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April 3, 2026
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Departure undertaking requirement governs Form 156 filing, with PAN-based e-filing and limited verification options for domiciled persons leaving India.
Form 156 is an undertaking to be furnished by persons domiciled in India leaving India at the time of departure, subject to notified exceptions. It applies only where the person has a valid PAN and income chargeable to tax in India, and is filed each time the person leaves India. The form cannot be edited after submission and acknowledgement. Filing is electronic through the income tax e-filing portal, with verification by electronic verification code or digital signature certificate, and requires passport or emergency certificate details, without proof of tax payment or Aadhaar.
April 3, 2026
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No objection certificate for departing persons not domiciled in India issued as tax clearance through departmental process.
Form 155 is the no objection certificate and tax clearance certificate issued by the Assessing Officer to a person not domiciled in India under section 420(1) of the Income-tax Act, 2025, read with Rule 228 of the Income-tax Rules, 2026. It is issued in response to Form 154 filed by a person leaving India, records identity and travel details, and states the validity period of the certificate. The certificate is issued through the departmental ITBA functionality and may need to be shown to Customs or Immigration Officers if required.
April 3, 2026
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Tax Clearance Certificate for non-domiciled persons is issued on Form 154 applications and may be required for immigration checks.
Form 155 is a Tax Clearance Certificate issued by the prescribed authority in response to Form 154 for a person not domiciled in India. It is not filed by the taxpayer, is issued subject to the conditions in the Act through the ITBA system, and has no prescribed statutory timeline. The certificate is event-based, depends on travel requirements, and may be produced before immigration officers if asked.
April 3, 2026
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Undertaking for tax clearance on departure from India requires employer or other signatory support and manual filing.
Form 154 is an undertaking required from an employer or other person when a person not domiciled in India is leaving India. It is filed manually under section 420(1) and Rule 228, and is supported by passport or Emergency Certificate details. The form is generally attached to a request for a Tax Clearance Certificate, and processing results in issuance of Form 155.
April 3, 2026
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Form 154 undertaking governs tax clearance for non-domiciled persons leaving India with India-sourced income.
Form 154 is the prescribed undertaking for a non-domiciled person leaving India with India-sourced income in connection with business, profession or employment. It is signed by the employer or other person concerned, filed offline before the prescribed authority, and is required each time such person departs India. The form supports issuance of a tax clearance certificate, requires a valid PAN, and is accompanied by a passport or emergency certificate, while Aadhaar is not required and proof of tax payment is optional.
April 3, 2026
Show AI Summary
Tax recovery notice and certificate require payment within 15 days before recovery proceedings can begin.
Form 153 is the statutory Certificate and Notice of Demand issued by the Tax Recovery Officer for recovery of outstanding tax arrears under the Income-tax Act, 2025, read with the Income-tax Rules, 2026. It is an event-driven recovery instrument issued after default and a recovery certificate, may cover multiple tax years and multiple heads of arrears, and directs the taxpayer to pay within 15 days, failing which recovery proceedings may follow.
April 3, 2026
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Tax recovery demand notice under Form 153 requires payment of arrears within 15 days before coercive recovery begins.
Form 153 is the statutory Certificate and Notice of Demand issued by the Tax Recovery Officer for unpaid tax arrears, including tax, interest, penalty, fine, or other sums. It requires payment within 15 days and may cover multiple tax years or multiple heads of arrears in one notice. If payment is not made, recovery proceedings may follow, including attachment or sale of property and other enforcement measures, with interest, costs, charges, and expenses also accruing.
April 3, 2026
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Advance tax estimate dispute through Form 152 lets an assessee submit reasons and a revised income estimate.
Form 152 is used to intimate the Assessing Officer under section 407(8) where an assessee considers the estimate of income or advance tax in a notice of demand under section 289, issued pursuant to an order under section 407(2) or section 407(5), to be excessive. The assessee may state the reasons for disputing the estimate and furnish a revised estimate of income subject to advance tax for the relevant tax year. The form includes the demand reference, reasons for dispute, revised head-wise income estimate, computation of advance tax payable, and verification, together with supporting documents where required.
April 3, 2026
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Advance tax estimate disputes can be notified through Form 152 with reasons and a revised income estimate.
Form 152 is the statutory mechanism for intimating the Assessing Officer that a demand for advance tax is excessive and for furnishing a revised estimate of income subject to advance tax. It is optional and may be filed only by a person served with such notice who considers the Assessing Officer's estimate to be higher than the correct estimate for the relevant tax year. The form must be filed before the Assessing Officer who issued the demand and must specify the reasons for disputing the estimate along with a head-wise revised estimate of income.
April 3, 2026
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Advance tax compliance through Form 151 notice of demand, setting estimated liability, instalments, and due dates for payment.
Form 151 is the prescribed notice of demand for requiring payment of advance tax under the Income-tax Act, 2025. It is issued by the Assessing Officer to an assessee liable to pay advance tax under section 407(2) or 407(5), based on available information regarding the assessee's income for the relevant tax year. The notice states the estimated advance tax liability and the instalments and due dates for payment, and is accompanied by a computation of advance tax payable under section 407.
April 3, 2026
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Advance tax notice under Form 151 sets out estimated income, instalments, and payment requirements for assessees.
