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    Haryana records highest SGST growth in FY26: Report
    Parliament amends IBC to speed up insolvency cases
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April 1, 2026
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State GST collection growth in Haryana leads the country, driven by stronger compliance, economic activity and taxpayer base expansion.
State GST collection growth in Haryana was reported as the highest among all states in FY26, with post-settlement SGST collection rising to Rs 48,289 crore from Rs 39,743 crore in FY25. The increase of 21.5 per cent exceeded the national average SGST growth of 5.7 per cent. Total GST collection in the State also grew by 8.6 per cent, placing Haryana fifth among states and Union Territories in gross domestic GST collection.
April 1, 2026
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Insolvency resolution framework tightened to speed up admissions, reduce delays, and support rescue of viable businesses.
Parliament has amended the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code to speed up admission and resolution of insolvency cases, reduce backlog, and preserve enterprise value. The changes introduce stricter timelines, greater reliance on information utilities, stronger liquidation oversight, and an enabling framework for group and cross-border insolvency. The bill also replaces the underused fast-track process with a creditor-initiated framework, exempts MSMEs from disqualification under specified provisions, and requires insolvency applications to be admitted within 14 days once default is established.
April 1, 2026
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Tax devolution dispute intensifies as Karnataka alleges unfair GST returns, denied compensation, and shrinking fiscal share.
Karnataka Chief Minister Siddaramaiah alleged that the Union Government's tax devolution and fiscal policy towards Karnataka amounted to tax terrorism or tax plunder, saying the state receives only a small share in return for its tax contribution. He said Karnataka has repeatedly raised concerns about unfair distribution of taxes, cess, surcharge revenues, GST compensation, and central funding, and claimed these issues have weakened the state's finances and increased dependence on borrowing. He also described GST implementation as flawed and unscientific, leading to significant financial losses.
April 1, 2026
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Money laundering probe leads to searches, cash seizure and firearm recovery in Kolkata-linked premises.
Money laundering investigation under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act led to searches at multiple premises in Kolkata linked to an alleged criminal syndicate, including the residence and commercial premises of an accused history-sheeter, a business entity, and associated persons. During the raids, the Enforcement Directorate seized about Rs 1.2 crore cash from a location linked to one associate and recovered a country-made pistol from the accused's premises.
April 1, 2026
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Corporate resolution under insolvency law gains faster admission, stronger creditor oversight, and MSME promoter participation safeguards.
The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code is presented as a framework for corporate resolution and banking-sector improvement through asset recovery, with liquidation remaining a residual measure where resolution fails. The current amendments focus on expeditious admission based on the existence of default, greater reliance on information utilities, statutory timelines, stronger liquidation oversight, and a creditor-initiated insolvency framework with out-of-court initiation, debtor-in-possession structure, and defined timelines. The amendments also enable group and cross-border insolvency and exempt MSMEs from specified disqualifications so that existing promoters may participate in resolution.
April 1, 2026
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Insolvency and bankruptcy reform debate centers on creditor haircuts, tribunal backlog, and concerns over corporate defaulter protection.
The Rajya Sabha debated the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (Amendment) Bill, 2026, amid criticism of repeated amendments, substantial creditor haircuts, alleged favouritism toward large corporate defaulters, and ongoing pendency and infrastructure bottlenecks in insolvency tribunals. Members raised concerns over proposed creditor-initiated insolvency changes, executive rule-making on cross-border insolvency, and the limited effectiveness of MSME resolution mechanisms, while others supported the Code and urged stronger institutional capacity and better use of insolvency funds.
April 1, 2026
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Tax deduction at source relief for branch-based non-residents through Form No. 126 and Assessing Officer certification.
Form No. 126 is an optional self-declaration and treaty-benefit request for a specified non-resident person carrying on business or profession in India through a branch, to obtain an Assessing Officer certificate authorising receipt of specified sums without deduction of tax at source. Eligibility depends on whether the applicant is a banking company or insurer, or another branch-based business or profession, and the form must be filed online before income is received. The certificate is valid for the relevant tax year unless cancelled earlier.
April 1, 2026
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Specified senior citizen declaration governs pension and interest income reporting, bank deduction, and return-filing exemption.
Form No. 125 is the declaration furnished by a specified senior citizen to the specified bank for pension and interest income. It applies to a resident aged seventy-five years or more who has pension income and only interest from the same specified bank, and who gives the prescribed declaration. The form is used by the deductor for reporting and is stated to exempt the taxpayer from return-filing compliance for the relevant tax year. It is filed once each financial year and requires key personal, bank, pension, and tax-regime details.
April 1, 2026
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Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code amendments aim to speed resolution, cut backlog, and strengthen the financial ecosystem.
Amendments to the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code were passed to accelerate insolvency resolution, reduce case backlog, and strengthen the financial ecosystem. The changes focus on shortening the time taken for admission of insolvency resolution applications and improving the efficiency of the resolution framework. The government accepted all recommendations made by the Lok Sabha Select Committee and added one further recommendation from the Ministry of Corporate Affairs.
April 1, 2026
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Specified senior citizen declaration governs return-filing exemption for pension and interest income through a specified bank.
Form No. 125 is the declaration to be furnished by a specified senior citizen in relation to pension income and interest received or receivable through a specified bank. The declaration is confined to pension and interest income and does not extend to other income. Filing the form enables exemption from filing an income-tax return, while the specified bank computes total income and deducts tax accordingly. The form must be submitted once for each tax year, may be filed in paper or electronically, and may be revised or withdrawn if income details change.
