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April 2, 2026
Show AI Summary
Tax collection at source declaration for non-trading use of goods enables buyers to obtain goods without TCS.
Form No. 127 is the declaration required from a buyer to obtain goods without collection of tax at source where the goods are intended for manufacturing, processing, production, or generation of power and are not meant for trading. The buyer must furnish the declaration to the seller at or before the purchase or payment event, and the seller must verify the declaration, upload monthly details to the e-filing portal by the 7th of the following month, and forward the declaration to the tax authority.
April 2, 2026
Show AI Summary
TCS exemption declaration for specified goods requires PAN, timely filing, and seller reporting obligations.
Form No. 127 is a buyer's declaration under section 394(2) of the Income-tax Act, 2025 for obtaining specified goods without collection of tax at source. A resident buyer may furnish the declaration to the seller where the goods are intended for manufacturing, processing, producing articles or things, or generating power, and not for trading. PAN is mandatory, the declaration must be furnished on or before the date of transaction, and once received the seller must report the particulars and include the transactions in the quarterly TCS statement.
April 2, 2026
Show AI Summary
Tax deduction relief for non-resident branch operations through a unified Form No. 126 compliance framework.
Form No. 126 is a unified self-declaration and treaty-benefit request for specified non-residents carrying on business or profession in India through a branch to obtain a certificate for receipt of certain sums without deduction of tax at source. Banking companies and insurers, and other eligible non-resident persons, must satisfy the conditions in Rule 209, including tax compliance, branch-based receipt on own account, and, for non-banking applicants, continuous business in India for five years and prescribed fixed assets. The application is filed electronically, processed by the Assessing Officer, and the certificate remains valid for the relevant tax year unless cancelled earlier.
April 2, 2026
Show AI Summary
Rupee recovery follows RBI cap on banks' net open position amid capital outflows and crude-driven pressure.
Rupee recovered in early trade after the Reserve Bank of India capped banks' net open position in the onshore forward delivery market and required compliance by April 10, 2026. The currency remained under pressure from foreign capital outflows, a stronger dollar, rising crude oil prices, geopolitical volatility, widening trade deficit, declining remittances and sustained foreign portfolio investor selling.
April 2, 2026
Show AI Summary
Customs duty exemption on critical petrochemical imports aims to stabilise supply chains and ease cost pressures.
Full customs duty exemption has been granted on specified critical petrochemical imports as a temporary and targeted measure to protect supply stability amid disruptions in global supply chains caused by the West Asia crisis. The exemption is intended to ensure continued availability of essential petrochemical inputs for domestic industry, reduce cost pressures on downstream sectors, and provide relief to consumers of final products. The exemption remains valid until June 30 and covers Methanol, Anhydrous ammonia, Toluene, Styrene, Dichloromethane, Vinyl chloride monomer, Poly butadiene, Styrene butadiene and Unsaturated polyester resins.
April 2, 2026
Show AI Summary
GST fraud through fake firms and fake invoices exposed alleged illegal input tax credit claims and circular trading.
GST fraud involving fake firms, shell companies, fake invoices and circular trading was detected during a police investigation. The alleged racket used fake Aadhaar and PAN details to unlawfully avail input tax credit and underreported sales in GST returns, causing an estimated loss of around Rs 3 crore to the government exchequer, with the total involvement suspected to be higher. One accused was arrested, while efforts continued to trace other persons involved.
April 1, 2026
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GST revenues rise on stronger imports and domestic sales, marking one of the highest monthly collections this fiscal.
GST revenues rose about 9 per cent in March to over two lakh crore rupees, reaching the third highest monthly collection in the 2025-26 fiscal. The increase was supported by higher receipts from imports as well as domestic sales and purchases, reflecting a recovery in tax mop-ups after earlier tax cuts.
April 1, 2026
