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April 4, 2026
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Employee welfare fund approval under income tax rules depends on notified purposes, verified disclosure, and hearing before rejection.
Form 180 is the electronic application for approval or renewal of an employee welfare fund established for notified purposes under section 11(3) read with Schedule VII, to be filed by the trust or fund before the jurisdictional PCIT/CIT and verified by the trustee or principal officer. The form requires details of the trust or fund, employer organisation, objects, trustees, employee membership, contributions, income, application or accumulation of funds, along with the trust deed, activity notes and accounts. Approval is granted only if the prescribed conditions are satisfied, for a period not exceeding three tax years, and rejection requires recorded reasons and an opportunity of hearing.
April 4, 2026
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Employee Welfare Fund approval through Form 180 requires online filing, valid PAN, and strict trust-based eligibility conditions.
Form 180 is the prescribed electronic application for an Employee Welfare Fund seeking approval or renewal from the jurisdictional Principal CIT/CIT. The fund must be a trust for notified welfare purposes for serving employees or their dependents, and the application must be verified by the trustee or principal officer. Filing is mandatory for approval, which confers pass-through treatment and tax exemption subject to conditions. The form can be filed only online, cannot be edited after submission, and requires a valid PAN and supporting documents.
April 4, 2026
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Business connection in India compliance through Form 173 for eligible investment funds and annual verification of eligibility conditions.
Form 173 is a statement furnished by an eligible investment fund to verify compliance with the conditions for claiming that its activities do not constitute a business connection in India. The form is filed once in a tax year within 90 days from the end of the tax year, and it contains particulars on residence, tax identification number, Schedule I compliance, participation interests in India, fund manager remuneration, and investment profits. Supporting documents may include approval orders, registrations, financial statements, and remuneration contracts.
April 4, 2026
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Eligible investment fund reporting under no-business-connection rules requires mandatory online Form 173 filing and digital signature compliance.
Form 173 is the mandatory statement for an eligible investment fund to establish that its activities do not create a business connection in India. It must be filed once in a tax year, within 90 days from the end of the tax year, by the fund manager or designated person, only through the Income Tax e-filing portal, and it cannot be edited after submission. The form requires supporting fund details, registrations, financial statements, and digital signature compliance, and a valid PAN is mandatory.
April 4, 2026
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Eligible investment fund reporting under Form 172 requires accountant certification, electronic filing, and compliance with prescribed conditions.
Form 172 is the accountant's report for an eligible investment fund to establish fulfilment of prescribed conditions relevant to section 9(12) and the claim that the fund's activities do not create a business connection in India. It is prescribed under Rule 274(7), filed once in each tax year by the appointed accountant, and due by 31 October of the succeeding tax year. The form is filed electronically with a UDIN and digital signature, and non-filing may attract penalty under section 447.
April 4, 2026
Show AI Summary
Business connection in India reporting through Form 172 requires mandatory electronic filing, UDIN generation, and supporting documentation.
Form 172 is the mandatory accountant's report for an eligible investment fund to show compliance with conditions for claiming no business connection in India. It is filed once in a tax year by the appointed accountant through the Income Tax e-filing portal, after UDIN generation and digital signature. The form requires a valid PAN, cannot be edited after submission, and may need supporting documents such as fund manager details, SEBI registrations, financial statements, and contracts relating to the fund manager's activities and remuneration.
April 3, 2026
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Authorised Income Tax Practitioner registration under Form 171 depends on eligibility, supporting documents, and authority verification.
Form 171 is the one-time application for registration as an authorised Income Tax Practitioner under the specified eligibility categories in section 515(3) of the Income Tax Act, 2025. Eligible applicants include accountants, persons who have passed a recognised accountancy examination, and other qualified persons recognised by the Central Board of Direct Taxes. The form requires applicant details, the claimed eligibility category, qualifications, prior tax appearances, and supporting documents, and is filed with the jurisdictional Income Tax Authority for verification and registration.
