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April 2, 2026
Show AI Summary
Lower or nil tax deduction certificate process under income tax law through electronic Form 128 filing and approval.
Form No. 128 is the electronic application under the Income-tax Act, 2025 for a certificate authorising lower or nil deduction of tax at source and lower collection of tax under section 395(1) and section 395(3). It may be filed by resident or non-resident applicants seeking reduced TDS or TCS on specified income, and requires applicant details, tax liability particulars, income estimates, supporting financial information, and payer/TAN details where applicable. The form is processed electronically, and any approved certificate can be shared with the payer for application of the authorised rate during its validity.
April 2, 2026
Show AI Summary
Lower or nil tax deduction certificate through TRACES requires advance electronic filing, PAN, and supporting documents.
Form No. 128 is the electronic application for a certificate authorising lower or nil deduction of income-tax and lower collection of income-tax under section 395(1) and section 395(3) of the Income-tax Act, 2025. The form is optional, must be filed through the TRACES portal before the relevant transaction, and cannot be processed once the TDS/TCS transaction is completed. It requires PAN, supporting documents, and electronic submission with e-verification.
April 2, 2026
Show AI Summary
Tax collection at source declaration for non-trading use of goods enables buyers to obtain goods without TCS.
Form No. 127 is the declaration required from a buyer to obtain goods without collection of tax at source where the goods are intended for manufacturing, processing, production, or generation of power and are not meant for trading. The buyer must furnish the declaration to the seller at or before the purchase or payment event, and the seller must verify the declaration, upload monthly details to the e-filing portal by the 7th of the following month, and forward the declaration to the tax authority.
April 2, 2026
Show AI Summary
TCS exemption declaration for specified goods requires PAN, timely filing, and seller reporting obligations.
Form No. 127 is a buyer's declaration under section 394(2) of the Income-tax Act, 2025 for obtaining specified goods without collection of tax at source. A resident buyer may furnish the declaration to the seller where the goods are intended for manufacturing, processing, producing articles or things, or generating power, and not for trading. PAN is mandatory, the declaration must be furnished on or before the date of transaction, and once received the seller must report the particulars and include the transactions in the quarterly TCS statement.
April 2, 2026
Show AI Summary
Tax deduction relief for non-resident branch operations through a unified Form No. 126 compliance framework.
Form No. 126 is a unified self-declaration and treaty-benefit request for specified non-residents carrying on business or profession in India through a branch to obtain a certificate for receipt of certain sums without deduction of tax at source. Banking companies and insurers, and other eligible non-resident persons, must satisfy the conditions in Rule 209, including tax compliance, branch-based receipt on own account, and, for non-banking applicants, continuous business in India for five years and prescribed fixed assets. The application is filed electronically, processed by the Assessing Officer, and the certificate remains valid for the relevant tax year unless cancelled earlier.
April 2, 2026
Show AI Summary
Rupee recovery follows RBI cap on banks' net open position amid capital outflows and crude-driven pressure.
Rupee recovered in early trade after the Reserve Bank of India capped banks' net open position in the onshore forward delivery market and required compliance by April 10, 2026. The currency remained under pressure from foreign capital outflows, a stronger dollar, rising crude oil prices, geopolitical volatility, widening trade deficit, declining remittances and sustained foreign portfolio investor selling.
April 2, 2026
Show AI Summary
Customs duty exemption on critical petrochemical imports aims to stabilise supply chains and ease cost pressures.
Full customs duty exemption has been granted on specified critical petrochemical imports as a temporary and targeted measure to protect supply stability amid disruptions in global supply chains caused by the West Asia crisis. The exemption is intended to ensure continued availability of essential petrochemical inputs for domestic industry, reduce cost pressures on downstream sectors, and provide relief to consumers of final products. The exemption remains valid until June 30 and covers Methanol, Anhydrous ammonia, Toluene, Styrene, Dichloromethane, Vinyl chloride monomer, Poly butadiene, Styrene butadiene and Unsaturated polyester resins.
April 2, 2026
Show AI Summary
GST fraud through fake firms and fake invoices exposed alleged illegal input tax credit claims and circular trading.
GST fraud involving fake firms, shell companies, fake invoices and circular trading was detected during a police investigation. The alleged racket used fake Aadhaar and PAN details to unlawfully avail input tax credit and underreported sales in GST returns, causing an estimated loss of around Rs 3 crore to the government exchequer, with the total involvement suspected to be higher. One accused was arrested, while efforts continued to trace other persons involved.
April 1, 2026
Show AI Summary
GST revenues rise on stronger imports and domestic sales, marking one of the highest monthly collections this fiscal.
GST revenues rose about 9 per cent in March to over two lakh crore rupees, reaching the third highest monthly collection in the 2025-26 fiscal. The increase was supported by higher receipts from imports as well as domestic sales and purchases, reflecting a recovery in tax mop-ups after earlier tax cuts.
April 1, 2026
Show AI Summary
State GST collection growth in Haryana leads the country, driven by stronger compliance, economic activity and taxpayer base expansion.
State GST collection growth in Haryana was reported as the highest among all states in FY26, with post-settlement SGST collection rising to Rs 48,289 crore from Rs 39,743 crore in FY25. The increase of 21.5 per cent exceeded the national average SGST growth of 5.7 per cent. Total GST collection in the State also grew by 8.6 per cent, placing Haryana fifth among states and Union Territories in gross domestic GST collection.
April 1, 2026
Show AI Summary
Insolvency resolution framework tightened to speed up admissions, reduce delays, and support rescue of viable businesses.
