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April 1, 2026
Show AI Summary
GST collections rise on strong domestic demand, higher import revenues, and recovering momentum after rate rationalisation.
GST collections increased in the reported month, with gross receipts rising on the strength of both domestic supplies and import-related revenues. After adjustment for refunds, net GST revenues also recorded year-on-year growth, indicating continued buoyancy in tax mobilisation. The trend was linked to a recent GST rate rationalisation, including lower rates on many goods and a simplified slab structure, with collections initially dipping after the tax cut before recovering in later months.
April 1, 2026
Show AI Summary
Quality-controlled masterbatch manufacturing links R&D, regulatory compliance, and application-specific products across export markets.
Masterbatch and compound manufacturing is presented as a quality-controlled, export-oriented activity built on regulatory compliance, R&D support, and structured batch testing for colour consistency, dispersion, mechanical performance, and stability. The product range is described as application-specific, including laser marking masterbatches, flame retardant masterbatches meeting UL 94 ratings, long glass fibre reinforced compounds for metal replacement, and amber colour masterbatches for pharmaceutical packaging that comply with global regulatory requirements.
April 1, 2026
Show AI Summary
Identical question of law declarations under Form 117 keep pending tax disputes aligned with the final higher court decision.
Form 117 is the prescribed declaration by which an assessee states that a question of law in the assessee's pending case is identical to a question already pending before the High Court or Supreme Court in the assessee's own case for another tax year. The form is filed before the Assessing Officer or appellate authority, with supporting documents showing the related pending proceedings. If accepted, the assessee is bound by the final decision on the identical question and the pending order may later be amended to conform to that decision.
April 1, 2026
Show AI Summary
Identical question of law declaration streamlines tax disputes by binding pending cases to the higher court's final decision.
Form 117 is the optional declaration used by an assessee to state that a question of law in the relevant case is identical to a question already pending before the High Court or Supreme Court in the assessee's own case for another assessment year. It may be filed before the Assessing Officer or the appellate authority, requires prescribed particulars and supporting documents, and once admitted binds the assessee to the final decision on that identical question while not stopping the pending proceedings.
April 1, 2026
Show AI Summary
Cross-objections before the Income-tax Appellate Tribunal require timely filing, supporting documents, and structured grounds under the prescribed form.
Form 116 is the prescribed memorandum of cross-objections to the Income-tax Appellate Tribunal, enabling a respondent in an appeal to challenge any part of the order appealed against without filing a separate appeal. It may be filed by a respondent, including an assessee, deductor, or the Income-tax Department, only after an appeal has been filed and notice of that appeal has been received. The form is to be furnished within thirty days, accompanied by relevant orders and supporting documents, and may include grounds for condonation of delay where applicable.
April 1, 2026
Show AI Summary
Cross-objections before the Tribunal must be filed in the prescribed form, with separate grounds, tax effect, and timely notice-based filing.
Form 116 is the prescribed memorandum of cross-objections before the Income-tax Appellate Tribunal in response to an appeal already filed by the opposite party. It is available to a respondent such as an assessee, the Income-tax Department, or a government deductor, and must be filed within 30 days of receipt of notice. The form cannot be filed independently of an existing appeal, and each ground of cross-objection must be numbered, stated separately, and accompanied by the corresponding tax effect.
April 1, 2026
Show AI Summary
Income-tax appeal form governs Tribunal filings, prescribed time limits, supporting documents, and electronic submission requirements.
Form No. 115 is the prescribed appeal form for filing an appeal before the Income-tax Appellate Tribunal against appealable orders of income-tax authorities. It is to be filed by an aggrieved assessee or by the Income-tax Department, within two months from the end of the month in which the order is communicated, and may be accompanied by the relevant orders, grounds, statements, and supporting documents. The form is filed electronically, along with the prescribed fee, and is structured to capture appellant details, respondent details, appeal particulars, disputed amounts, grounds of appeal, and verification.
April 1, 2026
Show AI Summary
Income-tax appeal procedure: Form 115 sets out filing requirements, tax effect details, fee payment, and Tribunal jurisdiction.
Form 115 is the prescribed memorandum of appeal for filing an appeal before the Income-tax Appellate Tribunal against specified orders under the Income-tax Act and Rules. It may be filed by an aggrieved assessee or by the Income-tax Department, and must be presented before the Tribunal having jurisdiction over the case. The form requires particulars of the parties, appeal details, disputed amount, grounds of appeal, fee payment, supporting documents, signature and verification, and it is not revisable after filing.
April 1, 2026
Show AI Summary
Donation certificate form generated after donor reporting and processing of donation particulars under the Income Tax Act, 2025.
Form 114 is an acknowledgement and certificate of donation under the Income Tax Act, 2025, generated for a donor only after due filing and successful processing of Form-113 by a registered non-profit organisation. It records voluntary donations made during the relevant reporting period and contains Part A for donee information and Part B for donor information. The guidance also notes simplification of the form and alignment with the Act, including updated tax-year terminology.
April 1, 2026
Show AI Summary
Donation reporting compliance under Form 113 enables electronic filing, donor acknowledgement, and subsequent income tax claim support.
Form 113 is the electronic statement through which a registered non-profit organisation furnishes particulars of donations received during the tax year. It is filed for the reporting period by 31 May of the following tax year and contains Part A for the organisation's details and Part B for donor and donation particulars. Successful filing and processing support donor claim of the reported donation in a subsequent return of income and generation of Form 114 as the donation certificate or acknowledgement.
April 1, 2026
Show AI Summary
Donation reporting and donor certificates require mandatory electronic filing, enabling verified tax claims for voluntary contributions.