April 3, 2026
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Authorised Income-tax Practitioner registration through Form 171 requires eligibility details, supporting documents, and one-time filing.
Form 171 is the prescribed application for registration as an Authorised Income-tax Practitioner under section 515 of the Income-tax Act 2025 and must be filed with the jurisdictional Chief Commissioner or Commissioner of Income-tax. The application is mandatory for recognition in that capacity, may be filed after eligibility arises, and is a one-time filing unless otherwise directed. It requires applicant particulars, eligibility details, qualifications, supporting documents, and relevant firm or association details. On approval, the applicant's name is entered in the Register of Income-tax Practitioners and a Certificate of Registration is issued.
April 3, 2026
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Annual Information Statement consolidates tax credits, payments, transactions, and proceedings in a taxpayer's e-filing account.
Form 168 operates as an auto-generated Annual Information Statement linked to a taxpayer's PAN and available in the e-filing account. It consolidates TDS, TCS, tax payments, specified financial transactions, demand and refund details, and pending or completed proceedings, together with any other prescribed information. The taxpayer does not file the form manually. It is updated dynamically during the year as underlying reports and payments are processed, and it uses Tax Year instead of Financial Year.
April 3, 2026
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Annual Information Statement and taxpayer summary streamline income reporting through detailed verification, feedback correction, and consolidated return filing.
Annual Information Statement (AIS) is the detailed financial statement linked to PAN, and Taxpayer Information Summary (TIS) is its consolidated version showing category-wise totals for use in return filing. AIS contains transaction-level data, while TIS provides summarized figures such as salary, rental income, interest, capital gains, dividend, business income and taxes paid. Taxpayers should verify AIS, use the feedback mechanism for incorrect or unrelated entries, and rely on the updated TIS; actual income must still be reported in the return even if missing from AIS.
April 3, 2026
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GST appeal filing blocked by NIL demand entries despite unpaid dispute over liability and prior voluntary payment.
Taxpayers may face portal restrictions when an adjudication order reflects a NIL demand because payment was made at the show cause notice stage without admitting liability. Although such payment does not amount to acceptance of the demand, the GST portal may block filing of appeal application APL-01 when no liability is captured in the Demand and Collection Register. The taxpayer may seek rectification of the order so that the correct demand amount is reflected and the appeal can then be filed within the prescribed time.
April 3, 2026
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Annual reporting for film production and specified activities under the income-tax framework now requires structured disclosure and TDS linkage.
Form 164 requires persons engaged in cinematograph film production or notified specified activities to furnish an annual statement for each tax year under section 507 of the Income-tax Act, 2025, read with Rule 236. The statement is due within 60 days from the end of the tax year and covers filer particulars, film or activity details, and payment and TDS information, including aggregate payments above the prescribed threshold linked to the relevant film or activity. The revised format uses three parts and standardised digital reporting.
April 3, 2026
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Mandatory annual statement for film production and specified activities covers incomplete projects, threshold payments, TAN, and electronic filing status.
A mandatory annual statement is required under section 507 of the Income-tax Act, 2025 for persons engaged in cinematograph film production or specified activities such as event management, sports events, documentary production, OTT or TV programme production, performing arts, or similar notified activities. The filing obligation applies to every individual, partnership firm, LLP, company or other entity that produced a film or undertook a specified activity during the relevant tax year, including cases where the film or activity was not completed in that year. The statement must be filed within 60 days from the end of the tax year, and TAN is required where the filer is liable to deduct tax at source.
April 3, 2026
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Personal loan flexibility expands as longer repayment tenure, collateral-free borrowing, and faster disbursal aim to ease EMI burden.
