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March 28, 2026
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Decriminalisation and proportionate regulation reshape compliance through civil penalties, graded enforcement, and faster adjudication.
The Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Bill, 2026 proposes amendment of 784 provisions across 79 Central Acts and decriminalisation of 717 provisions to promote Ease of Doing Business, together with 67 amendments to facilitate Ease of Living. It shifts minor, technical, or procedural defaults from criminal penalties to civil and administrative enforcement, including warnings, monetary penalties, graded enforcement, and rationalisation of fines in proportion to the offence. The Bill also provides for Adjudicating Officers and Appellate Authorities to support time-bound enforcement and natural justice.
March 28, 2026
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Consensus-based WTO reform: India urges inclusive, member-driven negotiations, development concerns, and safeguards against multilateral fragmentation.
Consensus-based decision-making was emphasised as central to the WTO's legitimacy, with India calling for reform discussions to address structural asymmetries inherited from the Uruguay Round and to preserve the sovereign right of Members not to accept rules they do not agree to. India supported a careful stock-take of the current impasse, with reform deliberations conducted in a transparent, inclusive and Member-driven manner, and warned that fragmentation within the institutional framework would weaken the multilateral trading system.
March 28, 2026
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Duty Deferment Scheme for manufacturer importers eases liquidity, speeds clearance, and supports compliant monthly duty payment.
Duty Deferment Scheme for Eligible Manufacturer Importers permits deferred payment of import duties for qualifying manufacturer importers, with duties payable monthly after goods are cleared. The scheme is framed as a trade facilitation measure to improve liquidity, support faster cargo clearance, reduce dwell time, strengthen import planning and inventory management, and enhance supply chain efficiency and payment discipline. Eligibility depends on a valid importer-exporter code, prescribed EXIM filing history, GST compliance, financial solvency, and a clean compliance record. Applications are submitted online through the AEO portal without physical interface.
March 28, 2026
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Pass-through income reporting through Form 73 enables securitisation trust investors to classify income correctly for tax returns.
Form 73 is the investor-wise statement furnished by a Securitisation Trust under the pass-through income framework. It is auto-generated from Form 72 and records income paid, credited or deemed to be credited during the tax year so that investors can report the income under the correct heads in their return. The form is not separately filed with the department; it is downloaded, verified and furnished to each investor by the trust. It includes trust particulars, investor details, head-wise income breakup, verification by the authorised person, and the date of payment or credit.
March 28, 2026
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Securitisation trust income reporting through Form 73 enables investor disclosure, income classification, and pass-through compliance.
Form 73 is the prescribed statement of income distributed by a securitisation trust to each investor under section 221. It is not filed separately, but generated as a child form from the parent Form 72 by the person responsible to pay on behalf of the securitisation trust, and then furnished to each investor. The form is auto-generated through the e-filing portal from the data filed in Form 72, with no separate documents required and no offline filing facility.
March 28, 2026
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Pass-through taxation for securitisation trusts drives Form 72 reporting, investor statements, and income classification compliance.
Form 72 is the annual consolidated statement required from every securitisation trust for reporting income paid or credited to investors under section 221 of the Income Tax Act, 2025, and is filed electronically under rule 145. The form captures trust particulars, registration details, total income by head, investor-wise income distribution, authorised-person verification, and accountant certification. It is due by 15 June of the financial year following the tax year, and supports the pass-through taxation mechanism by enabling Form 73 statements to be auto-generated for investors after filing.
March 28, 2026
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Foreign tax credit compliance through Form No. 45 requires electronic intimation after dispute settlement and supporting undertakings.
