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April 4, 2026
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Approval for issue of eligible capital under Schedule XV depends on Form 189 details, disclosures, and supporting documents.
Form 189 is the application for approval of issue of public companies under Schedule XV(1)(z)(i) of the Income-tax Act, 2025, and is filed by the public company three months before the issue of eligible capital. The form requires company particulars, management details, bankers and auditors, issue details, project details, and supporting documents such as incorporation certificate, audited financial statements, equity details, SEBI approval and any project report. Processed Form 189 leads to approval for issue of eligible capital on the basis of the details furnished.
April 4, 2026
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Public company issue approval through Form 189 governs eligible capital issues and related deduction eligibility.
Form 189 is the prescribed application for approval of issue of public companies under Schedule XV(1)(z)(i) of the Income-tax Act, 2025. It is filed by the public company with supporting documents before the issue of eligible capital, and the approval is granted on the basis of the details furnished in the form. Individual contributions to the issue are stated to qualify for deduction under the Act.
April 4, 2026
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Consolidated approval form standardises gratuity and superannuation fund compliance, replacing rule-based particulars with structured filing.
Introduction of consolidated Form 188 standardises the approval process for Gratuity Fund and Superannuation Fund applications under Part B of Schedule XI by replacing the earlier text-based particulars in Rule 95 and Rule 109. The form is filed by trustees or an authorised person only for initial approval, and it requires details of the employer, the fund, eligible employees, account maintenance, fund status, trustee verification, and supporting documents such as the trust deed, fund rules, and accounts where applicable.
April 4, 2026
Show AI Summary
Approval mechanism for gratuity and superannuation funds is standardised through Form 188 with structured compliance requirements.
Form 188 provides a standardised application mechanism for approval of Gratuity Funds and Superannuation Funds, replacing earlier rule-based procedural requirements. It is filed once by the trustees or an authorised person, with prescribed particulars and supporting documents such as the trust deed, fund rules, accounts, and balance sheet where applicable. The application is examined by the jurisdictional authority, which may seek clarifications and then grant approval, issue deficiency notice, or reject the application.
April 4, 2026
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Appeal against fund recognition refusal uses Form 187, with supporting documents and filing within 60 days.
Appeal against refusal to recognise or withdrawal of recognition from a recognised provident fund, and refusal to approve or withdrawal of approval from a superannuation fund or gratuity fund, is filed in Form 187 by the employer, trustee, or authorised representative within 60 days of communication of the order. The form requires appellant particulars, fund details, grounds of appeal, verification, and supporting documents such as the impugned order, original application, proof of filing, authorisation, and fee challan.
April 4, 2026
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Appeals for provident, superannuation and gratuity funds require Form 187, supporting documents and filing within 60 days.
Form 187 prescribes the appellate mechanism under the Income-tax Act, 2025 for matters concerning recognised provident funds, superannuation funds and approved gratuity funds, including appeals against orders affecting recognition, approval, withdrawal, cancellation or refusal of such status. The form is to be used by trustees, employers or other authorised persons representing the fund where an adverse order has been passed by the competent income-tax authority. Appeals must be filed within 60 days from communication of the order, and filing does not by itself operate as a stay unless specifically granted.
April 4, 2026
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Customs enforcement along the India-Nepal border led to seizure of undocumented soft drinks and air conditioners.
Customs enforcement along the India-Nepal border led to seizure of soft drinks and air conditioners being moved without valid customs documents. A vehicle carrying 1,575 bottles of soft drinks was intercepted after the driver tried to flee, while two split air conditioners transported on bicycles were also recovered in a separate patrol operation. The goods, vehicle and bicycles were handed over to the Customs Department.
April 4, 2026
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Indian pharmaceutical exports show sustained growth as formulations, biologicals, vaccines and Ayush products drive resilience.
Indian pharmaceutical exports recorded sustained growth in FY26, reaching nearly USD 29 billion by the end of February and increasing over the corresponding period in the previous financial year. The export performance was led by formulations, biologicals, vaccines and Ayush products, and was described as resilient despite global challenges, pricing pressures and trade volatility. The sector's overall value was placed at about USD 60 billion, with projected expansion to USD 130 billion by 2030.
April 4, 2026
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Recognised Provident Fund recognition process requires trust deed compliance, supporting documents, scrutiny and ongoing investment and reporting obligations.
Application under Rule 40C seeks recognition of a provident fund so it qualifies as a Recognised Provident Fund for income-tax purposes. It applies to employers, trustees and existing funds seeking recognition on formation, conversion, amendment, merger or split. The form requires trust deed details, fund rules, investment policy, financial information and supporting documents, followed by scrutiny, possible revisions, issuance of recognition and ongoing compliance with investment, audit and reporting requirements.
April 4, 2026
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Recognised Provident Fund recognition through Form 186 depends on disclosure, supporting documents, and compliance with trust conditions.
Form 186 is the prescribed application for seeking recognition of a provident fund as a Recognised Provident Fund for income-tax purposes. It is filed by the employer, trustees, or an existing trust seeking recognition, and is ordinarily a one-time application subject to refiling or intimation for material changes in the trust deed or fund rules. The form requires detailed disclosures and supporting documents, and on approval the fund attains RPF status with tax treatment governed by applicable statutory limits and conditions. Recognition may later be withdrawn for non-compliance.