Bajaj Finance has revised its personal loan offering by extending the repayment tenure up to 108 months, replacing the earlier 96-month structure. The longer tenure is intended to reduce monthly EMI burden and give borrowers greater flexibility in managing repayments, while shorter tenures remain available within a range of 12 months to 108 months depending on customer preference. The personal loan product is described as collateral-free and designed for planned and urgent expenses, with loan amounts ranging from Rs. 40,000 to Rs. 55 lakh.
April 3, 2026
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Indirect transfer reporting under Form 163 requires timely electronic disclosure of share transfers affecting Indian assets and control rights.
Form 163 is the reporting statement for indirect transfers of assets located in India under section 506 of the Income-tax Act, 2025 and Rule 235 of the Income-tax Rules, 2026. It is to be furnished by an Indian concern, or its representative, where a non-resident transfers shares or interests in a foreign company or entity in a manner affecting assets, rights, management or control in relation to the Indian concern. The form is filed electronically within the prescribed timelines and supports computation of income reported in Form 4.
April 3, 2026
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Foreign exchange reserves decline as rupee pressure, RBI dollar sales, and lower gold and currency assets shape weekly movement.
India's foreign exchange reserves declined to USD 688.058 billion for the week ended March 27, driven by lower foreign currency assets and gold reserves. The Reserve Bank of India continued to intervene in the foreign exchange market through dollar sales and related policy measures as the rupee remained under pressure, while Special Drawing Rights rose slightly and the IMF reserve position edged down.
April 3, 2026
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Indirect transfer reporting in Form No. 163 requires timely electronic filing, supporting documents, and a valid PAN.
Reporting of indirect transfers of assets located in India requires an Indian concern, or its representative, to furnish information in Form No. 163 under section 506 of the Income Tax Act, 2025. The form is mandatory and applies where a non-resident transfers shares of, or interest in, an offshore company or entity resulting in an indirect transfer of assets in India. It must be furnished within ninety days from the end of the financial year, or within ninety days of the transaction where management or control rights in relation to the Indian concern are transferred.
April 3, 2026
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Annual statement filing for liaison offices in India requires RBI-linked disclosure, electronic submission, and timely compliance.
Form 162 is an annual statement required under section 505 of the Income Tax Act, 2025, for non-resident entities maintaining a liaison office in India. It must be filed once in each tax year within eight months from the end of the tax year, electronically through the income-tax e-filing portal and digitally signed by the authorised signatory. The form captures head office, liaison office, RBI approval, Annual Activity Certificate, financial, employee, and counterparty details, and may be used for verification, international taxation, and transfer pricing cross-checks.
April 3, 2026
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Annual statement compliance for liaison offices requires electronic filing, certified activity records, valid PAN, and timely submission.
Form 162 is the annual statement required for non-resident entities maintaining a liaison office in India under the Income-tax Act, 2025, to be filed electronically once in each tax year within eight months from the end of the tax year. The filing requires particulars relating to the office's activities, approval details, employees, Indian counterparties, and audited financial information, along with a certified Annual Activity Certificate and valid PAN. The form cannot be submitted offline or edited after acknowledgment, and non-filing or delay may attract penalty, revocation of liaison office permission, and other assessment-related action.
April 3, 2026
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Immunity from penalty and prosecution through Form 161 depends on full payment, no appeal, and timely electronic filing.
Form 161 is the prescribed application under the Income-tax Act, 2025 for immunity from penalty and prosecution where an assessee accepts an assessment or reassessment order, pays the full tax and interest demand within the prescribed time, and does not file an appeal. The application is event-based and must be filed within one month from the end of the month in which the order is received. It requires structured taxpayer identity details, order and payment particulars, and a statutory verification, and is filed electronically with supporting assessment, demand, payment, and PAN documents.

