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April 3, 2026
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Immunity from penalty and prosecution through Form 161 requires full payment, no appeal, and online filing.
Form 161 is the prescribed application under section 440(2) of the Income-tax Act, 2025 for seeking immunity from penalty and prosecution after an assessment or reassessment order. It is optional and event-based, must be filed within one month from the end of the month of receipt of the order, and is available only where the taxpayer has paid the full tax and interest demand and has not filed any appeal. The form requires order details, demand details, proof of payment, and PAN, and can be submitted only online through the e-Filing portal.
April 3, 2026
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Refund of wrongly deducted tax through Form 160 requires full transaction details, supporting documents, and timely filing.
Refund of tax deducted at source and deposited to the Central Government is available through Form 160 where tax was not required to be deducted on the relevant income or transaction. The form is filed by the deductor before the Assessing Officer having jurisdiction, within thirty days from payment of tax, and must contain transaction details, deductee details, agreement particulars, and proof of the tax deducted and deposited. Supporting documents and verification enable examination of whether the refund claim is admissible.
April 3, 2026
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Refund of wrongly deducted tax through Form 160 requires proof that no tax was deductible and full TDS disclosure.
Refund of tax deducted at source and paid to the Central Government may be sought through Form 160 where the deductor contends that no tax was deductible on the relevant income or transaction. The form is the prescribed application under the Income-tax law and is to be used only in cases where tax was actually deducted and deposited, but the applicant later claims that the deduction was not required under the Act. It is filed before the TDS Assessing Officer having jurisdiction over the applicant, and the application is supported by the statutory particulars needed to test the claim of non-deductibility.
April 3, 2026
Show AI Summary
Tax Clearance Certificate Form 159 governs clearance for persons leaving India and requires Assessing Officer issuance on Form 158.
Tax Clearance Certificate in Form 159 is issued by the Assessing Officer in response to Form 158 and is prescribed under section 420(5) of the Income-tax Act, 2025 read with Rule 228 of the Income-tax Rules, 2026. The form records the departing person's identity details and travel-linked validity, is issued through ITBA functionality, and has no statutory timeline for issue. Form 158 is the supporting application, and the note states that the taxpayer cannot leave India without the requisite clearance certificate.
April 3, 2026
Show AI Summary
Tax Clearance Certificate governs departure-related compliance and is issued by the Assessing Officer on a Form 158 application.
Form 159 is the Tax Clearance Certificate issued by the Assessing Officer in response to Form 158. It is not filed by the taxpayer, but is issued to the specified taxpayer through the ITBA functionality, subject to the requirements of the Income-tax Act, 2025. No statutory time limit is prescribed for issuance, and the certificate is event-based, depending on the travel requirements of the person leaving India.
April 3, 2026
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Tax clearance certificate requirements for persons leaving India are set out through electronic filing of Form 158.
Form 158 is the application for a Tax Clearance Certificate required from a person directed by the Assessing Officer to obtain clearance before leaving India. It is filed each time the requirement applies, captures travel, identification, business, and passport details, and must be supported by documents such as passport or emergency certificate, PAN, and travel booking records. The form is filed electronically through the income-tax portal and digitally signed; on processing, Form 159 is issued as the Tax Clearance Certificate.
April 3, 2026
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Tax Clearance Certificate filing under Form 158 requires mandatory electronic submission before leaving India.
Form 158 is the mandatory electronic application for a Tax Clearance Certificate for domiciled persons required to obtain clearance before leaving India under the Income-tax Act, 2025. It must be filed each time the person leaves India, through the e-filing portal only. PAN is mandatory, while Aadhaar is not required. Supporting documents include passport or emergency certificate details and travel booking documents. The form cannot be edited after submission, and verification may be completed through prescribed electronic modes.
April 3, 2026
Show AI Summary
Foreign departure undertaking for persons without PAN or taxable income is proposed as a manual compliance form.
Form 157 is a manual undertaking to be furnished by persons domiciled in India leaving India at the time of departure under section 420(4) of the Income-tax Act, 2025 and Rule 228 of the Income-tax Rules, 2026. It applies only to persons without PAN or without income chargeable to tax. The form requires identity and passport details, an undertaking regarding PAN or taxable income status, and particulars of the foreign visit, supported by passport documents or an emergency certificate where no passport is available.
April 3, 2026
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Form 157 certificate filing rules for domiciled persons leaving India without PAN or taxable income
Form 157 is a proposed new income-tax certificate form for persons domiciled in India leaving India who do not have PAN, do not have income chargeable to tax in India, or are not required to obtain PAN. It is mandatory subject to notified exceptions, must be filed each time the person leaves India, and is to be submitted manually before the jurisdictional Assessing Officer with the prescribed identity documents. The form does not require proof of tax payment, Aadhaar is no longer required in the personal details, and corrections may be made before submission or later through the Assessing Officer.
April 3, 2026
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Form 156 filing requirement for Indian residents leaving India is being split into declaration and undertaking formats.
Persons domiciled in India leaving India must furnish Form 156 at the time of departure as an undertaking under section 420(3) of the Income-tax Act, 2025 read with rule 228 of the Income-tax Rules, 2026, subject to notified exceptions. The form is to be filed electronically through the Income-tax Department e-filing portal and requires personal particulars, travel purpose, duration of stay abroad, passport details, and supporting documents such as passport and PAN, or an emergency certificate where no passport is available. The form structure is being rationalised by splitting the existing manual form into Form 156 and Form 157.