Parliament has amended the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code to speed up admission and resolution of insolvency cases, reduce backlog, and preserve enterprise value. The changes introduce stricter timelines, greater reliance on information utilities, stronger liquidation oversight, and an enabling framework for group and cross-border insolvency. The bill also replaces the underused fast-track process with a creditor-initiated framework, exempts MSMEs from disqualification under specified provisions, and requires insolvency applications to be admitted within 14 days once default is established.
April 1, 2026
Show AI Summary
Tax devolution dispute intensifies as Karnataka alleges unfair GST returns, denied compensation, and shrinking fiscal share.
Karnataka Chief Minister Siddaramaiah alleged that the Union Government's tax devolution and fiscal policy towards Karnataka amounted to tax terrorism or tax plunder, saying the state receives only a small share in return for its tax contribution. He said Karnataka has repeatedly raised concerns about unfair distribution of taxes, cess, surcharge revenues, GST compensation, and central funding, and claimed these issues have weakened the state's finances and increased dependence on borrowing. He also described GST implementation as flawed and unscientific, leading to significant financial losses.
April 1, 2026
Show AI Summary
Money laundering probe leads to searches, cash seizure and firearm recovery in Kolkata-linked premises.
Money laundering investigation under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act led to searches at multiple premises in Kolkata linked to an alleged criminal syndicate, including the residence and commercial premises of an accused history-sheeter, a business entity, and associated persons. During the raids, the Enforcement Directorate seized about Rs 1.2 crore cash from a location linked to one associate and recovered a country-made pistol from the accused's premises.
April 1, 2026
Show AI Summary
Corporate resolution under insolvency law gains faster admission, stronger creditor oversight, and MSME promoter participation safeguards.
The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code is presented as a framework for corporate resolution and banking-sector improvement through asset recovery, with liquidation remaining a residual measure where resolution fails. The current amendments focus on expeditious admission based on the existence of default, greater reliance on information utilities, statutory timelines, stronger liquidation oversight, and a creditor-initiated insolvency framework with out-of-court initiation, debtor-in-possession structure, and defined timelines. The amendments also enable group and cross-border insolvency and exempt MSMEs from specified disqualifications so that existing promoters may participate in resolution.
April 1, 2026
Show AI Summary
Insolvency and bankruptcy reform debate centers on creditor haircuts, tribunal backlog, and concerns over corporate defaulter protection.
The Rajya Sabha debated the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (Amendment) Bill, 2026, amid criticism of repeated amendments, substantial creditor haircuts, alleged favouritism toward large corporate defaulters, and ongoing pendency and infrastructure bottlenecks in insolvency tribunals. Members raised concerns over proposed creditor-initiated insolvency changes, executive rule-making on cross-border insolvency, and the limited effectiveness of MSME resolution mechanisms, while others supported the Code and urged stronger institutional capacity and better use of insolvency funds.
April 1, 2026
Show AI Summary
Tax deduction at source relief for branch-based non-residents through Form No. 126 and Assessing Officer certification.
Form No. 126 is an optional self-declaration and treaty-benefit request for a specified non-resident person carrying on business or profession in India through a branch, to obtain an Assessing Officer certificate authorising receipt of specified sums without deduction of tax at source. Eligibility depends on whether the applicant is a banking company or insurer, or another branch-based business or profession, and the form must be filed online before income is received. The certificate is valid for the relevant tax year unless cancelled earlier.
April 1, 2026
Show AI Summary
Specified senior citizen declaration governs pension and interest income reporting, bank deduction, and return-filing exemption.
Form No. 125 is the declaration furnished by a specified senior citizen to the specified bank for pension and interest income. It applies to a resident aged seventy-five years or more who has pension income and only interest from the same specified bank, and who gives the prescribed declaration. The form is used by the deductor for reporting and is stated to exempt the taxpayer from return-filing compliance for the relevant tax year. It is filed once each financial year and requires key personal, bank, pension, and tax-regime details.
April 1, 2026
Show AI Summary
Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code amendments aim to speed resolution, cut backlog, and strengthen the financial ecosystem.
Amendments to the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code were passed to accelerate insolvency resolution, reduce case backlog, and strengthen the financial ecosystem. The changes focus on shortening the time taken for admission of insolvency resolution applications and improving the efficiency of the resolution framework. The government accepted all recommendations made by the Lok Sabha Select Committee and added one further recommendation from the Ministry of Corporate Affairs.
April 1, 2026
Show AI Summary
Specified senior citizen declaration governs return-filing exemption for pension and interest income through a specified bank.
Form No. 125 is the declaration to be furnished by a specified senior citizen in relation to pension income and interest received or receivable through a specified bank. The declaration is confined to pension and interest income and does not extend to other income. Filing the form enables exemption from filing an income-tax return, while the specified bank computes total income and deducts tax accordingly. The form must be submitted once for each tax year, may be filed in paper or electronically, and may be revised or withdrawn if income details change.
April 1, 2026
Show AI Summary
Tax deduction at source claims form requires employee details, supporting evidence, and annual disclosure to employer.
Form No. 124 is the employee's statement of particulars of claims for deduction of tax at source under section 392(5)(b) of the Income-tax Act, 2025 read with Rule 205 of the Income-tax Rules, 2026. It is furnished to the current employer so that deductions, exemptions and allowances may be considered for correct tax deduction from salary. The form is filed once every financial year and requires employee details, claim particulars, supporting evidence and a declaration that the particulars are correct and complete.