Registered non-profit organisations must electronically furnish the donation statement and issue the corresponding donor certificate within the prescribed reporting cycle. FN 113 records particulars of voluntary donations received during the tax year, while FN 114 is the acknowledgement or certificate for the donor. Filing is mandatory, requires a valid PAN, and must be done on the e-filing portal. A correction statement may be filed after submission, and a revised certificate may be issued if needed. The reporting process supports verification of donation claims and enables the donor to claim the relevant exemption or deduction in the return of income.
April 1, 2026
Show AI Summary
GST collections rise on stronger domestic and import revenues, with net receipts also showing steady year-on-year growth.
Gross Goods and Services Tax (GST) collections rose by 8.8 per cent in March 2026 to over Rs 2 lakh crore, supported by higher tax realisations from domestic sales and imports. Refund issuance increased by 13.8 per cent to Rs 22,074 crore, and net GST revenues stood at about Rs 1.78 lakh crore after adjustment for refunds. For the full 2025-26 fiscal year, gross GST revenue rose 8.3 per cent to over Rs 22.27 lakh crore, while net revenues increased 7.1 per cent to Rs 19.34 lakh crore.
April 1, 2026
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Crypto tax compliance tools expand in India with INR pricing, Schedule VDA reporting, and automated filing support.
India's VDA tax compliance environment requires accurate transaction tracking, timely filing, and Schedule VDA-ready reporting, particularly in light of the flat tax on gains, transaction-level TDS, and the absence of loss offsets. A crypto tax platform has introduced INR-denominated paid plans for Indian users after an initial free rollout, while keeping a free portfolio-tracking option available without tax report downloads. The paid plans are presented as a means of enabling users to obtain filing documents, automate transaction import, and generate India-specific tax reports aligned with the Income Tax framework.
April 1, 2026
Show AI Summary
Manufacturing excellence drives PAN Health's recognition for scale, quality, and growth in disposable personal hygiene products.
PAN Health received the 'Excellence in Manufacturing - Healthcare & Pharmaceuticals' award at the ET Entrepreneur Awards 2026 for its manufacturing scale, quality focus, and contribution to the disposable personal hygiene sector. The company is presented as a fast-growing Indian manufacturer aligned with the Make in India vision, operating a large facility in Rajkot, Gujarat, and producing multiple categories of hygiene products under brands including Little Angel, Liberty, and Everteen.
April 1, 2026
Show AI Summary
Trade barriers and tariff flexibility in India draw fresh US concerns over market access, standards and digital restrictions.
The report says India maintains high applied import duties and wide tariff flexibility, while also using numerous non-tariff barriers such as licensing requirements, Quality Control Orders, customs barriers, testing and certification mandates, and price controls. It further criticises opaque quantitative restrictions, burdensome import licensing for remanufactured goods, discretionary tariff changes, and complex customs exemptions. The report also flags concerns over standards, government procurement, foreign equity limits, digital trade barriers and internet shutdowns affecting market access and commercial operations.
April 1, 2026
Show AI Summary
Net open position cap for banks tightened to curb foreign exchange exposure and reinforce currency risk management.
RBI capped the Net Open Position in Indian rupees for banks at USD 100 million, with compliance required by April 10, 2026. The measure requires banks to reduce currency exposure and align positions with the prescribed limit, reflecting regulatory control over foreign exchange exposure and risk management in bank dealings.
April 1, 2026
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Advance Pricing Agreements boost transfer pricing certainty as safe harbour reforms streamline compliance and strengthen business certainty.
CBDT signed a record number of Advance Pricing Agreements with Indian taxpayers in FY 2025-26, including unilateral and bilateral agreements, taking the cumulative APA count beyond the 1,000-mark since inception. The APA programme is described as a mechanism for strengthening transfer pricing certainty, easing compliance, and improving ease of business. Safe Harbour Rules complement the framework by prescribing fixed margins for specified international transactions, while recent reforms consolidate technology service categories, raise the eligibility threshold, and introduce a more automated process.
April 1, 2026
Show AI Summary
Domestic satellite preference and internet shutdown controls are flagged as trade barriers affecting satellite services and digital commerce.
Preference for domestic satellites in direct-to-home television services, restrictions on direct foreign contracting, and procedural delays in accessing foreign satellite capacity are described as barriers to foreign trade. The report also urges an open skies satellite policy to expand market access. Localised internet shutdowns and increased takedown requests are said to impede the digital economy, while satellite communication providers face security instructions on interception, blocking, routing, registration, disclosure, geo-fencing, data localisation, and phased sourcing of ground infrastructure.
March 31, 2026
Show AI Summary
Disproportionate assets probe leads to recovery of cash, vehicles and property documents from senior officials.
Police action against two senior Bihar government officers for alleged possession of disproportionate assets led to searches at multiple locations and recovery of property documents, cash, luxury items and vehicle records. The Economic Offences Unit registered separate FIRs against Kishanganj SDPO Gautam Kumar and Saharsa DRDA director Vaibhav Kumar after preliminary findings indicated assets allegedly far in excess of their known income, with suspected benami properties and investments traced to family members and associates. Searches yielded documents relating to numerous land parcels, residential property, insurance and financial investments, bank deposits, cash, luxury watches, high-end vehicles and other valuables.
March 31, 2026
Show AI Summary
Free trade agreements and apple imports raise concerns over Himachal orchardists' economic interests and market competitiveness.
Himachal Pradesh's apple sector was discussed in the context of free trade agreements with the European Union, the United States, New Zealand and other countries, with concern that lower import duties on apples could affect the economic interests of local growers. A private resolution urged the central government to frame a policy to safeguard orchardists, and the government accepted the resolution. The debate also noted that Himachal apples must improve in quality to compete with imports and that the state lags behind those markets in quality standards.