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State GST collection growth in Haryana leads the country, driven by stronger compliance, economic activity and taxpayer base expansion.
State GST collection growth in Haryana was reported as the highest among all states in FY26, with post-settlement SGST collection rising to Rs 48,289 crore from Rs 39,743 crore in FY25. The increase of 21.5 per cent exceeded the national average SGST growth of 5.7 per cent. Total GST collection in the State also grew by 8.6 per cent, placing Haryana fifth among states and Union Territories in gross domestic GST collection.
April 1, 2026
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Insolvency resolution framework tightened to speed up admissions, reduce delays, and support rescue of viable businesses.
Parliament has amended the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code to speed up admission and resolution of insolvency cases, reduce backlog, and preserve enterprise value. The changes introduce stricter timelines, greater reliance on information utilities, stronger liquidation oversight, and an enabling framework for group and cross-border insolvency. The bill also replaces the underused fast-track process with a creditor-initiated framework, exempts MSMEs from disqualification under specified provisions, and requires insolvency applications to be admitted within 14 days once default is established.
April 1, 2026
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Tax devolution dispute intensifies as Karnataka alleges unfair GST returns, denied compensation, and shrinking fiscal share.
Karnataka Chief Minister Siddaramaiah alleged that the Union Government's tax devolution and fiscal policy towards Karnataka amounted to tax terrorism or tax plunder, saying the state receives only a small share in return for its tax contribution. He said Karnataka has repeatedly raised concerns about unfair distribution of taxes, cess, surcharge revenues, GST compensation, and central funding, and claimed these issues have weakened the state's finances and increased dependence on borrowing. He also described GST implementation as flawed and unscientific, leading to significant financial losses.
April 1, 2026
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Money laundering probe leads to searches, cash seizure and firearm recovery in Kolkata-linked premises.
Money laundering investigation under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act led to searches at multiple premises in Kolkata linked to an alleged criminal syndicate, including the residence and commercial premises of an accused history-sheeter, a business entity, and associated persons. During the raids, the Enforcement Directorate seized about Rs 1.2 crore cash from a location linked to one associate and recovered a country-made pistol from the accused's premises.
April 1, 2026
Show AI Summary
Corporate resolution under insolvency law gains faster admission, stronger creditor oversight, and MSME promoter participation safeguards.
The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code is presented as a framework for corporate resolution and banking-sector improvement through asset recovery, with liquidation remaining a residual measure where resolution fails. The current amendments focus on expeditious admission based on the existence of default, greater reliance on information utilities, statutory timelines, stronger liquidation oversight, and a creditor-initiated insolvency framework with out-of-court initiation, debtor-in-possession structure, and defined timelines. The amendments also enable group and cross-border insolvency and exempt MSMEs from specified disqualifications so that existing promoters may participate in resolution.
April 1, 2026
Show AI Summary
Insolvency and bankruptcy reform debate centers on creditor haircuts, tribunal backlog, and concerns over corporate defaulter protection.
The Rajya Sabha debated the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (Amendment) Bill, 2026, amid criticism of repeated amendments, substantial creditor haircuts, alleged favouritism toward large corporate defaulters, and ongoing pendency and infrastructure bottlenecks in insolvency tribunals. Members raised concerns over proposed creditor-initiated insolvency changes, executive rule-making on cross-border insolvency, and the limited effectiveness of MSME resolution mechanisms, while others supported the Code and urged stronger institutional capacity and better use of insolvency funds.
April 1, 2026
Show AI Summary
Tax deduction at source relief for branch-based non-residents through Form No. 126 and Assessing Officer certification.