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FORM NO. 120 – FREQUENTLY ASKED QUESTIONS (FAQS)

April 1, 2026

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FORM NO. 120 – FREQUENTLY ASKED QUESTIONS (FAQS)

Name of form as per I.T. Rules, 1962

Form 34C, 34D, 34DA, 34E & 34EA

Name of form as per I.T. Rules, 2026

Form No. 120

Corresponding section of I.T. Act, 1961

245N to 245W

Corresponding section of I.T. Act, 2025

380 to 389

Corresponding Rule of I.T. Rules, 1962

44E, 44F and 44FA

Corresponding Rule of I.T. Rules, 2026

200 to 202

1. What is Form No. 120?

Ans: Form No. 120 is an application form primarily used by non-resident applicants to seek a determination or ruling from the Board for Advance Rulings (BAR) on questions of law or fact relating to proposed or undertaken transactions by the applicant. These forms facilitate clarity and certainty on tax liability issues in advance, avoiding future disputes and litigations.

2. Who should file Form No. 120 and what is prescribed fee for seeking an Advance Ruling?

Ans: Form No. 120 can be filed by following category of applicants by paying prescribed fee as mentioned against respective category of applicants/transaction value below:

Applicant Category

Basis for Fee Determination

Transaction Value

Application Fee

Non-resident applicants

Aggregate value of transaction(s)

Amount not exceeding Rs. 100 crores.

₹2 lacs

Amount exceeding Rs. 100 Crores but not exceeding Rs. 300 Crores.

₹5 lacs

Amount exceeding Rs. 300 Crores.

₹10 lacs

Resident applicants transacting with non-residents

Aggregate value of transaction(s)

Amount not exceeding Rs. 100 crores.

₹2 lacs

Amount exceeding Rs. 100 Crores but not exceeding Rs. 300 Crores.

₹5 lacs

Amount exceeding Rs. 300 Crores

₹10 lacs

Specified resident applicants (including high-value residents)

Aggregate value of transaction(s)

Amount not exceeding Rs. 100 crores.

₹2 lacs

Amount exceeding Rs. 100 Crores but not exceeding Rs. 300 Crores.

₹5 lacs

Amount exceeding Rs. 300 Crores.

₹10 lacs

Public Sector Companies

In all cases

₹10,000

GAAR applicants

(resident or non-resident)

In all cases

₹10,000

3. When is Form No. 120 required to be filed?

Ans: Form No. 120 is required to be filed only if the applicant/taxpayer intends to seek a determination or ruling from the Board for Advance Rulings (BAR) on questions of law or fact relating to proposed or undertaken transactions by the applicant.