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Corp. Laws / SEBI / IBC

Vedanta questions evaluation metrics behind selection of Adani's bid for JAL

April 10, 2026

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New Delhi, Apr 10 (PTI) Mining giant Vedanta Group on Friday questioned the evaluation metrics adopted by lenders of Jaiprakash Associates Ltd (JAL), which had selected the lower bid of Rs 3,400 crore from Adani Enterprises for the debt-ridden company.

During proceedings of the insolvency appellate tribunal National Company Law Appellate Tribunal (NCLAT), the counsel representing Vedanta Ltd said the "valuation in the process has been used to wipe out commercial wisdom" by the committee of creditors (CoC).

Pointing towards the evaluation matrix used by the CoC, senior advocate Abhijeet Sinha asked whether it was used "to achieve value maximisation or is it being used for some other purpose".

He submitted that the evaluation matrix, RFRP (request for resolution plan) and process note relied upon by the CoC are merely guiding tools and cannot override the core objective of the insolvency framework, which is maximisation of value.

Contending that Vedanta's bid was Rs 3,400 crore higher in gross value and Rs 500 crore in net present value (NPV) than the resolution plan submitted by the Adani Group, Sinha alleged that there was no discussion in the CoC meeting for going for a lower bid.

The CoC has appointed BTO India LLC to carry out feasibility and viability analysis of resolution plans received, which provided scoring to each of the five resolution plans as per the evaluation metrics, which does not reflect "sound exercise of commercial wisdom".

"In this, the max score is 35… out of 35, Adani gets 29.30, we get 18.51," Sinha said, adding, "Now, this is actually, we are told, the only factor which has made (the basis of the decision)... but that is also a scoring factor, which the CoC itself has also not done." For NPV, Vedanta has 35 out of 35. "The other factor where we are lower is equity, quasi-equity infusion for improving business operations within 180 days. We are 2.56 and 5," he said.

NCLAT was hearing petitions filed by Vedanta Ltd, which has challenged the selection of Adani Enterprises as the successful resolution applicant for JAL.

Vedanta's counsel argued that the CoC, after introducing a challenge process due to sub-optimal bids, approved the very plan it initially found inadequate, undermining the integrity of the process.

He alleged material irregularities and a lack of transparency in the conduct of the entire process, and argued that the design of the challenge mechanism itself was inherently unfair, as bidders were required to submit both upfront and deferred payment components but were only shown the highest NPV after each round.

Earlier on March 24, NCLAT declined any interim stay over the Vedanta Group's plea against the order passed by the NCLT approving Rs 14,535-crore bid by the Adani Group's bid for acquiring JAL.

However, it had also said the plan would be subject to the outcome of the appeals filed by the Anil Agarwal-led Vedanta Group.

This interim order by NCLAT was challenged before the Supreme Court, which also declined to grant a stay. However, the apex court had directed that if the monitoring committee planned to take any major policy decision, it should first obtain the Tribunal's sanction.

On March 17, the NCLT, Allahabad bench, approved Adani Enterprises Ltd's Rs 14,535-crore bid to acquire JAL through the insolvency process.

Adani Enterprises had outbid Vedanta and Dalmia Bharat to win the bid for JAL. Adani got the maximum 89 per cent votes from creditors, followed by Dalmia Cement (Bharat), and Vedanta Group.

The CoC defended its decision, saying the process complied with all Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC) rules. They maintained that no bidder has a guaranteed right to win, even if it offers the highest value.

They said plans were evaluated on multiple factors, including upfront cash, feasibility, and execution, not just headline value.

JAL, which has high-quality assets and business interests spanning real estate, cement manufacturing, hospitality, power and engineering & construction, was admitted to the CIRP in June 2024 after it defaulted on payments of loans aggregating Rs 57,185 crore.

JAL has major real estate projects like Jaypee Greens in Greater Noida, a part of Jaypee Greens Wishtown in Noida (both on the outskirts of the national capital), and the Jaypee International Sports City, located near the upcoming Jewar International Airport.

It also has three commercial/industrial office spaces in Delhi-NCR, while its hotel division has five properties in Delhi-NCR, Mussoorie, and Agra.

JAL has four cement plants in Madhya Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh, and a few leased limestone mines in Madhya Pradesh.

It also has investments in subsidiaries, including Jaiprakash Power Ventures Ltd, Yamuna Expressway Tolling Ltd, Jaypee Infrastructure Development Ltd, and several other companies. PTI KRH KRH TRB

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Acts Income Tax