Form No. 126 is an optional self-declaration and treaty-benefit request for a specified non-resident person carrying on business or profession in India through a branch, to obtain an Assessing Officer certificate authorising receipt of specified sums without deduction of tax at source. Eligibility depends on whether the applicant is a banking company or insurer, or another branch-based business or profession, and the form must be filed online before income is received. The certificate is valid for the relevant tax year unless cancelled earlier.
April 1, 2026
Show AI Summary
Specified senior citizen declaration governs pension and interest income reporting, bank deduction, and return-filing exemption.
Form No. 125 is the declaration furnished by a specified senior citizen to the specified bank for pension and interest income. It applies to a resident aged seventy-five years or more who has pension income and only interest from the same specified bank, and who gives the prescribed declaration. The form is used by the deductor for reporting and is stated to exempt the taxpayer from return-filing compliance for the relevant tax year. It is filed once each financial year and requires key personal, bank, pension, and tax-regime details.
April 1, 2026
Show AI Summary
Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code amendments aim to speed resolution, cut backlog, and strengthen the financial ecosystem.
Amendments to the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code were passed to accelerate insolvency resolution, reduce case backlog, and strengthen the financial ecosystem. The changes focus on shortening the time taken for admission of insolvency resolution applications and improving the efficiency of the resolution framework. The government accepted all recommendations made by the Lok Sabha Select Committee and added one further recommendation from the Ministry of Corporate Affairs.
April 1, 2026
Show AI Summary
Specified senior citizen declaration governs return-filing exemption for pension and interest income through a specified bank.
Form No. 125 is the declaration to be furnished by a specified senior citizen in relation to pension income and interest received or receivable through a specified bank. The declaration is confined to pension and interest income and does not extend to other income. Filing the form enables exemption from filing an income-tax return, while the specified bank computes total income and deducts tax accordingly. The form must be submitted once for each tax year, may be filed in paper or electronically, and may be revised or withdrawn if income details change.
April 1, 2026
Show AI Summary
Tax deduction at source claims form requires employee details, supporting evidence, and annual disclosure to employer.
Form No. 124 is the employee's statement of particulars of claims for deduction of tax at source under section 392(5)(b) of the Income-tax Act, 2025 read with Rule 205 of the Income-tax Rules, 2026. It is furnished to the current employer so that deductions, exemptions and allowances may be considered for correct tax deduction from salary. The form is filed once every financial year and requires employee details, claim particulars, supporting evidence and a declaration that the particulars are correct and complete.
April 1, 2026
Show AI Summary
Employee tax benefit declarations guide salary TDS computation through Form No. 124 and supporting evidence.
Form No. 124 is the employee statement furnished to an employer for consideration of deductions, exemptions, allowances, and other tax benefits while computing taxable salary and TDS liability. It applies where the employee seeks employer recognition of claims relating to house rent allowance, leave travel allowance, interest on housing loan, and investment- or expenditure-based deductions, together with supporting evidence. The form has Part A for employee particulars and Part B for the tax benefits claimed with annexures in support of those claims.
April 1, 2026
Show AI Summary
Statistical data dissemination and SDG monitoring strengthened through a centralized dashboard, expert review, and public access tools.
MoSPI maintains a centralized digital mechanism for public access to its statistical publications and has developed the India SDG Dashboard in partnership with the United Nations Resident Coordinator Office as a centralized data platform for monitoring SDG indicators aligned with the National Indicator Framework. The Ministry's publications compile social and environmental statistics for evidence-based planning, policymaking, research, and analysis, while expert committees, the e-Sankhyiki portal, the Advance Release Calendar, and stakeholder consultations are used to improve coverage, dissemination, transparency, and usability.