4. What is the time limit for filing Form No. 120?

Ans: There is no time limit for filing Form No. 120. Filing of Form No. 120 purely depends upon the intention of assessee i.e. whether he intends to obtain advance ruling in respect of a transaction already completed or proposed to be completed in future.

5. How many times can Form No. 120 be filed in a year?

Ans: Form No. 120 is transaction/event based and is only filed in case of an applicant intending to obtain advance ruling from the Board of Advance Rulings (BAR). There is no fixed annual frequency; it depends upon the number of transactions in respect of which an applicant wishes to obtain advance ruling. It is quite important to mention here that an applicant cannot file multiple Form No. 120 in respect of a single transaction.

6. What documents are required to file Form No. 120?

Ans: Proof of payment of application fee (challan, bank receipt, etc.).

  • PAN card copy (for residents and non-residents if allotted).
  • Taxpayer Identification Number (TIN) or equivalent for non-residents.
  • Certificate of incorporation/registration (company, trust, partnership, etc.).
  • Address and identity proof of applicant.
  • Proof of being Non-resident.
  • Details and documents regarding business/profession (Memorandum of Association, Partnership/Trust deed, etc.).
  • Question(s) relating to the transaction on which advance ruling is required.
  • Statement of relevant facts having a bearing on the question(s).
  • Statement of interpretation of law or facts.
  • Copies of relevant agreements/arrangements giving rise to transaction, if any.
  • Supporting documents for group structure/beneficial ownership (for non-residents).
  • Details of other parties to arrangement (Identity, PAN, Relation).
  • Document indicating Tax year(s) during which the tax benefit is likely to arise (give year wise break-up).
  • Any relevant assessment orders, appellate orders, or documents if proceedings/arbitrations are pending or decided.
  • Authorization letter/power of attorney if the application is filed by an authorized representative.
  • Any other document as required by the Board or mentioned in instructions relevant to the case.
  • The applicant shall, along with the attachment, provide an index of the documents uploaded with the description and corresponding page numbers.

7. Do I need to attach proof of fee payment?

Ans: Yes. Proof of fee payment (challans/BSR codes) is mandatory for filing of Form No. 120.

8. How and where is the fee paid?

Ans: The fee must be paid online through the Bharat Kosh portal, and the receipt must be attached with the application.

9. If I don’t have PAN and I have never been assessed to tax in India, can I still apply for an advance ruling before BAR?

Ans: Yes. If you do not have a PAN and have never been assessed to tax in India, you can still apply for an advance ruling before the Board for Advance Rulings (BAR). In such cases, the Department will allot a PAN after obtaining the required particulars from you.

10. While filling Part A, can I leave mobile number blank?

Ans: Mobile number ensures faster communication and verification; it is recommended to provide it.

11. What if I don’t upload requisite documents at the time of filing Form No. 120?

Ans: Your application for seeking advance ruling will be processed only when the requisite documents are submitted. If your application is found defective, the Secretary, BAR shall seek an explanation from you as to why the application may not be rejected and direct you to submit any relevant material or information in support of such application within such time as allowed by the BAR.

12. Can I file Form No. 120 after filing an appeal against the order of any Income Tax Authority, the Appellate Tribunal or any court?

Ans: No. Form No. 120 can only be filed in respect of question(s) or transaction(s) on which on which the advance ruling is sought, which is/are not pending before any Income Tax Authority, the Appellate Tribunal or any court.

13. Can Form No. 120 be filed offline?

Ans: No. Henceforth, Form No. 120 can only be submitted online through the Income Tax e-Filing Portal.

14. Can I edit Form No. 120 after submission?

Ans: No. Once Form No. 120 is submitted and acknowledgment is generated, it cannot be edited. Ensure all details are correct before submission.

15. What are common mistakes to avoid?

Ans: Following common mistakes should be avoided: -

  • Incomplete or unsigned forms
  • Missing Annexures or Proof of Fee Payment
  • Inadequate disclosure of Group Structure and Beneficial Ownership
  • Submitting from an unregistered Email ID.

16. Is advance ruling available only before entering into a transaction?

Ans: No. An advance ruling can be sought both before or after undertaking a transaction, as long as the issue is not pending before any income-tax authority, Tribunal, or Court (except for PSUs).