April 4, 2026
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Recognised provident fund accounting in Form 185 requires annual subscriber-wise records of contributions, interest, withdrawals, and balances.
Rule 294 requires recognised provident fund accounts to be prepared at intervals not exceeding twelve months, with a separate account maintained for each subscriber in Form 185. The form is maintained internally by the provident fund trust or authorised officers, and records subscriber particulars, opening balance, monthly contributions, interest, withdrawals or advances, closing balance, and verification. Part A is maintained separately for each subscriber, while Part B presents the same information in consolidated annual subscriber-wise form.
April 4, 2026
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Recognised Provident Fund recordkeeping requires Form 185 to track contributions, interest, withdrawals, and annual balances.
Form No. 185 is the prescribed accounting format for individual subscriber records under a Recognised Provident Fund, maintained by trustees or authorised officers under the Income-tax Rules. It records annual subscriber-wise particulars such as contributions, interest credited, withdrawals or advances, opening and closing balances, and verification details. Part-A is kept for each subscriber, while Part-B is the annual consolidated abstract filed with the Assessing Officer.
April 4, 2026
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Deduction audit report for petroleum and natural gas businesses requires deposit verification, withdrawal checks, and Chartered Accountant certification.
Form No. 183 is the prescribed audit report for claiming deduction under section 49 in the business of prospecting, extracting, or producing petroleum, natural gas, or both in India. It is furnished by a Chartered Accountant and verifies audit of the relevant books, timely deposit into the specified account, permitted use of withdrawals, disallowance of inadmissible expenditure, and transfer restrictions on assets acquired under the scheme. The form is filed annually before the return due date and requires supporting records of books, deposits, withdrawals, and asset transfers.
April 4, 2026
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Supply chain disruption hits Bikaner snack exports as conflict delays shipments and raises freight and input costs.
West Asia conflict has disrupted Bikaner exports and imports, causing delays in shipments of bhujia, papad, namkeen and spices to Gulf and European markets. Traders report longer transit routes, container shortages, higher freight charges, rising raw material and packaging costs, and consignments stuck at ports or in transit, affecting the city's export-driven economy.
April 4, 2026
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Audit report for petroleum and natural gas deduction claims requires certification, supporting records, and online filing compliance.
Form No. 183 is the prescribed audit report under Rule 291 read with Section 49 of the Income-tax Act, 2025 for an assessee engaged in the business of prospecting, extracting, or producing petroleum, natural gas, or both in India. It is mandatory where the deduction is claimed and must be certified by an Accountant. The form requires supporting books, financial statements, evidence of deposits and withdrawals from the specified account, and a computation showing that the deduction remains within the permissible limit.
April 4, 2026
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Deduction claim audit report for tea, coffee and rubber businesses requires Chartered Accountant certification and compliance with deposit rules.
Form No. 182 is a statutory audit report for assessees engaged in growing and manufacturing tea, coffee or rubber who claim deduction under section 48. It must be furnished by a Chartered Accountant annually before the return due date and certifies audit of books, timely deposit in the specified account or approved scheme, withdrawal utilisation, disallowable amounts, asset transfers, and the deduction permissible. The form is now a smart, tabulated e-form with mandatory professional identifiers and standardised fields for e-filing and validation.
April 4, 2026
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Tax deduction audit report rules require prescribed certification, verified deposits, and portal filing for tea, coffee and rubber businesses.
Form No. 182 is the prescribed audit report for assessees engaged in growing and manufacturing tea, coffee or rubber in India who claim deduction under section 48. It must be certified by an Accountant and furnished annually before the return due date. The report is mandatory for the deduction claim, supports verification of deposits, withdrawals, utilisation and deduction computation, and is completed through the e-filing portal with digital signing and assessee acceptance.
April 4, 2026
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Electoral trust audit reporting through Form 181 requires electronic disclosure of contributions, distributions, and administration expenses.
Form 181 is the annual audit report for electoral trusts, to be furnished electronically by an accountant through the e-filing portal before the return due date. It requires disclosure of voluntary contributions received and distributed, application for the benefit of persons or interested persons, and expenditure on administration or management of the trust. The form has been simplified and aligned with the Income-tax Act, 2025.
April 4, 2026
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Digital audit report requirements govern electoral trusts claiming exclusion of voluntary contributions from total income.
FN 181 is a mandatory digital audit report for an electoral trust seeking exclusion of reported voluntary contributions from total income. It must be prepared by an accountant, filed electronically with the Commissioner of Income Tax (CPC) through the e-filing portal, and submitted on or before the due date for filing the return of income. The form cannot be filed offline or edited after submission, and a valid PAN is mandatory for filing.
April 4, 2026
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Employee welfare fund approval under income tax rules depends on notified purposes, verified disclosure, and hearing before rejection.
Form 180 is the electronic application for approval or renewal of an employee welfare fund established for notified purposes under section 11(3) read with Schedule VII, to be filed by the trust or fund before the jurisdictional PCIT/CIT and verified by the trustee or principal officer. The form requires details of the trust or fund, employer organisation, objects, trustees, employee membership, contributions, income, application or accumulation of funds, along with the trust deed, activity notes and accounts. Approval is granted only if the prescribed conditions are satisfied, for a period not exceeding three tax years, and rejection requires recorded reasons and an opportunity of hearing.