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Form 119 – Frequently Asked Questions

April 1, 2026

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Form 119 – Frequently Asked Questions

Application to the Dispute Resolution Committee under section 379 of the Act

Name of form as per I.T. Rules, 1962

Form 34BC

Name of form as per I.T. Rules, 2026

119

Corresponding section of I.T. Act, 1961

245MA

Corresponding section of I.T. Act, 2025

379

Corresponding Rule of I.T. Rules, 1962

44DAB

Corresponding Rule of I.T. Rules, 2026

197

1. What is Form 119?

Ans:

Form 119 is an electronic form prescribed for making an application to the Dispute Resolution Committee (DRC) under section 379 of the Income-tax Act, 2025. It enables an eligible assessee to seek resolution of disputes arising from a specified order passed by an Income-tax Authority, in accordance with the dispute resolution mechanism provided under the Act.

2. Who can file Form 119?

Ans:

Form 119 may be filed by an eligible assessee (individual or any other person) who:

  • Is aggrieved by a specified order passed by an Income-tax Authority, and
  • Is eligible to approach the Dispute Resolution Committee under section 379, and
  • Satisfies the prescribed conditions regarding payment of tax on returned income and other statutory requirements.

3. Is filing of Form 119 mandatory?

Ans:

No. Filing of Form 119 is optional.

It is required only where the assessee chooses to seek dispute resolution through the Dispute Resolution Committee instead of pursuing remedies available under the regular appellate mechanism.

4. What is meant by a “specified order” for the purpose of Form 119?

Ans:

A “specified order” refers to an order passed by an Income-tax Authority under the relevant provisions of the Act, against which an application can be made to the Dispute Resolution Committee as provided under section 379(4).

5. Can Form 119 be filed for more than one tax year?

Ans:

Yes. Separate Form 119 applications must be filed for each tax year and for each specified order, subject to eligibility and other conditions prescribed under the Act.

6. What details are required in Part A of Form 119?

Ans:

Part A requires personal and identification details of the applicant, including:

  • Name of the applicant
  • Complete address
  • PAN
  • TAN (if applicable)
  • Valid mobile number and email ID for communication

The name and address must be filled strictly in accordance with the instructions and notes provided in the form.

7. What information is to be furnished in Part B of Form 119?

Ans:

Part B captures details of the order against which the application is filed, such as:

  • Tax year involved
  • Section and sub-section under which the order is passed
  • Date of the order
  • Date of service of the order or notice of demand
  • Name and designation of the Income-tax Authority passing the order

8. What is required to be reported in Part C (Application Details)?

Ans:

Part C requires quantitative details relating to the dispute, including:

  • Amount of income assessed
  • Total additions made or loss disallowed
  • Amount of addition or disallowance disputed
  • Amount of disputed demand (or NIL in case of loss)

All amounts are to be reported in Indian Rupees.

9. What is the purpose of Part D relating to pending applications?

Ans:

Part D seeks disclosure of whether any other application is pending before any Dispute Resolution Committee for another tax year in the case of the assessee. If yes, detailed particulars of such pending application must be furnished to ensure transparency and coordinated resolution.

10. Is payment of tax a pre-condition for filing Form 119?

Ans:

Yes. Where a return of income has been filed, tax due on the income returned must be paid in full, as required under the provisions governing the Dispute Resolution Committee.

Details of the return of income and taxes paid are to be furnished in Part E.

11. What details of Return of Income are required to be furnished?

Ans:

Where applicable, the following details are required:

  • Acknowledgement number of the return
  • Date of filing of the return
  • Total income as per return
  • Total tax due and total tax paid

12. What is required to be submitted in Part F of Form 119?

Ans:

Part F consists of the Statement of Facts, Grounds of Application, and documentary evidence, which must be furnished as annexures, namely:

  • Facts of the case
  • List of documentary evidence relied upon
  • List of additional documentary evidence, if any
  • Grounds of application, clearly and concisely stated

These must be filed in the prescribed annexure format.

13. Can additional evidence be filed along with Form 119?

Ans:

Yes. Additional documentary evidence may be filed, provided:

  • Such evidence is clearly listed in the relevant annexure, and
  • A declaration is made in the verification confirming that no evidence other than those disclosed has been filed.

14. How is application fee paid and reported in Form 119?

Ans:

Details of application fee paid are to be furnished in Part G, including:

  • BSR Code
  • Date of payment
  • Challan serial number
  • Amount paid

15. Can Form 119 be filed offline?

Ans:

No. Form 119 is required to be filed electronically through the Income-tax e-filing portal.

16. Can Form 119 be revised after submission?

Ans:

No. Once Form 119 is submitted and verified, it cannot be revised. Applicants are advised to carefully verify all details before submission.

17. Who can verify Form 119?

Ans:

Form 119 must be verified by the applicant or by an authorised person who is competent to do so, in accordance with the verification requirements specified in the form.

18. Why is Form 119 important?

Ans:

Form 119 facilitates:

  • Speedy and structured dispute resolution
  • Reduction of litigation
  • Transparent disclosure of disputed issues
  • Effective functioning of the Dispute Resolution Committee mechanism  

Topics

Acts Income Tax