17. What type of questions can I ask in an advance ruling application?

Ans: You may ask questions of law, fact, or mixed questions directly relating to your tax liability, including:

  • DTAA interpretation
  • Permanent Establishment
  • Withholding tax
  • Taxability of services, royalties, fees
  • GAAR applicability

18. Can multiple questions be raised in one application?

Ans: Yes. Multiple questions may be raised, provided they arise from the same transaction/arrangement and are clearly framed.

19. Can advance rulings be sought for proposed or ongoing/completed transactions?

Ans: Yes. Advance rulings may be sought for transactions proposed or already undertaken, provided the question is not pending before any income-tax authority, Tribunal, or Court (subject to PSU relaxation).

20. Can I withdraw my advance ruling application?

Ans: Yes. An application may be withdrawn within 30 days from the date of filing.

21. I want to declare that no question(s) on which advance ruling is sought is pending before any Income Tax Authority, the Appellate Tribunal or any court. Where should this be mentioned?

Ans: This is mandatory part of the Verification Section of Form No. 120.

22. What happens if my application is found defective?

Ans: If the application is defective, the Secretary of the BAR will intimate the defects and grant a reasonable opportunity to rectify them. The application will be treated as filed only after defects are removed.

23. Will my application be rejected automatically if the tax department does not send records?

Ans: If the jurisdictional PCIT/CIT fails to furnish records, the BAR may still proceed to allow or reject the application without waiting for those records.

24. Is the applicant entitled to a hearing before rejection or final disposal?

Ans: Yes. Before rejection or final disposal, the applicant must be given a reasonable opportunity of being heard.

25. Can I modify or reframe questions after filing the application?

Ans: Normally, questions cannot be amended. However, in deserving cases, the BAR may permit modification or reframing of questions before the hearing.

26. What are the conditions which may cause my application to be summarily rejected?

Ans: Under section 384(3) of the Income Tax Act, 2025 certain restrictions have been imposed on the admissibility of the application. The BAR is bound to reject applications which raise the following three categories of questions.

  • The question is pending before any income-tax authority, Tribunal, or Court (except PSU relaxation);
  • It involves determination of fair market value of property; or
  • It relates to a transaction designed primarily for tax avoidance (other than GAAR rulings).

27. What are the legal consequences of a ruling (binding effect, appeal, voidness, limitation)?

Ans:

  • Binding effect: Binding on the applicant and jurisdictional income-tax authorities for the specific transaction.
  • Voidness: Can be declared void ab initio if obtained by fraud/misrepresentation.
  • Appeal: Appeal lies to the jurisdictional High Court within 60 days of communication.
  • Limitation: Pendency period before BAR is excluded while computing limitation for assessment/reassessment.

28. Can BAR ask for additional facts or documents later?

Ans: Yes. BAR may permit or require submission of additional facts, which must be duly verified.

29. Can the advance ruling be appealed?

Ans: Yes. Either the taxpayer or the Department may appeal to the High Court within 60 days of communication.

30. Is the time taken by BAR excluded from limitation periods?

Ans: Yes. The period during which the advance ruling application is pending is excluded while computing limitation periods for assessment.

31. Can an advance ruling be declared void later?

Ans: Yes. If the ruling is obtained by fraud or misrepresentation, BAR may declare it void ab initio.

32. Can the BAR amend or correct its own order?

Ans: Yes. The BAR may rectify mistakes apparent from the record, either on its own motion or on an application by the taxpayer or the Department, after giving an opportunity of being heard.

33. Is an advance ruling binding forever?

Ans: No. The ruling is binding only so long as there is no change in facts or law. Any material change can render the ruling inapplicable.

34. Can Public Sector Companies seek advance rulings despite pendency of proceedings?

Ans: Yes. Public Sector Companies are permitted to seek advance rulings even if proceedings are pending on the same or similar issues before income-tax authorities or appellate forums.

35. Is GAAR determination available to all categories of persons?

Ans: Yes. Any person (resident or non-resident) may seek an advance ruling on whether an arrangement constitutes an impermissible avoidance arrangement under GAAR.

36. What practical benefit does an advance ruling offer in cross-border transactions?

Ans: Advance rulings offer certainty on DTAA interpretation, withholding tax, PE exposure, and income characterization, enabling taxpayers to structure cross-border transactions confidently and compliantly.

37. Who can be an Authorized Representative?

Ans: An applicant’s authorized representative should fulfil the requirements spelt out in section 515(3)(a) of the Income Tax Act, 2025. The expression “authorized representative”, in relation to the PCIT/ CIT, means a person authorized by it in writing to appear, plead and act for it in any proceedings before the BAR.

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Acts Income Tax