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FORM NO. 120 – FREQUENTLY ASKED QUESTIONS (FAQS)

April 1, 2026

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FORM NO. 120 – FREQUENTLY ASKED QUESTIONS (FAQS)

Name of form as per I.T. Rules, 1962

Form 34C, 34D, 34DA, 34E & 34EA

Name of form as per I.T. Rules, 2026

Form No. 120

Corresponding section of I.T. Act, 1961

245N to 245W

Corresponding section of I.T. Act, 2025

380 to 389

Corresponding Rule of I.T. Rules, 1962

44E, 44F and 44FA

Corresponding Rule of I.T. Rules, 2026

200 to 202

1. What is Form No. 120?

Ans: Form No. 120 is an application form primarily used by non-resident applicants to seek a determination or ruling from the Board for Advance Rulings (BAR) on questions of law or fact relating to proposed or undertaken transactions by the applicant. These forms facilitate clarity and certainty on tax liability issues in advance, avoiding future disputes and litigations.

2. Who should file Form No. 120 and what is prescribed fee for seeking an Advance Ruling?

Ans: Form No. 120 can be filed by following category of applicants by paying prescribed fee as mentioned against respective category of applicants/transaction value below:

Applicant Category

Basis for Fee Determination

Transaction Value

Application Fee

Non-resident applicants

Aggregate value of transaction(s)

Amount not exceeding Rs. 100 crores.

₹2 lacs

Amount exceeding Rs. 100 Crores but not exceeding Rs. 300 Crores.

₹5 lacs

Amount exceeding Rs. 300 Crores.

₹10 lacs

Resident applicants transacting with non-residents

Aggregate value of transaction(s)

Amount not exceeding Rs. 100 crores.

₹2 lacs

Amount exceeding Rs. 100 Crores but not exceeding Rs. 300 Crores.

₹5 lacs

Amount exceeding Rs. 300 Crores

₹10 lacs

Specified resident applicants (including high-value residents)

Aggregate value of transaction(s)

Amount not exceeding Rs. 100 crores.

₹2 lacs

Amount exceeding Rs. 100 Crores but not exceeding Rs. 300 Crores.

₹5 lacs

Amount exceeding Rs. 300 Crores.

