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    Haryana records highest SGST growth in FY26: Report
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    Opposition slams govt on insolvency law in Rajya Sabha
    Form No. 126 (Earlier Form No. 15C/15D)- Frequently Asked Questions
    Guidance Note – Form 125
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    Form No. 125 – Frequently Asked Questions (FAQ)
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    Form No. 124 – Frequently Asked Questions (FAQ)
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    Guidance Note – Form 123
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    CBIC introduces one-time relief measure for eligible units in SEZs to sell manufactured goods in Domestic Tariff Area (DTA) at concessional customs du...
    Form No. 123 – Frequently Asked Questions (FAQ)
    Guidance Note – Form 122
    Form No. 122 – Frequently Asked Questions (FAQ)
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April 1, 2026
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GST revenues rise on stronger imports and domestic sales, marking one of the highest monthly collections this fiscal.
GST revenues rose about 9 per cent in March to over two lakh crore rupees, reaching the third highest monthly collection in the 2025-26 fiscal. The increase was supported by higher receipts from imports as well as domestic sales and purchases, reflecting a recovery in tax mop-ups after earlier tax cuts.
April 1, 2026
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State GST collection growth in Haryana leads the country, driven by stronger compliance, economic activity and taxpayer base expansion.
State GST collection growth in Haryana was reported as the highest among all states in FY26, with post-settlement SGST collection rising to Rs 48,289 crore from Rs 39,743 crore in FY25. The increase of 21.5 per cent exceeded the national average SGST growth of 5.7 per cent. Total GST collection in the State also grew by 8.6 per cent, placing Haryana fifth among states and Union Territories in gross domestic GST collection.
April 1, 2026
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Insolvency resolution framework tightened to speed up admissions, reduce delays, and support rescue of viable businesses.
Parliament has amended the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code to speed up admission and resolution of insolvency cases, reduce backlog, and preserve enterprise value. The changes introduce stricter timelines, greater reliance on information utilities, stronger liquidation oversight, and an enabling framework for group and cross-border insolvency. The bill also replaces the underused fast-track process with a creditor-initiated framework, exempts MSMEs from disqualification under specified provisions, and requires insolvency applications to be admitted within 14 days once default is established.
April 1, 2026
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Tax devolution dispute intensifies as Karnataka alleges unfair GST returns, denied compensation, and shrinking fiscal share.
Karnataka Chief Minister Siddaramaiah alleged that the Union Government's tax devolution and fiscal policy towards Karnataka amounted to tax terrorism or tax plunder, saying the state receives only a small share in return for its tax contribution. He said Karnataka has repeatedly raised concerns about unfair distribution of taxes, cess, surcharge revenues, GST compensation, and central funding, and claimed these issues have weakened the state's finances and increased dependence on borrowing. He also described GST implementation as flawed and unscientific, leading to significant financial losses.
April 1, 2026
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Money laundering probe leads to searches, cash seizure and firearm recovery in Kolkata-linked premises.
Money laundering investigation under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act led to searches at multiple premises in Kolkata linked to an alleged criminal syndicate, including the residence and commercial premises of an accused history-sheeter, a business entity, and associated persons. During the raids, the Enforcement Directorate seized about Rs 1.2 crore cash from a location linked to one associate and recovered a country-made pistol from the accused's premises.
April 1, 2026
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Corporate resolution under insolvency law gains faster admission, stronger creditor oversight, and MSME promoter participation safeguards.
The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code is presented as a framework for corporate resolution and banking-sector improvement through asset recovery, with liquidation remaining a residual measure where resolution fails. The current amendments focus on expeditious admission based on the existence of default, greater reliance on information utilities, statutory timelines, stronger liquidation oversight, and a creditor-initiated insolvency framework with out-of-court initiation, debtor-in-possession structure, and defined timelines. The amendments also enable group and cross-border insolvency and exempt MSMEs from specified disqualifications so that existing promoters may participate in resolution.
April 1, 2026
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Insolvency and bankruptcy reform debate centers on creditor haircuts, tribunal backlog, and concerns over corporate defaulter protection.
The Rajya Sabha debated the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (Amendment) Bill, 2026, amid criticism of repeated amendments, substantial creditor haircuts, alleged favouritism toward large corporate defaulters, and ongoing pendency and infrastructure bottlenecks in insolvency tribunals. Members raised concerns over proposed creditor-initiated insolvency changes, executive rule-making on cross-border insolvency, and the limited effectiveness of MSME resolution mechanisms, while others supported the Code and urged stronger institutional capacity and better use of insolvency funds.
April 1, 2026
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Tax deduction at source relief for branch-based non-residents through Form No. 126 and Assessing Officer certification.
Form No. 126 is an optional self-declaration and treaty-benefit request for a specified non-resident person carrying on business or profession in India through a branch, to obtain an Assessing Officer certificate authorising receipt of specified sums without deduction of tax at source. Eligibility depends on whether the applicant is a banking company or insurer, or another branch-based business or profession, and the form must be filed online before income is received. The certificate is valid for the relevant tax year unless cancelled earlier.
April 1, 2026
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Specified senior citizen declaration governs pension and interest income reporting, bank deduction, and return-filing exemption.
Form No. 125 is the declaration furnished by a specified senior citizen to the specified bank for pension and interest income. It applies to a resident aged seventy-five years or more who has pension income and only interest from the same specified bank, and who gives the prescribed declaration. The form is used by the deductor for reporting and is stated to exempt the taxpayer from return-filing compliance for the relevant tax year. It is filed once each financial year and requires key personal, bank, pension, and tax-regime details.
April 1, 2026