Form No. 45 is a new electronic intimation form for a resident assessee to report settlement of a dispute relating to foreign tax for which credit was not earlier claimed, where foreign tax credit is now intended to be claimed. Filing is mandatory in the specified circumstances, must be made through the Income-tax e-filing portal, and is due within six months from the end of the month in which the dispute is finally settled after Form No. 44 has been filed. The form requires supporting evidence, undertakings, and accountant verification in cases where Form No. 44 required such verification.
March 28, 2026
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Foreign tax credit intimation form streamlines settlement-based claims for previously unclaimed credit under the filing rules.
Form No. 45 provides a structured electronic intimation for settlement of dispute regarding foreign tax for which credit was not claimed. It applies to a resident assessee with foreign income who seeks foreign tax credit after the dispute is finally settled, where Form No. 44 had already been filed for the relevant tax year. The form must be filed within six months from the end of the month in which the dispute is finally settled, with supporting documents, and must be verified by an accountant where Form No. 44 required accountant verification.
March 28, 2026
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Securitization trust income reporting through Form 72, with online filing, prescribed records, and pass-through taxation compliance.
Form 72 is the statement of income paid or credited by a securitization trust to its investors. It must be furnished to the Income-tax Department online by the person responsible for paying or crediting income on behalf of the trust, by 15 June of the financial year following the tax year in which the income was paid or credited. Filing requires the trust's books, audited financial statements, income details from securitised assets, investor particulars, distribution records, and the applicable registration certificate.
March 28, 2026
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Audit report compliance for offshore banking unit investment divisions governs exemption and concessional taxation claims under income tax rules.
Form 71 is the mandatory audit report for a registered investment division of an offshore banking unit where a specified fund seeks exemption under section 11 read with Schedule VI or concessional taxation under section 210(3) of the ITA 2025. It certifies fulfilment of the prescribed eligibility conditions, including separate books, audit by an accountant, relevant documentation, and filing by the specified date. The form is filed electronically with supporting records and, when validly furnished, supports the claim to exemption or concessional rates.
March 28, 2026
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Tax exemption compliance for specified funds depends on timely electronic filing of Form 71 and accountant verification.
Form 71 is the prescribed audit report for verification by an accountant in respect of the computation of exempt income of a specified fund attributable to the investment division of an offshore banking unit. It is linked to the claim of exemption or taxation at concessional rates for eligible income, and its filing is one of the conditions for admissibility of that claim. The form must be filed electronically on the income-tax e-filing portal and verified by the accountant either through digital signature or electronic verification code. It cannot be filed offline, and once validly submitted and acknowledged it cannot be edited.
March 28, 2026
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Specified fund compliance for Form 70 governs exempt income reporting and concessional taxation claims for offshore banking units.
Form 70 is the prescribed e-form for a specified fund to furnish the annual statement of exempt income attributable to the investment division of an offshore banking unit under section 11 read with Schedule VI, together with income taxable at concessional rates under section 210(3) of the ITA 2025. Filing is mandatory for a specified fund seeking exemption or concessional taxation and must be made electronically on the e-filing portal by the due date, with supporting documents, verification by the Trustee or Principal Officer, and the audit report in Form 71 certifying separate accounts and audit of the eligible investment division.
March 28, 2026
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Exempt income reporting through Form 70 requires electronic filing, verification, and timely compliance for specified fund benefits.
Form 70 is the annual statement for a specified fund to report exempt income and income taxable at concessional rates in relation to the investment division of an offshore banking unit. It must be verified by the Principal Officer or Managing Trustee and filed electronically on the Income-tax e-filing portal within the prescribed due date. Filing a valid form is a mandatory condition for claiming exemption or concessional taxation, and the form cannot be filed offline or edited after valid submission. A valid PAN of the fund and the verifier is required, along with prescribed supporting documents and mandatory attachments.
March 28, 2026
