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April 3, 2026
Show AI Summary
Assessee-in-default relief through accountant certification when the payee has disclosed income and paid tax.
Form No. 149 is the accountant's certificate used where tax was not deducted or was deducted short, but the payee has reported the income and paid the tax. It is filed electronically by the deductor through TRACES with Chartered Accountant certification to establish that the deductor is not treated as an assessee-in-default under section 398(2), though interest may still apply until the deductee pays the tax.
April 3, 2026
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Tax deduction default relief through Form 149 allows deductors to regularise failure to deduct tax once deductee tax payment is verified.
Form No. 149 provides a mechanism for a deductor to regularise failure to deduct tax at source where the deductee has already filed a return and paid the tax due. The Accountant's certificate in Annexure A confirms that the deductee filed the return, included the relevant income, and paid the tax. The form may be filed for resident or non-resident deductees, and if accepted the deductor is not treated as an assessee in default, though interest remains payable until the deductee files the return. Filing is initiated through TRACES and the e-filing portal.
April 3, 2026
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Quarterly remittance reporting by IFSC units requires Form 148 filing for cross-border payments and e-verification.
Form No. 148 requires every IFSC unit making remittance to a non-resident other than a company or to a foreign company to file a quarterly statement through the e-Filing portal, whether the remittance is taxable or not. The form consolidates remittance reporting, prescribes quarterly due dates, and sets out unit details and remittance particulars to be furnished and verified online. Non-compliance within the due date may attract a penalty of up to Rs. 1 lakh, while remittances not chargeable to tax continue to be reported in Form No. 148 instead of Part D of Form No. 145.
April 3, 2026
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Mandatory quarterly remittance reporting by IFSC units requires online filing, DSC verification, and timely compliance.
Form No. 148 is a mandatory quarterly statement for IFSC units making remittances to a non-resident other than a company or to a foreign company. It must be filed online through the e-Filing portal, e-verified by DSC, and furnished by the 15th day of the month following each quarter. The form requires remittee and remittance details, cannot be modified after submission, and non-filing or late filing may attract a penalty of up to Rs. 1 lakh.
April 3, 2026
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Foreign remittance reporting requires quarterly Form No. 147 filing with linked Form No. 145 details and digital verification.
Form No. 147 requires authorised dealers to furnish a quarterly statement of remittances to non-residents and foreign companies through the e-Filing portal. Filing is due each quarter after obtaining ITDREIN and mapping an authorised person, with Part A covering dealer particulars and Part B covering remitter, remittee and remittance details, including Form No. 145 acknowledgement particulars where applicable. Non-filing within time attracts penalty, and the form is integrated with the Department's risk profiling and verification system.
April 3, 2026
Show AI Summary
Authorised dealer reporting for cross-border remittances requires mandatory quarterly Form No. 147 filing and electronic verification.
Form No. 147 is a mandatory quarterly statement filed by an Authorised Dealer for remittances to a non-resident, other than a company, or to a foreign company. It must be filed only through the e-Filing portal, after generation of ITDREIN and mapping of an authorised person with a valid Digital Signature Certificate for e-verification. The form is due quarterly by the 15th of the month following each quarter and is supported by Form No. 145 details. Late filing may attract penalty.
April 3, 2026
Show AI Summary
Accountant's certificate for foreign remittances requires chargeability review, treaty relief analysis, and e-verification before payment is made.
Form No. 146 is the accountant's certificate for specified foreign remittances to a non-resident other than a company or to a foreign company where the payment or aggregate payments exceed the prescribed threshold and no Assessing Officer certificate has been obtained. It requires the Chartered Accountant to certify chargeability under domestic income-tax provisions and applicable DTAA relief, with supporting details on remitter, remittee, remittance, tax deduction, and verification. The form is filed through the e-filing system, e-verified using DSC, may be withdrawn within seven days, and inaccurate certification exposes the accountant to penalty.