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Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code amendments aim to speed resolution, cut backlog, and strengthen the financial ecosystem.
Amendments to the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code were passed to accelerate insolvency resolution, reduce case backlog, and strengthen the financial ecosystem. The changes focus on shortening the time taken for admission of insolvency resolution applications and improving the efficiency of the resolution framework. The government accepted all recommendations made by the Lok Sabha Select Committee and added one further recommendation from the Ministry of Corporate Affairs.
April 1, 2026
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Specified senior citizen declaration governs return-filing exemption for pension and interest income through a specified bank.
Form No. 125 is the declaration to be furnished by a specified senior citizen in relation to pension income and interest received or receivable through a specified bank. The declaration is confined to pension and interest income and does not extend to other income. Filing the form enables exemption from filing an income-tax return, while the specified bank computes total income and deducts tax accordingly. The form must be submitted once for each tax year, may be filed in paper or electronically, and may be revised or withdrawn if income details change.
April 1, 2026
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Tax deduction at source claims form requires employee details, supporting evidence, and annual disclosure to employer.
Form No. 124 is the employee's statement of particulars of claims for deduction of tax at source under section 392(5)(b) of the Income-tax Act, 2025 read with Rule 205 of the Income-tax Rules, 2026. It is furnished to the current employer so that deductions, exemptions and allowances may be considered for correct tax deduction from salary. The form is filed once every financial year and requires employee details, claim particulars, supporting evidence and a declaration that the particulars are correct and complete.
April 1, 2026
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Employee tax benefit declarations guide salary TDS computation through Form No. 124 and supporting evidence.
Form No. 124 is the employee statement furnished to an employer for consideration of deductions, exemptions, allowances, and other tax benefits while computing taxable salary and TDS liability. It applies where the employee seeks employer recognition of claims relating to house rent allowance, leave travel allowance, interest on housing loan, and investment- or expenditure-based deductions, together with supporting evidence. The form has Part A for employee particulars and Part B for the tax benefits claimed with annexures in support of those claims.
April 1, 2026
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Statistical data dissemination and SDG monitoring strengthened through a centralized dashboard, expert review, and public access tools.
MoSPI maintains a centralized digital mechanism for public access to its statistical publications and has developed the India SDG Dashboard in partnership with the United Nations Resident Coordinator Office as a centralized data platform for monitoring SDG indicators aligned with the National Indicator Framework. The Ministry's publications compile social and environmental statistics for evidence-based planning, policymaking, research, and analysis, while expert committees, the e-Sankhyiki portal, the Advance Release Calendar, and stakeholder consultations are used to improve coverage, dissemination, transparency, and usability.
April 1, 2026
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Perquisites and fringe benefit reporting through Form 123 for employee salary disclosures and tax valuation compliance.
Form No. 123 is the employer-issued statement for reporting the value of perquisites, fringe benefits, amenities and profits in lieu of salary provided to an employee during a financial year. It is issued where salary paid or payable exceeds one lakh and fifty thousand rupees, and it is due by 30 April of the following year. The form captures employer and employee details, valuation of perquisites, tax deducted or paid, and a declaration certifying correctness and completeness.
April 1, 2026
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Digitalisation of official statistics uses AI, machine learning and secure data systems to improve dissemination and access.
Digitalisation and technological upgradation in the Official Statistical System include modules for data collection, processing, analysis and dissemination, with a Data Innovation Lab integrating Artificial Intelligence and Machine Learning. Security by design principles, cyber security guidelines, agency-based compliance monitoring, a Chief Information Security Officer, and security audit with SSL certification support the deployment of applications. These reforms are continuous and are expected to improve data collection, validation, processing and dissemination.
April 1, 2026
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Concessional customs duty relief for eligible SEZ units enables limited DTA sales with value addition and export-linked caps.
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April 1, 2026
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Perquisite valuation statement under income tax rules continues to govern employee benefits, tax details, and return compliance.
Form No. 123 is the employer-issued statement of perquisites, fringe benefits or amenities, and profits in lieu of salary for an employee, replacing the earlier Form 12BA. It certifies valuation of monetary and non-monetary perquisites for income-tax return purposes and is generally required where salary exceeds the prescribed threshold. The form contains Part A with employer and employee particulars and Part B with perquisite-wise valuation and salary tax details, including tax deducted at source and remittance particulars.
April 1, 2026
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Form No. 122 consolidates employee salary, perquisite and tax details from multiple employers for correct tax deduction.
Form No. 122 is a consolidated income-tax statement for an employee to furnish salary details from another employer, taxable allowances, perquisites, provident fund accretions, tax deducted, house property loss, other income and tax deducted or collected at source, so the current employer can compute the correct tax liability and deduct tax at source. It is meant for employees who have changed jobs during the same tax year and should be filed as early as possible, but not later than 31 March of the financial year. The form includes employee particulars, salary details, other income details and an annexure covering taxable perquisites and provident fund items.
April 1, 2026
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Income tax declaration form helps salaried employees report multiple-employer income, house property loss, and source-based tax credits.
Form No. 122 is a consolidated declaration furnished by a salaried employee to the employer for reporting salary from another employer, house property loss, other taxable income, and tax deducted or collected at source. It is intended for employees with salary from more than one employer or other income, is beneficial rather than mandatory, and may be submitted offline or through HR/payroll without uploading to the income-tax portal or attaching it to the return of income.

