaar is no longer required in the personal details, and corrections may be made before submission or later through the Assessing Officer.
April 3, 2026
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Form 156 filing requirement for Indian residents leaving India is being split into declaration and undertaking formats.
Persons domiciled in India leaving India must furnish Form 156 at the time of departure as an undertaking under section 420(3) of the Income-tax Act, 2025 read with rule 228 of the Income-tax Rules, 2026, subject to notified exceptions. The form is to be filed electronically through the Income-tax Department e-filing portal and requires personal particulars, travel purpose, duration of stay abroad, passport details, and supporting documents such as passport and PAN, or an emergency certificate where no passport is available. The form structure is being rationalised by splitting the existing manual form into Form 156 and Form 157.
April 3, 2026
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Departure undertaking requirement governs Form 156 filing, with PAN-based e-filing and limited verification options for domiciled persons leaving India.
Form 156 is an undertaking to be furnished by persons domiciled in India leaving India at the time of departure, subject to notified exceptions. It applies only where the person has a valid PAN and income chargeable to tax in India, and is filed each time the person leaves India. The form cannot be edited after submission and acknowledgement. Filing is electronic through the income tax e-filing portal, with verification by electronic verification code or digital signature certificate, and requires passport or emergency certificate details, without proof of tax payment or Aadhaar.

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Corp. Laws / SEBI / IBC

Vedanta questions evaluation metrics behind selection of Adani's bid for JAL

April 10, 2026

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New Delhi, Apr 10 (PTI) Mining giant Vedanta Group on Friday questioned the evaluation metrics adopted by lenders of Jaiprakash Associates Ltd (JAL), which had selected the lower bid of Rs 3,400 crore from Adani Enterprises for the debt-ridden company.

During proceedings of the insolvency appellate tribunal National Company Law Appellate Tribunal (NCLAT), the counsel representing Vedanta Ltd said the "valuation in the process has been used to wipe out commercial wisdom" by the committee of creditors (CoC).

Pointing towards the evaluation matrix used by the CoC, senior advocate Abhijeet Sinha asked whether it was used "to achieve value maximisation or is it being used for some other purpose".

He submitted that the evaluation matrix, RFRP (request for resolution plan) and process note relied upon by the CoC are merely guiding tools and cannot override the core objective of the insolvency framework, which is maximisation of value.

Contending that Vedanta's bid was Rs 3,400 crore higher in gross value and Rs 500 crore in net present value (NPV) than the resolution plan submitted by the Adani Group, Sinha alleged that there was no discussion in the CoC meeting for going for a lower bid.

The CoC has appointed BTO India LLC to carry out feasibility and viability analysis of resolution plans received, which provided scoring to each of the five resolution plans as per the evaluation metrics, which does not reflect "sound exercise of commercial wisdom".

"In this, the max score is 35… out of 35, Adani gets 29.30, we get 18.51," Sinha said, adding, "Now, this is actually, we are told, the only factor which has made (the basis of the decision)... but that is also a scoring factor, which the CoC itself has also not done." For NPV, Vedanta has 35 out of 35. "The other factor where we are lower is equity, quasi-equity infusion for improving business operations within 180 days. We are 2.56 and 5," he said.

NCLAT was hearing petitions filed by Vedanta Ltd, which has challenged the selection of Adani Enterprises as the successful resolution applicant for JAL.

Vedanta's counsel argued that the CoC, after introducing a challenge process due to sub-optimal bids, approved the very plan it initially found inadequate, undermining the integrity of the process.

He alleged material irregularities and a lack of transparency in the conduct of the entire process, and argued that the design of the challenge mechanism itself was inherently unfair, as bidders were required to submit both upfront and deferred payment components but were only shown the highest NPV after each round.

Earlier on March 24, NCLAT declined any interim stay over the Vedanta Group's plea against the order passed by the NCLT approving Rs 14,535-crore bid by the Adani Group's bid for acquiring JAL.

However, it had also said the plan would be subject to the outcome of the appeals filed by the Anil Agarwal-led Vedanta Group.

This interim order by NCLAT was challenged before the Supreme Court, which also declined to grant a stay. However, the apex court had directed that if the monitoring committee planned to take any major policy decision, it should first obtain the Tribunal's sanction.

On March 17, the NCLT, Allahabad bench, approved Adani Enterprises Ltd's Rs 14,535-crore bid to acquire JAL through the insolvency process.

Adani Enterprises had outbid Vedanta and Dalmia Bharat to win the bid for JAL. Adani got the maximum 89 per cent votes from creditors, followed by Dalmia Cement (Bharat), and Vedanta Group.

The CoC defended its decision, saying the process complied with all Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC) rules. They maintained that no bidder has a guaranteed right to win, even if it offers the highest value.

They said plans were evaluated on multiple factors, including upfront cash, feasibility, and execution, not just headline value.

JAL, which has high-quality assets and business interests spanning real estate, cement manufacturing, hospitality, power and engineering & construction, was admitted to the CIRP in June 2024 after it defaulted on payments of loans aggregating Rs 57,185 crore.

JAL has major real estate projects like Jaypee Greens in Greater Noida, a part of Jaypee Greens Wishtown in Noida (both on the outskirts of the national capital), and the Jaypee International Sports City, located near the upcoming Jewar International Airport.

It also has three commercial/industrial office spaces in Delhi-NCR, while its hotel division has five properties in Delhi-NCR, Mussoorie, and Agra.

JAL has four cement plants in Madhya Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh, and a few leased limestone mines in Madhya Pradesh.

It also has investments in subsidiaries, including Jaiprakash Power Ventures Ltd, Yamuna Expressway Tolling Ltd, Jaypee Infrastructure Development Ltd, and several other companies. PTI KRH KRH TRB

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Acts Income Tax