April 3, 2026
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Accountant's certificate for foreign remittances governs taxability checks, digital filing, withdrawal limits, and one-time consumption for Part C.
Form No. 146 is the accountant's certificate required for filing Part C of Form No. 145 where a remittance is chargeable to tax and exceeds the prescribed threshold during the tax year. It is certified by a registered Chartered Accountant with a Digital Signature Certificate and assignment of Form No. 145, Part C, and it examines chargeability under the Income-tax Act and any applicable Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement. The form is filed online or through the offline utility, verified by Digital Signature Certificate, and may be withdrawn within seven days subject to the linked filing status.
April 3, 2026
Show AI Summary
Pre-remittance declaration for foreign payments streamlines TDS compliance, verification, and risk profiling under the income-tax framework.
Form No. 145 is the mandatory pre-remittance declaration for payments to a non-resident not being a company or to a foreign company, intended to capture foreign remittances chargeable to tax in India and support TDS compliance, departmental verification, and risk profiling. It is an event-based form required before remittance, subject to specified exceptions, and is structured into four parts depending on whether the remittance is chargeable to tax, exceeds the prescribed threshold, or is supported by an Assessing Officer certificate, an accountant's certificate in Form No. 146, or no taxability. The guidance also covers filing methods, supporting documents, e-verification, withdrawal, penalties for non-compliance, and recent field-level changes for electronic reconciliation.
April 3, 2026
Show AI Summary
Mandatory foreign remittance declaration governs payments to non-residents, with exemptions, verification rules, and penalty exposure for non-compliance.
Mandatory declaration is required before remitting funds outside India to a non-resident, other than a company, or to a foreign company. The form is filed by the person responsible for the payment, subject to specified exemptions, and must be furnished before the remittance is made. The filing structure depends on whether the remittance is chargeable to tax, the applicable threshold during the tax year, and whether an Assessing Officer certificate or an Accountant's certificate has been obtained. Supporting documents, e-verification, withdrawal rights, and penalty consequences are also specified.
April 3, 2026
Show AI Summary
Tax deducted at source on non-resident payments is reported through Form 144 with quarterly deductee-wise compliance requirements.
Quarterly statement in Form No. 144 is the prescribed TDS return for reporting tax deducted at source on payments other than salary made to non-resident persons, including non-resident Indians and foreign companies. The form covers interest, royalty, technical fees, dividends, and similar cross-border remittances, and is filed by deductors for the relevant tax year. It contains deductor particulars, tax paid details, and a deductee-wise annexure, and requires challans, PAN details, and treaty documents where benefits are claimed.
April 2, 2026
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Egg brand initiative to boost poultry farming, strengthen local production and support rural entrepreneurship in Maharashtra.
Maharashtra is planning to develop a state-specific egg brand and expand poultry farming to strengthen local egg production, reduce dependence on imports from southern states and improve supply chain stability. The initiative is linked to rural entrepreneurship and allied agricultural activity, with the aim of creating a stable market for poultry farmers, improving quality assurance and increasing incomes in rural areas. Financial assistance is being provided under the Mukhyamantri Gramin Pashudhan Udyojakata Yojana for poultry units at two levels, with higher subsidy support for SC and ST beneficiaries.
April 2, 2026
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Parliamentary legislative reform advanced across insolvency, service law, decriminalisation, and transgender rights during the extended Budget session.
Parliament's extended Budget session focused on key legislative measures covering financial business, service law reform, decriminalisation, insolvency reform, state reorganisation, and transgender rights. Bills reported as passed or considered included measures on Central Armed Police Forces, Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation, transgender persons' protection, Jan Vishwas amendments, and the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, with some bills referred for further scrutiny and one proposed amendment on foreign contribution not taken up.