April 3, 2026
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Departure undertaking requirement governs Form 156 filing, with PAN-based e-filing and limited verification options for domiciled persons leaving India.
Form 156 is an undertaking to be furnished by persons domiciled in India leaving India at the time of departure, subject to notified exceptions. It applies only where the person has a valid PAN and income chargeable to tax in India, and is filed each time the person leaves India. The form cannot be edited after submission and acknowledgement. Filing is electronic through the income tax e-filing portal, with verification by electronic verification code or digital signature certificate, and requires passport or emergency certificate details, without proof of tax payment or Aadhaar.
April 3, 2026
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No objection certificate for departing persons not domiciled in India issued as tax clearance through departmental process.
Form 155 is the no objection certificate and tax clearance certificate issued by the Assessing Officer to a person not domiciled in India under section 420(1) of the Income-tax Act, 2025, read with Rule 228 of the Income-tax Rules, 2026. It is issued in response to Form 154 filed by a person leaving India, records identity and travel details, and states the validity period of the certificate. The certificate is issued through the departmental ITBA functionality and may need to be shown to Customs or Immigration Officers if required.
April 3, 2026
Show AI Summary
Tax Clearance Certificate for non-domiciled persons is issued on Form 154 applications and may be required for immigration checks.
Form 155 is a Tax Clearance Certificate issued by the prescribed authority in response to Form 154 for a person not domiciled in India. It is not filed by the taxpayer, is issued subject to the conditions in the Act through the ITBA system, and has no prescribed statutory timeline. The certificate is event-based, depends on travel requirements, and may be produced before immigration officers if asked.
April 3, 2026
Show AI Summary
Undertaking for tax clearance on departure from India requires employer or other signatory support and manual filing.
Form 154 is an undertaking required from an employer or other person when a person not domiciled in India is leaving India. It is filed manually under section 420(1) and Rule 228, and is supported by passport or Emergency Certificate details. The form is generally attached to a request for a Tax Clearance Certificate, and processing results in issuance of Form 155.
April 3, 2026
Show AI Summary
Form 154 undertaking governs tax clearance for non-domiciled persons leaving India with India-sourced income.
Form 154 is the prescribed undertaking for a non-domiciled person leaving India with India-sourced income in connection with business, profession or employment. It is signed by the employer or other person concerned, filed offline before the prescribed authority, and is required each time such person departs India. The form supports issuance of a tax clearance certificate, requires a valid PAN, and is accompanied by a passport or emergency certificate, while Aadhaar is not required and proof of tax payment is optional.
April 3, 2026
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Tax recovery notice and certificate require payment within 15 days before recovery proceedings can begin.
Form 153 is the statutory Certificate and Notice of Demand issued by the Tax Recovery Officer for recovery of outstanding tax arrears under the Income-tax Act, 2025, read with the Income-tax Rules, 2026. It is an event-driven recovery instrument issued after default and a recovery certificate, may cover multiple tax years and multiple heads of arrears, and directs the taxpayer to pay within 15 days, failing which recovery proceedings may follow.
April 3, 2026
Show AI Summary
Tax recovery demand notice under Form 153 requires payment of arrears within 15 days before coercive recovery begins.
Form 153 is the statutory Certificate and Notice of Demand issued by the Tax Recovery Officer for unpaid tax arrears, including tax, interest, penalty, fine, or other sums. It requires payment within 15 days and may cover multiple tax years or multiple heads of arrears in one notice. If payment is not made, recovery proceedings may follow, including attachment or sale of property and other enforcement measures, with interest, costs, charges, and expenses also accruing.
April 3, 2026
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Advance tax estimate dispute through Form 152 lets an assessee submit reasons and a revised income estimate.
Form 152 is used to intimate the Assessing Officer under section 407(8) where an assessee considers the estimate of income or advance tax in a notice of demand under section 289, issued pursuant to an order under section 407(2) or section 407(5), to be excessive. The assessee may state the reasons for disputing the estimate and furnish a revised estimate of income subject to advance tax for the relevant tax year. The form includes the demand reference, reasons for dispute, revised head-wise income estimate, computation of advance tax payable, and verification, together with supporting documents where required.
April 3, 2026
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Advance tax estimate disputes can be notified through Form 152 with reasons and a revised income estimate.
Form 152 is the statutory mechanism for intimating the Assessing Officer that a demand for advance tax is excessive and for furnishing a revised estimate of income subject to advance tax. It is optional and may be filed only by a person served with such notice who considers the Assessing Officer's estimate to be higher than the correct estimate for the relevant tax year. The form must be filed before the Assessing Officer who issued the demand and must specify the reasons for disputing the estimate along with a head-wise revised estimate of income.
April 3, 2026
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Advance tax compliance through Form 151 notice of demand, setting estimated liability, instalments, and due dates for payment.
Form 151 is the prescribed notice of demand for requiring payment of advance tax under the Income-tax Act, 2025. It is issued by the Assessing Officer to an assessee liable to pay advance tax under section 407(2) or 407(5), based on available information regarding the assessee's income for the relevant tax year. The notice states the estimated advance tax liability and the instalments and due dates for payment, and is accompanied by a computation of advance tax payable under section 407.