Form 151 is the prescribed notice of demand for requiring payment of advance tax where an assessee is liable to pay advance tax on estimated income for the relevant tax year. It is issued by the assessing officer on the basis of the officer's computation of estimated income subject to advance tax and the advance tax payable, and it informs the assessee of the demand and the instalments and due dates for payment. The form must also set out the assessee's particulars, the statutory basis, the tax year, and the amount payable.
April 3, 2026
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Tax collection default certificate: Form 150 enables electronic proof that the collectee paid tax and the collector is not treated as in default.
Form No. 150 is the electronic accountant's certificate required where a collector has failed to collect tax at source, but the collectee has included the relevant income in the return and paid the tax due, so that the collector is not treated as an assessee in default under section 398(2). The form is furnished electronically through the prescribed online filing framework, supported by a Chartered Accountant's certification confirming inclusion of income in the collectee's return and proof of tax payment. The process uses TRACES and e-filing portal steps, with prescribed transaction details, supporting records, and digitally signed certification.
April 3, 2026
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Tax at source default regularisation through Form No. 150 requires accountant certification and preserves interest liability.
Form No. 150 provides a mechanism for a collector who failed to collect tax at source to avoid being treated as an assessee in default where the collectee has filed a return, included the relevant amount in income, and paid the tax due. The form relies on an accountant's certificate in Annexure A and applies to both resident and non-resident collectees. Filing begins on the TRACES website and is processed through the e-filing portal, while interest remains payable for the period from the date tax was collectible until the collectee files the return.
April 3, 2026
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Assessee-in-default relief through accountant certification when the payee has disclosed income and paid tax.
Form No. 149 is the accountant's certificate used where tax was not deducted or was deducted short, but the payee has reported the income and paid the tax. It is filed electronically by the deductor through TRACES with Chartered Accountant certification to establish that the deductor is not treated as an assessee-in-default under section 398(2), though interest may still apply until the deductee pays the tax.
April 3, 2026
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Tax deduction default relief through Form 149 allows deductors to regularise failure to deduct tax once deductee tax payment is verified.
Form No. 149 provides a mechanism for a deductor to regularise failure to deduct tax at source where the deductee has already filed a return and paid the tax due. The Accountant's certificate in Annexure A confirms that the deductee filed the return, included the relevant income, and paid the tax. The form may be filed for resident or non-resident deductees, and if accepted the deductor is not treated as an assessee in default, though interest remains payable until the deductee files the return. Filing is initiated through TRACES and the e-filing portal.
April 3, 2026
Show AI Summary
Quarterly remittance reporting by IFSC units requires Form 148 filing for cross-border payments and e-verification.
Form No. 148 requires every IFSC unit making remittance to a non-resident other than a company or to a foreign company to file a quarterly statement through the e-Filing portal, whether the remittance is taxable or not. The form consolidates remittance reporting, prescribes quarterly due dates, and sets out unit details and remittance particulars to be furnished and verified online. Non-compliance within the due date may attract a penalty of up to Rs. 1 lakh, while remittances not chargeable to tax continue to be reported in Form No. 148 instead of Part D of Form No. 145.
April 3, 2026
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Mandatory quarterly remittance reporting by IFSC units requires online filing, DSC verification, and timely compliance.
Form No. 148 is a mandatory quarterly statement for IFSC units making remittances to a non-resident other than a company or to a foreign company. It must be filed online through the e-Filing portal, e-verified by DSC, and furnished by the 15th day of the month following each quarter. The form requires remittee and remittance details, cannot be modified after submission, and non-filing or late filing may attract a penalty of up to Rs. 1 lakh.
April 3, 2026
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Foreign remittance reporting requires quarterly Form No. 147 filing with linked Form No. 145 details and digital verification.
Form No. 147 requires authorised dealers to furnish a quarterly statement of remittances to non-residents and foreign companies through the e-Filing portal. Filing is due each quarter after obtaining ITDREIN and mapping an authorised person, with Part A covering dealer particulars and Part B covering remitter, remittee and remittance details, including Form No. 145 acknowledgement particulars where applicable. Non-filing within time attracts penalty, and the form is integrated with the Department's risk profiling and verification system.
April 3, 2026
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Authorised dealer reporting for cross-border remittances requires mandatory quarterly Form No. 147 filing and electronic verification.
Form No. 147 is a mandatory quarterly statement filed by an Authorised Dealer for remittances to a non-resident, other than a company, or to a foreign company. It must be filed only through the e-Filing portal, after generation of ITDREIN and mapping of an authorised person with a valid Digital Signature Certificate for e-verification. The form is due quarterly by the 15th of the month following each quarter and is supported by Form No. 145 details. Late filing may attract penalty.
April 3, 2026
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Accountant's certificate for foreign remittances requires chargeability review, treaty relief analysis, and e-verification before payment is made.
Form No. 146 is the accountant's certificate for specified foreign remittances to a non-resident other than a company or to a foreign company where the payment or aggregate payments exceed the prescribed threshold and no Assessing Officer certificate has been obtained. It requires the Chartered Accountant to certify chargeability under domestic income-tax provisions and applicable DTAA relief, with supporting details on remitter, remittee, remittance, tax deduction, and verification. The form is filed through the e-filing system, e-verified using DSC, may be withdrawn within seven days, and inaccurate certification exposes the accountant to penalty.