April 2, 2026
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GST revenue growth and tax administration reforms lifted Haryana's SGST collections and expanded the taxpayer base.
Haryana recorded 22 per cent growth in gross State GST revenue in FY26, with post-settlement SGST collections rising to Rs 48,289 crore and its national rank improving from ninth to sixth. The number of registered GST taxpayers increased to 6,30,818, while the growth was linked to GST rate rationalisation reforms and improved tax administration.
April 2, 2026
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GST revenue growth in Bihar remained strong despite rate rationalisation, election slowdown, and IGST settlement deductions.
Bihar's commercial taxes department reported total revenue collections of Rs 43,324 crore for the 2025-26 financial year, with GST collections of Rs 32,801 crore and net GST receipt of Rs 32,077 crore after IGST settlement deduction. The department said the 9.2 per cent GST growth remained significant despite GST rate rationalisation and an election-related slowdown. The state ranked fourth among large states in total GST collection, while petrol collections declined and the Registration Department exceeded its revenue target.
April 2, 2026
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Foreign exchange controls tighten as RBI caps bank rupee positions and restricts derivative rebooking to curb volatility.
Reserve Bank of India measures were reported to have triggered a sharp recovery in the rupee after recent foreign exchange volatility. The action included a cap on the net open position in the Indian rupee for banks, a bar on offering non-deliverable derivative contracts involving the rupee to resident or non-resident users, and a restriction on rebooking cancelled foreign exchange derivative contracts. The measures were described as a response to evolving market conditions and to curb risk in derivative activity.
April 2, 2026
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Foreign exchange counters at airports can now exchange Indian rupee notes for residents and non-residents beyond immigration controls.
Residents, as well as non-residents, may exchange Indian rupee notes at foreign exchange counters in departure halls of international airports beyond the immigration or customs desk. The earlier facility at such counters was limited to buying Indian rupees from non-residents and selling foreign currency to them. The Master Direction on Money Changing Activities is being amended to reflect the expanded exchange scope.
April 2, 2026
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Tax deduction statements for non-resident payments require quarterly electronic filing, with correction statements allowed after processing.
Form No. 144 is the quarterly statement for deduction of tax at source on payments other than salary made to non-residents. It is mandatory for every deductor required to deduct tax on such payments, must be filed electronically within the prescribed quarterly due dates, and cannot be edited after submission. Corrections may be filed after processing by CPC-TDS within two years from the end of the relevant tax year. Successful filing on TRACES generates an Acknowledgment Receipt Number.
April 2, 2026
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LPG supply prioritisation reshapes refinery allocations as propylene is partly redirected to ease petrochemical shortages.
The government has adjusted refinery output directions in response to LPG import disruptions and petrochemical feedstock shortages. After requiring C3 and C4 streams to be used exclusively for LPG production, the Ministry later allowed part of the propylene supply to return to the petrochemical industry. The policy is presented as a balance between domestic LPG supply security and the needs of sectors such as packaging and condom manufacturing, alongside partial restoration and enhancement of commercial LPG allocations for priority consumers.
April 2, 2026
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Tax collected at source reporting through Form 143 streamlines quarterly filing, certificate issuance, and collectee credit tracking.
Quarterly reporting of tax collected at source is filed in Form No. 143 by collectors responsible for collection on specified transactions under the Income-tax Act, 2025. The form requires collector particulars, challan and deposit details, and collectee-wise annexure information on amounts, dates, rates, tax collected and deposited, with quarterly due dates and utility-based electronic filing. Processing may lead to default corrections, issuance of the collectee tax certificate, and reflection of TCS as credit in the collectee's tax record.