April 1, 2026
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Tax deduction at source claims form requires employee details, supporting evidence, and annual disclosure to employer.
Form No. 124 is the employee's statement of particulars of claims for deduction of tax at source under section 392(5)(b) of the Income-tax Act, 2025 read with Rule 205 of the Income-tax Rules, 2026. It is furnished to the current employer so that deductions, exemptions and allowances may be considered for correct tax deduction from salary. The form is filed once every financial year and requires employee details, claim particulars, supporting evidence and a declaration that the particulars are correct and complete.
April 1, 2026
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Employee tax benefit declarations guide salary TDS computation through Form No. 124 and supporting evidence.
Form No. 124 is the employee statement furnished to an employer for consideration of deductions, exemptions, allowances, and other tax benefits while computing taxable salary and TDS liability. It applies where the employee seeks employer recognition of claims relating to house rent allowance, leave travel allowance, interest on housing loan, and investment- or expenditure-based deductions, together with supporting evidence. The form has Part A for employee particulars and Part B for the tax benefits claimed with annexures in support of those claims.
April 1, 2026
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Statistical data dissemination and SDG monitoring strengthened through a centralized dashboard, expert review, and public access tools.
MoSPI maintains a centralized digital mechanism for public access to its statistical publications and has developed the India SDG Dashboard in partnership with the United Nations Resident Coordinator Office as a centralized data platform for monitoring SDG indicators aligned with the National Indicator Framework. The Ministry's publications compile social and environmental statistics for evidence-based planning, policymaking, research, and analysis, while expert committees, the e-Sankhyiki portal, the Advance Release Calendar, and stakeholder consultations are used to improve coverage, dissemination, transparency, and usability.
April 1, 2026
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Perquisites and fringe benefit reporting through Form 123 for employee salary disclosures and tax valuation compliance.
Form No. 123 is the employer-issued statement for reporting the value of perquisites, fringe benefits, amenities and profits in lieu of salary provided to an employee during a financial year. It is issued where salary paid or payable exceeds one lakh and fifty thousand rupees, and it is due by 30 April of the following year. The form captures employer and employee details, valuation of perquisites, tax deducted or paid, and a declaration certifying correctness and completeness.
April 1, 2026
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Digitalisation of official statistics uses AI, machine learning and secure data systems to improve dissemination and access.
Digitalisation and technological upgradation in the Official Statistical System include modules for data collection, processing, analysis and dissemination, with a Data Innovation Lab integrating Artificial Intelligence and Machine Learning. Security by design principles, cyber security guidelines, agency-based compliance monitoring, a Chief Information Security Officer, and security audit with SSL certification support the deployment of applications. These reforms are continuous and are expected to improve data collection, validation, processing and dissemination.
April 1, 2026
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Concessional customs duty relief for eligible SEZ units enables limited DTA sales with value addition and export-linked caps.
A one-time customs relief window allows eligible SEZ manufacturing units to sell manufactured goods in the Domestic Tariff Area at concessional duty rates for a limited period. Eligibility is confined to units that commenced production on or before 31 March 2025, and the goods must have undergone minimum 20% value addition over inputs. DTA sales under the relief are capped at 30% of the highest annual FOB value of exports in any of the three preceding financial years, with certain sensitive sectors excluded and faceless assessment applying to clearances.
April 1, 2026
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Perquisite valuation statement under income tax rules continues to govern employee benefits, tax details, and return compliance.
Form No. 123 is the employer-issued statement of perquisites, fringe benefits or amenities, and profits in lieu of salary for an employee, replacing the earlier Form 12BA. It certifies valuation of monetary and non-monetary perquisites for income-tax return purposes and is generally required where salary exceeds the prescribed threshold. The form contains Part A with employer and employee particulars and Part B with perquisite-wise valuation and salary tax details, including tax deducted at source and remittance particulars.
April 1, 2026
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Form No. 122 consolidates employee salary, perquisite and tax details from multiple employers for correct tax deduction.
Form No. 122 is a consolidated income-tax statement for an employee to furnish salary details from another employer, taxable allowances, perquisites, provident fund accretions, tax deducted, house property loss, other income and tax deducted or collected at source, so the current employer can compute the correct tax liability and deduct tax at source. It is meant for employees who have changed jobs during the same tax year and should be filed as early as possible, but not later than 31 March of the financial year. The form includes employee particulars, salary details, other income details and an annexure covering taxable perquisites and provident fund items.
April 1, 2026
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Income tax declaration form helps salaried employees report multiple-employer income, house property loss, and source-based tax credits.
Form No. 122 is a consolidated declaration furnished by a salaried employee to the employer for reporting salary from another employer, house property loss, other taxable income, and tax deducted or collected at source. It is intended for employees with salary from more than one employer or other income, is beneficial rather than mandatory, and may be submitted offline or through HR/payroll without uploading to the income-tax portal or attaching it to the return of income.
April 1, 2026
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Self-declaration for no TDS on specified income: consolidated Form 121 streamlines eligibility, filing, and payer reporting.
Form No. 121 is the consolidated self-declaration form for receipt of specified incomes without deduction of tax at source under section 393(6) and Rule 211. It replaces earlier Forms 15G and 15H and applies to eligible resident individuals, HUFs, and other specified entities, while excluding companies, firms, and non-residents. The declaration must be furnished before payment or credit, and the payer must verify eligibility, assign a UIN, file a monthly statement, and quote the UIN in the quarterly TDS return. The form only prevents TDS and does not exempt the income from tax.