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Corp. Laws / SEBI / IBC

SC does not interfere with order allowing Adani to acquire JAL, asks NCLAT to decide promptly

April 6, 2026

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New Delhi, Apr 6 (PTI) The Supreme Court on Monday declined to stay the implementation of the Adani group's Rs 14,535-crore bid to acquire the debt-ridden Jaiprakash Associates Limited (JAL), but provided a safeguard by restraining the firm's monitoring committee from taking any "major policy decisions" without prior nod of the National Company Law Appellate Tribunal.

A bench of Chief Justice Surya Kant and Justice Joymalya Bagchi asked mining giant Vedanta Ltd, which is opposing the resolution plan, and Adani Enterprises Ltd to raise contentions and counterclaims before the National Company Law Appellate Tribunal (NCLAT), which will start final hearing on the row on April 10.

The top court asked the NCLAT to decide the plea and the counter petition expeditiously by hearing them on an "out of turn basis" on the dispute over the acquisition of JAL by the Adani group.

"In view of the fact that the company appeals are now listed for final hearing at the NCLAT on April 10, 2026, we see no reason to interfere with the impugned order. However, having regard to the nature of the issue, we request the NCLAT to hear the appeal on an out-of-turn basis on the date fixed or immediately on the next working day if arguments do not conclude. Both sides have assured us full cooperation on the date fixed," it ordered.