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Corp. Laws / SEBI / IBC

Adani wins US court hearing in push to throw out SEC fraud suit

April 8, 2026

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New York, Apr 8 (PTI) A US judge granted a request from billionaire Gautam Adani to schedule a hearing in his effort to dismiss a US Securities and Exchange Commission fraud case, which he says lacks necessary jurisdiction as well as fails on multiple reasons.

This followed lawyers of Adani and his nephew, Sagar filing a plea seeking dismissal of the case.

"The court has received Defendants' letter requesting a pre-motion conference on their anticipated motion to dismiss the Complaint. The court GRANTS that request and DIRECTS the parties" to schedule the pre-motion conference, the Eastern District court of New York said in its order.

In the filing, ​the Adanis' lawyers said there was no credible evidence supporting ​the alleged bribery scheme.

The SEC, they said, lacked necessary jurisdiction over the two men and that the alleged misstatements underpinning the case weren't actionable.

The case brought by SEC in November 2024 alongside a criminal complaint by the US Department of Justice, alleges that the Adanis sought to pay over USD 250 million in bribes to Indian officials to secure solar energy contracts and concealed the scheme from US investors and banks when they raised funds.

The Adani Group has denied all allegations, stating that none of its entities or executives have been charged under the US Foreign Corrupt Practices Act, and that Adani Green Energy - the renewable energy arm that raised the funds - is not a party to the proceedings.

While Gautam Adani chairs the Adani Group, Sagar Adani is executive director at Adani Green Energy.

The lawsuits had been stalled for over a year as the defendants, based in India, were not served notices. The group, which spans green energy, ports, realty, mining and news media, has continued to raise funds from global investors, including BlackRock, since the charges were filed.

The Brooklyn, New York court's decision to grant a hearing allows Adani to argue that the regulator's complaint should be thrown out at an early stage, potentially avoiding a protracted discovery process and trial.

In filings, Adani's legal team has argued that the case lacks sufficient jurisdictional basis and fails to establish actionable claims under US securities laws.

NO US JURISDICTION ------------------------ The Adanis argued that the court lacked personal jurisdiction, saying neither of them had sufficient contacts with the US or direct involvement in the bond offering.

The USD 750-million bond sale was conducted outside the United States under Rule 144A and Regulation S exemptions, with securities sold to non-US underwriters and only later resold in part to qualified institutional buyers, they said.

The plea stated that "in September 2021, Adani Green, which is not a US registrant, conducted a USD 750 million bond offering pursuant to SEC Rule 144A and SEC Regulation S, which are registration exemptions for private resales to qualified institutional buyers (QIBs) and for non-US sales, respectively".

"Adani Green sold all of the notes from the Offering outside the United States, via a Subscription Agreement, to non-US underwriters, who later resold the Notes to QIBs. A fraction of those resales -- in transactions to which Adani Green was not a party -- are alleged to have been made to 'investors in the United States'," it said.

The plea through the lawyers added that the complaint does not allege that Gautam Adani approved the issuance, attended key meetings, or directed any activity at US investors.

Stating that the SEC could not charge the two under the US Foreign Corrupt Practices Act, it instead recast its charges as a securities fraud case.

The filing states that the Adanis dispute that there is any credible evidence supporting the purported bribery scheme.

"Notably, the SEC does not allege that there were any investor losses, and there were none. The bonds have matured, and Adani Green repaid all principal and interest in full to investors in 2024," it added.

EXTRATERRITORIAL REACH CHALLENGED --------------------------------------------- The filing also contends the SEC's case is impermissibly extraterritorial, noting the securities were not listed in the United States, the issuer is Indian, and the alleged misconduct occurred entirely in India.

Citing US Supreme Court precedent, Adanis said the SEC failed to show any "domestic transaction", a requirement for applying US securities laws.

Under the sections invoked, the SEC must plausibly allege a "domestic transaction" and it must plead that "irrevocable liability was incurred or title was transferred within the United States".

The SEC charges against Adanis say nothing about where irrevocable liability was incurred, the plea said, adding that the mere fact, taken as true, that some downstream investors were located in the US is irrelevant to the case.

"The SEC's claims here solely involve Indian Defendants, an Indian issuer, securities not registered with the SEC and not traded on any US exchange, and underlying conduct alleged to have occurred exclusively in India," it said. "This case is thus conclusively beyond the reach of the US securities laws." NO INVESTOR LOSSES ------------------------- The defendants said the SEC does not allege any investor losses, adding that the bonds matured and were fully repaid with interest in 2024.