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Corp. Laws / SEBI / IBC

Vedanta questions evaluation metrics behind selection of Adani's bid for JAL

April 10, 2026

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New Delhi, Apr 10 (PTI) Mining giant Vedanta Group on Friday questioned the evaluation metrics adopted by lenders of Jaiprakash Associates Ltd (JAL), which had selected the lower bid of Rs 3,400 crore from Adani Enterprises for the debt-ridden company.

During proceedings of the insolvency appellate tribunal National Company Law Appellate Tribunal (NCLAT), the counsel representing Vedanta Ltd said the "valuation in the process has been used to wipe out commercial wisdom" by the committee of creditors (CoC).

Pointing towards the evaluation matrix used by the CoC, senior advocate Abhijeet Sinha asked whether it was used "to achieve value maximisation or is it being used for some other purpose".

He submitted that the evaluation matrix, RFRP (request for resolution plan) and process note relied upon by the CoC are merely guiding tools and cannot override the core objective of the insolvency framework, which is maximisation of value.

Contending that Vedanta's bid was Rs 3,400 crore higher in gross value and Rs 500 crore in net present value (NPV) than the resolution plan submitted by the Adani Group, Sinha alleged that there was no discussion in the CoC meeting for going for a lower bid.

The CoC has appointed BTO India LLC to carry out feasibility and viability analysis of resolution plans received, which provided scoring to each of the five resolution plans as per the evaluation metrics, which does not reflect "sound exercise of commercial wisdom".

"In this, the max score is 35… out of 35, Adani gets 29.30, we get 18.51," Sinha said, adding, "Now, this is actually, we are told, the only factor which has made (the basis of the decision)... but that is also a scoring factor, which the CoC itself has also not done." For NPV, Vedanta has 35 out of 35. "The other factor where we are lower is equity, quasi-equity infusion for improving business operations within 180 days. We are 2.56 and 5," he said.

NCLAT was hearing petitions filed by Vedanta Ltd, which has challenged the selection of Adani Enterprises as the successful resolution applicant for JAL.

Vedanta's counsel argued that the CoC, after introducing a challenge process due to sub-optimal bids, approved the very plan it initially found inadequate, undermining the integrity of the process.

He alleged material irregularities and a lack of transparency in the conduct of the entire process, and argued that the design of the challenge mechanism itself was inherently unfair, as bidders were required to submit both upfront and deferred payment components but were only shown the highest NPV after each round.

Earlier on March 24, NCLAT declined any interim stay over the Vedanta Group's plea against the order passed by the NCLT approving Rs 14,535-crore bid by the Adani Group's bid for acquiring JAL.

However, it had also said the plan would be subject to the outcome of the appeals filed by the Anil Agarwal-led Vedanta Group.

This interim order by NCLAT was challenged before the Supreme Court, which also declined to grant a stay. However, the apex court had directed that if the monitoring committee planned to take any major policy decision, it should first obtain the Tribunal's sanction.

On March 17, the NCLT, Allahabad bench, approved Adani Enterprises Ltd's Rs 14,535-crore bid to acquire JAL through the insolvency process.

Adani Enterprises had outbid Vedanta and Dalmia Bharat to win the bid for JAL. Adani got the maximum 89 per cent votes from creditors, followed by Dalmia Cement (Bharat), and Vedanta Group.

The CoC defended its decision, saying the process complied with all Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC) rules. They maintained that no bidder has a guaranteed right to win, even if it offers the highest value.

They said plans were evaluated on multiple factors, including upfront cash, feasibility, and execution, not just headline value.

JAL, which has high-quality assets and business interests spanning real estate, cement manufacturing, hospitality, power and engineering & construction, was admitted to the CIRP in June 2024 after it defaulted on payments of loans aggregating Rs 57,185 crore.

JAL has major real estate projects like Jaypee Greens in Greater Noida, a part of Jaypee Greens Wishtown in Noida (both on the outskirts of the national capital), and the Jaypee International Sports City, located near the upcoming Jewar International Airport.

It also has three commercial/industrial office spaces in Delhi-NCR, while its hotel division has five properties in Delhi-NCR, Mussoorie, and Agra.

JAL has four cement plants in Madhya Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh, and a few leased limestone mines in Madhya Pradesh.

It also has investments in subsidiaries, including Jaiprakash Power Ventures Ltd, Yamuna Expressway Tolling Ltd, Jaypee Infrastructure Development Ltd, and several other companies. PTI KRH KRH TRB

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Acts Income Tax