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Concessional taxation for specified funds depends on timely filing of Form 69 with income and unit-holder details.
Form 69 is the prescribed annual statement for a specified fund to report income attributable to units held by non-residents, other than a permanent establishment in India, for concessional taxation. The form is a mandatory compliance requirement and must be filed electronically on or before the due date, with trustee or principal officer verification. It includes fund particulars, registration details, and computations of income from securities and capital gains, supported by constituting documents, registration certificate, financial statements, securities statements, and unit-holder residency details.
March 28, 2026
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Concessional taxation for specified funds requires electronic Form 69 filing, verification, and timely supporting disclosures.
Form 69 is the prescribed electronic statement for a specified fund claiming concessional taxation on income attributable to units held by a non-resident, other than a permanent establishment in India. A valid filing within the prescribed due date is a mandatory condition for the concessional rate benefit. The form must be verified by the Principal Officer or Managing Trustee, supported by the prescribed annexures and documents, and cannot be edited after submission and acknowledgment.
March 28, 2026
Show AI Summary
Exempt income reporting under Form 68 streamlined for specified funds with electronic filing and updated verification requirements.
Form 68 is the annual statement prescribed for specified funds seeking exemption under Section 11 read with Schedule VI of ITA 2025 in respect of income attributable to units held by a non-resident, other than a permanent establishment in India. It is filed electronically by the Principal Officer on or before the return due date, and captures particulars of the fund, income, exempt income, unit-holder details, and the working of income attributable to non-resident holders. The guidance note also describes the supporting documents and the simplified filing updates, including IFSCA registration, mandatory document upload, and verification in place of declaration.
March 28, 2026
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Exempt income statement filing for specified funds requires verified online submission within the prescribed due date.
Form 68 is the prescribed electronic statement for claiming exemption of income of specified funds under section 11 read with Schedule VI [Table: Sl. Nos. 1 to 4] of the Income-tax Act, 2025, in respect of income attributable to units held by a non-resident other than a permanent establishment of such non-resident in India. The form must be verified by the Principal Officer or Managing Trustee, filed only through the Income-tax e-filing portal, and furnished on or before the applicable due date. Valid filing requires mandatory PAN details, specified annexures, and satisfaction of the statutory eligibility conditions.
March 28, 2026
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Alternate Minimum Tax reporting gets a structured Form 67 update with CA certification, itemised computation, and digital filing.
Form 67 is a chartered accountant's report for certifying book profit, adjusted total income and Alternate Minimum Tax liability under the updated section 206 framework. It applies to non-corporate taxpayers subject to the AMT regime, is furnished annually with the return of income, and must be digitally signed. The revised form introduces itemised computation fields, category-based AMT rates, and system-enabled validation through the e-filing process.
March 28, 2026
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Alternate Minimum Tax compliance through Form 67 requires CA certification, electronic filing, and timely submission with the return.
Form 67 is prescribed for furnishing details relating to the computation of Adjusted Total Income and Alternate Minimum Tax (AMT) under section 206(2) of the Income-tax Act, 2025. It applies to persons other than companies, subject to stated exceptions, and is not required for certain specified taxpayers where adjusted total income does not exceed twenty lakh rupees. The form is used to determine AMT on adjusted total income, with tax payable at the higher of the regular tax or AMT, and it incorporates adjustments such as depreciation and other specified items.
March 28, 2026
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Minimum Alternate Tax reporting through Form 66 demands Chartered Accountant certification, digital filing, and return-linked book profit verification.
Companies liable to Minimum Alternate Tax must furnish Form 66, a Chartered Accountant-certified report on book profit and MAT computation, annually with the income tax return. The form is digitally signed, accepted by the company through the e-filing portal, and linked to the return for processing. It contains company particulars, profit adjustments, transition amount, final MAT computation, auditor certification, and supporting financial and tax documents.