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Corp. Laws / SEBI / IBC

Unusual extension of Budget session that saw passage of key bills despite Oppn uproar

April 2, 2026

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New Delhi, Apr 2 (PTI) The second half of the Budget session of Parliament that saw the passage of some key legislations despite opposition uproar got an unusual extension with the government reconvening both the houses on April 16.

Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha were adjourned Thursday and will again meet on April 16 for three days for taking up key legislations to implement women's reservation by increasing Lok Sabha seats from the current 543 to 816.

The second half of the budget session that started on March 9 was to end on April 2, but both the houses were not adjourned sine die after the conclusion of business.

Parliamentary Affairs Minister Kiren Rijiju informed Rajya Sabha that some "key legislations" would be taken up during the extended sitting and the houses would not be adjourned indefinitely.

The second part of the session saw the passage of the Finance Bill 2026-27 and the Demands for Grants for various ministries, apart from the Appropriation Bill, thus completing the budgetary exercise in Parliament.

Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman replied to the discussion on the Finance Bill in both the houses and answered queries raised by the members.

The session started in the shadow of the West Asia crisis after US-Israel attacked Iran on February 28, with opposition demanding a discussion on the issue.

However, Prime Minister Narendra Modi, External Affairs Minister S Jaishankar and Petroleum and Natural Gas Minister Hardeep Singh Puri, gave statements on the West Asia conflict and its impact on India. The Opposition created uproar, claiming that their queries were not answered.

The Opposition also staged several protests both inside and outside Parliament on the shortage of oil and LPG, even as the government accused it of trying to spread rumours to create unrest among people.

Both Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha witnessed high productivity during the budget session, with 100 and 79 per cent respectively, according to PRS Legislative Research.

While Lok Sabha spent over 50 per cent time on financial business and 20 per cent on other legislations, Rajya Sabha spent around 35 per cent on financial business and 17 per cent on legislations, besides 50 per cent on non legislations.

The Opposition staged walkout in both houses during passage of crucial bills, claiming that they were dissatisfied with the response of the government.

As many as seven bills were introduced in both the houses, of which five were passed during the second part of the session.

These included The Central Armed Police Forces (General Administration) Bill, 2026, The Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation (Amendment) Bill, 2026, The Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Amendment Bill, 2026, The Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Bill, 2026, and The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (Amendment) Bill, 2025.

There was Opposition uproar on the Central Armed Police Forces (General Administration) Bill, which demanded that the bill be sent to a Parliamentary panel for further scrutiny as it went against a Supreme Court ruling restricting the number of IPS officers in central armed forces.

The legislation seeks to create a unified legal framework governing personnel across different Central Armed Police Forces (CAPFs), replacing the current patchwork of separate service-rule regimes for the five central forces.

The Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation (Amendment) Bill, 2026 saw Parliament gave its nod to Amaravati as the new capital of Andhra Pradesh after amending the original act of 2014.

The Transgender bill sought to amend a law on protection and rights of transgender persons that proposes excluding social orientations from the ambit of the statute, with Rajya Sabha giving its nod, even as opposition members pressed for sending it to a select committee.

The bill also provides for graded punishment based on the gravity of harm inflicted on such people.

The Opposition also created din in both houses on the Transgender Bill, saying the rights of gays and lesbians have not been taken care of by the government and termed the bill as discriminatory.

The Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Bill sought to amend 784 provisions in 79 central laws for decriminalising and rationalising minor offences to further improve business environment and check harassment of people.

The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (Amendment) Bill sought to provide faster resolution of stressed firms and reduce case backlog. Finance Minister Sitharaman emphasised that the intent is not to liquidate companies but to help them run with guardrails.

However, The Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Amendment Bill, 2026 was not taken up by the government during the session, following strong objections from the opposition. The Corporate Laws (Amendment) Bill, 2026, was sent to the Parliamentary Committee for further scrutiny.

The session also saw the suspension of eight opposition MPs being revoked, after Lok Sabha passed a motion in this regard. They were suspended during the first part of the budget session, when they created uproar in Lok Sabha for disallowing Leader of Opposition Rahul Gandhi to speak in the house. PTI TEAM SKC ZMN

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Acts Income Tax