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Guidance Note – Form 123

April 1, 2026

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Form No. 123 (Earlier Form No. 12BA)

Form No. 123: Statement Showing Particulars of Perquisites, Other Fringe Benefits or Amenities and Profit in lieu of Salary with value thereof

Name of form as per I.T. Rules, 1962

12BA

Name of form as per I.T. Rules, 2026

123

Corresponding section of I.T. Act, 1961

192

Corresponding section of I.T. Act, 2025

392(5)(a)

Corresponding Rule of I.T. Rules, 1962

26A

Corresponding Rule of I.T. Rules, 2026

204(2)

Purpose:

Form No. 123 is issued by an employer to an employee, specifying the value of perquisites, fringe benefits, or amenities or Profits in lieu of Salary thereof provided during a financial year.

It is provided under section 392(5)(a) of the Income-tax Act, 2025 read with Rule 204(2) of the Income-tax Rules, 2026.

Who Should Prepare / File:

Form No. 123 is to be issued to an employee by the employer if the amount of salary paid or payable to the employee is more than one lakh and fifty thousand rupees.

Frequency & Due Dates:

Form No. 123 is to be issued to the employee by 30th of April of the following year.

Structure of Form No. 123:

1. Part A:

Details of the employer - Name, Address, PAN and TAN and Contact Details.

Details of the employee - Name, Designation, PAN, Type of employee (Director or Person with substantial interest, in case the employer is a company), Income from Salary other than from perquisites and Contact Details.

2. Part B: Valuation of Perquisites

3. Details of Perquisites Provided

  • Nature of Perquisites
  • Value of perquisite as per rules
  • Amount, if any, recovered from the employee
  • Amount of Perquisite Chargeable to tax

Details of tax:

  • Tax deducted from salary of the employee under section 392(1)
  • Tax paid by employer on behalf of the employee under section 392(2)(a)
  • Total tax paid
  • Date of payment into Government treasury

4. Declaration by Employer: Certification that particulars are true and complete.

Common Changes Made Across Forms:

1. Tax payer (employee)/deductor (employer) details such as Name, Designation, Address, PAN/TAN etc. have been standardized.

2. Assessment / Financial / Previous year or years have been replaced with Tax year or years, wherever appearing in the Form/Annexure.

3. Changes related to Sections, Clauses and Schedules have been aligned as per the Income-tax Act, 2025.

4. Currency symbol “Rs.” has been replaced with “₹”.

Topics

Acts Income Tax