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Customs & Trade

Achieving 'Viksit Bharat' requires collective effort of 1.4 bn citizens amid global challenges: Modi

March 28, 2026

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Noida, Mar 28 (PTI) Prime Minister Narendra Modi on Saturday urged citizens to work with dedication and unity to tackle global challenges, and said that the government prioritizes securing India's interests and safeguarding "families and farmers".

Referring to the ongoing conflict in West Asia, while addressing a gathering at the inauguration of the first phase of the Noida International Airport in Jewar, the Prime Minister said achieving "Viksit Bharat" would require collective effort and unity among 1.4 billion citizens.

He stressed that the government's priority is to enhance citizens' convenience by saving time and reducing costs.

"I once again appeal to the people of the country that we must face this crisis calmly, with patience and unity. This is a global crisis, but we must prioritise India's interests. That is our greatest strength," he said.

He said he had discussed the situation in detail in Parliament and also held extensive and "very positive" deliberations with the Chief Ministers of various states.

The Prime Minister urged political parties to refrain from making irresponsible statements during such times.

"Those who make remarks that harm the country may gain some points in political debates, but such actions will never be forgiven by the people," he said, recalling how voters rejected misinformation campaigns during the COVID-19 pandemic.

The remarks come against the backdrop of political controversies during the COVID-19 pandemic, when Samajwadi Party chief Akhilesh Yadav had publicly expressed reluctance to take a COVID-19 vaccine, triggering a political debate over vaccine hesitancy.

The controversy was a talking point in the run-up to the 2022 Uttar Pradesh Assembly elections, in which the Samajwadi Party was defeated, and the BJP retained power.

The PM said that India is confronting the challenges arising from the ongoing conflict in West Asia with full strength.

Highlighting that India depends on crude oil and gas from conflict-affected regions, Modi said: “The government is taking necessary steps to ensure the burden does not fall on families and farmers." Inaugurating phase-I of the Noida International Airport, Modi said, "Today marks the beginning of a new chapter in the journey towards a Viksit Uttar Pradesh and a Viksit Bharat." He said Jewar Airport would boost economic activity in the region. "Noida International Airport will create new opportunities for farmers, small traders and youngsters of Western Uttar Pradesh," he said.

Modi was accompanied by Chief Minister Yogi Adityanath, Civil Aviation Minister Kinjarapu Ram Mohan Naidu and other dignitaries.

Hitting out at the main opposition party in the state, Modi said the Samajwadi Party had turned Noida into an "ATM for loot", but under BJP, it is now emerging as a powerful engine of development.

He added that Noida, once neglected by earlier governments, is now ready to welcome the world, reflecting the spirit of a self-reliant India.

Highlighting the government's aviation policy, Modi said: "We launched the UDAN scheme to ensure that air travel remains within the reach of ordinary families. In the past few years, more than 1.6 crore people have travelled at affordable fares under this scheme." UDAN scheme has recently been expanded with an approved outlay of around Rs 29,000 crore, with plans to develop new airports in smaller cities and build around 200 helipads in the coming years.

Modi said Jewar Airport would benefit a wide region covering Agra, Mathura, Aligarh, Ghaziabad, Meerut, Etawah, Bulandshahr and Faridabad.

Expressing pride, he said Uttar Pradesh now ranks among the states with the highest number of international airports.

Modi said the Jewar area is emerging as a logistics hub with the convergence of dedicated freight corridors at Dadri, enabling faster movement of goods to ports in Bengal and Gujarat.

He recalled that the airport project was first approved in 2003 during the tenure of former Prime Minister Atal Bihari Vajpayee, adding that improved connectivity would enhance food processing and agricultural exports from western Uttar Pradesh.

Modi expressed gratitude to sugarcane farmers, saying ethanol produced from their crop has helped reduce India's dependence on crude oil imports.

He said that without increased ethanol production and its blending with petrol, the country would have had to import an additional 4.5 crore barrels of crude oil annually.

He noted that the initiative has helped save about Rs 1.5 lakh crore in foreign exchange.

Modi said India's aviation sector is growing rapidly, leading to increased demand for aircraft. "These new aircraft and services will require a large workforce for operations, servicing and maintenance. This presents a huge opportunity for the youth," he said.

The Prime Minister highlighted the lack of adequate Maintenance, Repair and Overhaul (MRO) facilities in India in the past, noting that nearly 85 per cent of aircraft had to go abroad for servicing.

"Our government has resolved to make India self-reliant in the MRO sector. Large-scale facilities are now being developed in the country, and an MRO facility has also been launched at Jewar," he said.

Modern transport systems like Metro and Vande Bharat trains are being expanded Modi said, adding “the Delhi-Meerut Namo Bharat train has already benefited more than 2.5 crore passengers, reducing travel time from hours to minutes," he said.

The Prime Minister said the government has made unprecedented investments in the sector over the past 11 years. "The infrastructure budget has increased more than sixfold. About Rs 17 lakh crore has been spent on highways and expressways, and over 1 lakh kilometres of highways have been constructed," he said.

The first phase of the airport, developed at an estimated cost of Rs 11,200 crore, is envisioned as a multi-modal transport hub.

The project includes a cargo hub with an initial handling capacity of over 2.5 lakh metric tonnes annually, expandable to around 18 lakh metric tonnes. The airport's initial passenger handling capacity will be 12 million passengers per annum, scalable up to 70 million. PTI CDN KIS DRR

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