"Since the appeal is likely to be decided very soon and the interest of the appellant has been adequately protected in the impugned order, there seems to be no necessity to issue any other direction. If the monitoring committee decides to take any major policy decision, they will take leave of the NCLAT," the bench said.

Senior advocate Kapil Sibal, appearing for Vedanta Ltd, said the NCLAT itself says there were issues to be decided and their bid was the highest.

"If this (resolution) plan is implemented, then you see what the creditors get. My number is Rs 17, 926.21 crore.

"They (Adani) are paying 14,000-odd crore. Creditors will get more. Qua net present value and total amount, I am the highest. Creditors are willing to give Jaypee for 3,000 crore less," Sibal said.

The committee of creditors was represented by Solicitor General Tushar Mehta. The Adani group was represented by senior advocate Mukul Rohatgi with a team from the legal firm Karanjawala and Co.

The CJI said the issue was at an interim stage only.

The solicitor general said the difference between the two bids is Rs 500 crore and, moreover, there are several other parameters.

Earlier, Vedanta moved the top court seeking a stay on the National Company Law Tribunal's (NCLT's) order approving Adani Group's Rs 14,535-crore bid to acquire JAL. Vedanta filed its appeal on March 25, a day after the NCLAT refused to stay the implementation of the plan.

The NCLAT on March 24 declined any interim stay over Vedanta's plea against the order passed by the NCLT approving the Adani Group's bid.

It also directed to list the matter on April 10 for the next hearing.

The Vedanta group was in the race to acquire JAL through an insolvency process, but the lenders in November last year approved the resolution plan of Adani Enterprises Ltd. The NCLT approved the Adani Group's bid.

Challenging the NCLT order, the Vedanta group filed two appeals before the NCLAT. In the first, it challenged the validity of the resolution plan, and in the second, it challenged the approval of the plan by the committee of creditors (CoC) and the adjudicating authority -- the NCLT.

In its hearing, the NCLAT said all the parties have agreed that, looking at the nature of the issues raised in the appeal, the matter needs to be decided at an early date.

The NCLAT clarified that the implementation of the plan would be subject to the outcome of the appeals filed by the Anil Agarwal-led Vedanta Group.

On March 17, the NCLT, Allahabad bench, approved Adani's bid to acquire JAL through the insolvency process. This was challenged by Vedanta before the NCLAT, which directed that Adani Enterprises be a party.

During the proceedings of the NCLAT, the counsel representing Vedanta had contended that it was declared the highest bidder by JAL's Committee of Creditors. Vedanta's bid value was Rs 16,726 crore, and Adani Enterprises' bid was Rs 14,535 crore.

In November last year, the CoC approved the resolution plan by business tycoon Gautam Adani to acquire JAL.

Adani Enterprises had outbid Vedanta and Dalmia Bharat to win the bid for JAL. Adani got the maximum 89 per cent votes from creditors, followed by Dalmia Cement (Bharat) and Vedanta Group.

Adani's bid was preferred as it offered around Rs 6,000 crore upfront and faster payments within two years, compared with Vedanta's longer payment timeline of up to five years.

JAL, which has high-quality assets and business interests spanning real estate, cement manufacturing, hospitality, power, engineering and construction, was admitted to the Corporate Insolvency Resolution Process (CIRP) in June 2024 after it defaulted on payments of loans aggregating Rs 57,185 crore.

JAL has major real estate projects like Jaypee Greens in Greater Noida, a part of Jaypee Greens Wishtown in Noida -- both on the outskirts of the national capital -- and the Jaypee International Sports City, located near the upcoming Jewar International Airport.

It has three commercial office spaces in Delhi-NCR, while its hotel division has five properties in the National Capital Region (NCR), Mussoorie and Agra.

JAL has four cement plants in Madhya Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh, and a few leased limestone mines in Madhya Pradesh.

It also has investments in subsidiaries, including Jaiprakash Power Ventures Ltd, Yamuna Expressway Tolling Ltd, Jaypee Infrastructure Development Ltd and several other companies. PTI SJK MNL KSS KSS

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