₹10 lacs

Public Sector Companies

In all cases

₹10,000

GAAR applicants

(resident or non-resident)

In all cases

₹10,000

3. When is Form No. 120 required to be filed?

Ans: Form No. 120 is required to be filed only if the applicant/taxpayer intends to seek a determination or ruling from the Board for Advance Rulings (BAR) on questions of law or fact relating to proposed or undertaken transactions by the applicant.

4. What is the time limit for filing Form No. 120?

Ans: There is no time limit for filing Form No. 120. Filing of Form No. 120 purely depends upon the intention of assessee i.e. whether he intends to obtain advance ruling in respect of a transaction already completed or proposed to be completed in future.

5. How many times can Form No. 120 be filed in a year?

Ans: Form No. 120 is transaction/event based and is only filed in case of an applicant intending to obtain advance ruling from the Board of Advance Rulings (BAR). There is no fixed annual frequency; it depends upon the number of transactions in respect of which an applicant wishes to obtain advance ruling. It is quite important to mention here that an applicant cannot file multiple Form No. 120 in respect of a single transaction.

6. What documents are required to file Form No. 120?

Ans: Proof of payment of application fee (challan, bank receipt, etc.).

  • PAN card copy (for residents and non-residents if allotted).
  • Taxpayer Identification Number (TIN) or equivalent for non-residents.
  • Certificate of incorporation/registration (company, trust, partnership, etc.).
  • Address and identity proof of applicant.
  • Proof of being Non-resident.
  • Details and documents regarding business/profession (Memorandum of Association, Partnership/Trust deed, etc.).
  • Question(s) relating to the transaction on which advance ruling is required.
  • Statement of relevant facts having a bearing on the question(s).
  • Statement of interpretation of law or facts.
  • Copies of relevant agreements/arrangements giving rise to transaction, if any.
  • Supporting documents for group structure/beneficial ownership (for non-residents).
  • Details of other parties to arrangement (Identity, PAN, Relation).
  • Document indicating Tax year(s) during which the tax benefit is likely to arise (give year wise break-up).
  • Any relevant assessment orders, appellate orders, or documents if proceedings/arbitrations are pending or decided.
  • Authorization letter/power of attorney if the application is filed by an authorized representative.
  • Any other document as required by the Board or mentioned in instructions relevant to the case.
  • The applicant shall, along with the attachment, provide an index of the documents uploaded with the description and corresponding page numbers.

7. Do I need to attach proof of fee payment?

Ans: Yes. Proof of fee payment (challans/BSR codes) is mandatory for filing of Form No. 120.

8. How and where is the fee paid?

Ans: The fee must be paid online through the Bharat Kosh portal, and the receipt must be attached with the application.

9. If I don’t have PAN and I have never been assessed to tax in India, can I still apply for an advance ruling before BAR?

Ans: Yes. If you do not have a PAN and have never been assessed to tax in India, you can still apply for an advance ruling before the Board for Advance Rulings (BAR). In such cases, the Department will allot a PAN after obtaining the required particulars from you.

10. While filling Part A, can I leave mobile number blank?

Ans: Mobile number ensures faster communication and verification; it is recommended to provide it.

11. What if I don’t upload requisite documents at the time of filing Form No. 120?

Ans: Your application for seeking advance ruling will be processed only when the requisite documents are submitted. If your application is found defective, the Secretary, BAR shall seek an explanation from you as to why the application may not be rejected and direct you to submit any relevant material or information in support of such application within such time as allowed by the BAR.

12. Can I file Form No. 120 after filing an appeal against the order of any Income Tax Authority, the Appellate Tribunal or any court?

Ans: No. Form No. 120 can only be filed in respect of question(s) or transaction(s) on which on which the advance ruling is sought, which is/are not pending before any Income Tax Authority, the Appellate Tribunal or any court.

13. Can Form No. 120 be filed offline?

Ans: No. Henceforth, Form No. 120 can only be submitted online through the Income Tax e-Filing Portal.

14. Can I edit Form No. 120 after submission?

Ans: No. Once Form No. 120 is submitted and acknowledgment is generated, it cannot be edited. Ensure all details are correct before submission.

15. What are common mistakes to avoid?

Ans: Following common mistakes should be avoided: -

  • Incomplete or unsigned forms
  • Missing Annexures or Proof of Fee Payment
  • Inadequate disclosure of Group Structure and Beneficial Ownership
  • Submitting from an unregistered Email ID.

16. Is advance ruling available only before entering into a transaction?

Ans: No. An advance ruling can be sought both before or after undertaking a transaction, as long as the issue is not pending before any income-tax authority, Tribunal, or Court (except for PSUs).