They also disputed the underlying bribery allegations, saying there is no credible evidence supporting such claims.

"The alleged bribery scheme relates to a solar energy project in India for the provision of renewable power in India. There is no allegation that any US company bid on the project, or that any US customer purchased energy in the project. In fact, there was no such US involvement," the plea said.

'PUFFERY' DEFENCE ---------------------- The filing argues that statements cited by the SEC -- relating to ESG commitments, anti-corruption practices, and corporate reputation -- amount to non-actionable "puffery", or general corporate optimism that investors cannot reasonably rely on.

It further said the SEC failed to link either defendant to specific misleading statements or demonstrate intent to defraud.

The defendants are seeking dismissal of the case in full and said they are prepared to appear for a pre-motion conference if required.

Adanis argued that the court lacks personal jurisdiction, saying neither had sufficient contacts with the US or direct involvement in the bond offering.

"The complaint contains no plausible allegation that Gautam Adani was involved in drafting, reviewing, or approving any document containing any alleged misstatement. Indeed, the SEC does not allege that Gautam Adani even knew these statements were being made," the plea said. "Because there are no allegations tying him to any alleged misstatement, the SEC's claims against Gautam Adani fail as a matter of law." The allegations against Sagar Adani are also deficient. "Even if 'multiple drafts' of the Offering Circular 'were provided to [him]', these allegations do not tie him to specific misstatements, much less show that he had 'ultimate authority' over their content," it said.

The SEC also fails to adequately plead that defendants acted with the requisite intent. "The SEC makes no plausible allegation that Defendants acted with knowledge or recklessness," it said.

The defendants intend to move to dismiss the SEC's complaint by April 30, 2026 and, as part of this process, have on April 7, 2026 submitted a letter with the EDNY (Eastern District New York) judge informing the court that the defendants are prepared to attend a pre-motion conference should the court wish to schedule one.

The filing of this letter is a standard procedural step in the legal process for the handling of such matters in accordance with the procedural rules prescribed by the EDNY judge.

In the letter, the defendants have briefly set out their grounds for dismissal of SEC's complaint, including that (i) the court concerned lacks personal jurisdiction over the defendants and the claims against them, (ii) the SEC's claims are impermissibly extraterritorial, (iii) the alleged misstatements by the defendants are too vague and general for any reasonable investor to rely upon as a guarantee of any concrete fact or outcome, making them inactionable, and (iii) the defendants' lack of involvement in the transaction bars the SEC's claims against them.

Gautam Adani is represented by Sullivan & Cromwell LLP, while Sagar Adani's counsel is Nixon Peabody LLP and Hecker Fink LLP.

SEC's CHARGES AGAINST ADANI ------------------------------------ The SEC has alleged that Gautam Adani, Sagar Adani and others orchestrated a USD 250 million-plus bribery scheme between 2020 and 2024 to secure solar energy contracts in India.

Their plea (termed as letter in US legal system) pointed out that SEC does not allege that there were any investor losses as there were none. The bonds have matured and all interest payments were made on time.

The court lacks personal jurisdiction over defendants and the claims against them should be dismissed under Rule 12(b)(2), the letter cited.

The SEC must plead that defendants had sufficient "minimum contacts" with the US and that the claims against them arose out of those activities, the letter pointed out. With respect to Gautam Adani, the SEC does not come close, the lawyers added.

The claims, according to the lawyers, "involve Indian Defendants, an Indian issuer, securities not registered with the SEC and not traded on US exchanges, and underlying conduct alleged to have occurred exclusively in India".

The SEC has not alleged underwriters who purchased the bonds from AGEL were US institutions as they weren't, or that the subscription agreement underlying the purchases was governed by US law as it wasn't.

"This case is thus conclusively beyond the reach of the US securities laws," the lawyers said.

The SEC has also failed to tie Sagar Adani to a single allegedly false or misleading statement, much less one directed at US investors, the letter added. PTI ANZ ANZ ANU ANU

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