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Corp. Laws / SEBI / IBC

Unusual extension of Budget session that saw passage of key bills despite Oppn uproar

April 2, 2026

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New Delhi, Apr 2 (PTI) The second half of the Budget session of Parliament that saw the passage of some key legislations despite opposition uproar got an unusual extension with the government reconvening both the houses on April 16.

Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha were adjourned Thursday and will again meet on April 16 for three days for taking up key legislations to implement women's reservation by increasing Lok Sabha seats from the current 543 to 816.

The second half of the budget session that started on March 9 was to end on April 2, but both the houses were not adjourned sine die after the conclusion of business.

Parliamentary Affairs Minister Kiren Rijiju informed Rajya Sabha that some "key legislations" would be taken up during the extended sitting and the houses would not be adjourned indefinitely.

The second part of the session saw the passage of the Finance Bill 2026-27 and the Demands for Grants for various ministries, apart from the Appropriation Bill, thus completing the budgetary exercise in Parliament.

Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman replied to the discussion on the Finance Bill in both the houses and answered queries raised by the members.

The session started in the shadow of the West Asia crisis after US-Israel attacked Iran on February 28, with opposition demanding a discussion on the issue.

However, Prime Minister Narendra Modi, External Affairs Minister S Jaishankar and Petroleum and Natural Gas Minister Hardeep Singh Puri, gave statements on the West Asia conflict and its impact on India. The Opposition created uproar, claiming that their queries were not answered.

The Opposition also staged several protests both inside and outside Parliament on the shortage of oil and LPG, even as the government accused it of trying to spread rumours to create unrest among people.

Both Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha witnessed high productivity during the budget session, with 100 and 79 per cent respectively, according to PRS Legislative Research.

While Lok Sabha spent over 50 per cent time on financial business and 20 per cent on other legislations, Rajya Sabha spent around 35 per cent on financial business and 17 per cent on legislations, besides 50 per cent on non legislations.

The Opposition staged walkout in both houses during passage of crucial bills, claiming that they were dissatisfied with the response of the government.

As many as seven bills were introduced in both the houses, of which five were passed during the second part of the session.

These included The Central Armed Police Forces (General Administration) Bill, 2026, The Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation (Amendment) Bill, 2026, The Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Amendment Bill, 2026, The Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Bill, 2026, and The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (Amendment) Bill, 2025.

There was Opposition uproar on the Central Armed Police Forces (General Administration) Bill, which demanded that the bill be sent to a Parliamentary panel for further scrutiny as it went against a Supreme Court ruling restricting the number of IPS officers in central armed forces.

The legislation seeks to create a unified legal framework governing personnel across different Central Armed Police Forces (CAPFs), replacing the current patchwork of separate service-rule regimes for the five central forces.

The Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation (Amendment) Bill, 2026 saw Parliament gave its nod to Amaravati as the new capital of Andhra Pradesh after amending the original act of 2014.

The Transgender bill sought to amend a law on protection and rights of transgender persons that proposes excluding social orientations from the ambit of the statute, with Rajya Sabha giving its nod, even as opposition members pressed for sending it to a select committee.

The bill also provides for graded punishment based on the gravity of harm inflicted on such people.

The Opposition also created din in both houses on the Transgender Bill, saying the rights of gays and lesbians have not been taken care of by the government and termed the bill as discriminatory.

The Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Bill sought to amend 784 provisions in 79 central laws for decriminalising and rationalising minor offences to further improve business environment and check harassment of people.

The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (Amendment) Bill sought to provide faster resolution of stressed firms and reduce case backlog. Finance Minister Sitharaman emphasised that the intent is not to liquidate companies but to help them run with guardrails.

However, The Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Amendment Bill, 2026 was not taken up by the government during the session, following strong objections from the opposition. The Corporate Laws (Amendment) Bill, 2026, was sent to the Parliamentary Committee for further scrutiny.

The session also saw the suspension of eight opposition MPs being revoked, after Lok Sabha passed a motion in this regard. They were suspended during the first part of the budget session, when they created uproar in Lok Sabha for disallowing Leader of Opposition Rahul Gandhi to speak in the house. PTI TEAM SKC ZMN

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