17. What type of questions can I ask in an advance ruling application?

Ans: You may ask questions of law, fact, or mixed questions directly relating to your tax liability, including:

  • DTAA interpretation
  • Permanent Establishment
  • Withholding tax
  • Taxability of services, royalties, fees
  • GAAR applicability

18. Can multiple questions be raised in one application?

Ans: Yes. Multiple questions may be raised, provided they arise from the same transaction/arrangement and are clearly framed.

19. Can advance rulings be sought for proposed or ongoing/completed transactions?

Ans: Yes. Advance rulings may be sought for transactions proposed or already undertaken, provided the question is not pending before any income-tax authority, Tribunal, or Court (subject to PSU relaxation).

20. Can I withdraw my advance ruling application?

Ans: Yes. An application may be withdrawn within 30 days from the date of filing.

21. I want to declare that no question(s) on which advance ruling is sought is pending before any Income Tax Authority, the Appellate Tribunal or any court. Where should this be mentioned?

Ans: This is mandatory part of the Verification Section of Form No. 120.

22. What happens if my application is found defective?

Ans: If the application is defective, the Secretary of the BAR will intimate the defects and grant a reasonable opportunity to rectify them. The application will be treated as filed only after defects are removed.

23. Will my application be rejected automatically if the tax department does not send records?

Ans: If the jurisdictional PCIT/CIT fails to furnish records, the BAR may still proceed to allow or reject the application without waiting for those records.

24. Is the applicant entitled to a hearing before rejection or final disposal?

Ans: Yes. Before rejection or final disposal, the applicant must be given a reasonable opportunity of being heard.

25. Can I modify or reframe questions after filing the application?

Ans: Normally, questions cannot be amended. However, in deserving cases, the BAR may permit modification or reframing of questions before the hearing.

26. What are the conditions which may cause my application to be summarily rejected?

Ans: Under section 384(3) of the Income Tax Act, 2025 certain restrictions have been imposed on the admissibility of the application. The BAR is bound to reject applications which raise the following three categories of questions.

  • The question is pending before any income-tax authority, Tribunal, or Court (except PSU relaxation);
  • It involves determination of fair market value of property; or
  • It relates to a transaction designed primarily for tax avoidance (other than GAAR rulings).

27. What are the legal consequences of a ruling (binding effect, appeal, voidness, limitation)?

Ans:

  • Binding effect: Binding on the applicant and jurisdictional income-tax authorities for the specific transaction.
  • Voidness: Can be declared void ab initio if obtained by fraud/misrepresentation.
  • Appeal: Appeal lies to the jurisdictional High Court within 60 days of communication.
  • Limitation: Pendency period before BAR is excluded while computing limitation for assessment/reassessment.

28. Can BAR ask for additional facts or documents later?

Ans: Yes. BAR may permit or require submission of additional facts, which must be duly verified.

29. Can the advance ruling be appealed?

Ans: Yes. Either the taxpayer or the Department may appeal to the High Court within 60 days of communication.

30. Is the time taken by BAR excluded from limitation periods?

Ans: Yes. The period during which the advance ruling application is pending is excluded while computing limitation periods for assessment.

31. Can an advance ruling be declared void later?

Ans: Yes. If the ruling is obtained by fraud or misrepresentation, BAR may declare it void ab initio.

32. Can the BAR amend or correct its own order?

Ans: Yes. The BAR may rectify mistakes apparent from the record, either on its own motion or on an application by the taxpayer or the Department, after giving an opportunity of being heard.

33. Is an advance ruling binding forever?

Ans: No. The ruling is binding only so long as there is no change in facts or law. Any material change can render the ruling inapplicable.

34. Can Public Sector Companies seek advance rulings despite pendency of proceedings?

Ans: Yes. Public Sector Companies are permitted to seek advance rulings even if proceedings are pending on the same or similar issues before income-tax authorities or appellate forums.

35. Is GAAR determination available to all categories of persons?

Ans: Yes. Any person (resident or non-resident) may seek an advance ruling on whether an arrangement constitutes an impermissible avoidance arrangement under GAAR.

36. What practical benefit does an advance ruling offer in cross-border transactions?

Ans: Advance rulings offer certainty on DTAA interpretation, withholding tax, PE exposure, and income characterization, enabling taxpayers to structure cross-border transactions confidently and compliantly.

37. Who can be an Authorized Representative?

Ans: An applicant’s authorized representative should fulfil the requirements spelt out in section 515(3)(a) of the Income Tax Act, 2025. The expression “authorized representative”, in relation to the PCIT/ CIT, means a person authorized by it in writing to appear, plead and act for it in any proceedings before the BAR.

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Acts Income Tax