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March 26, 2026
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SEZ reinvestment reserve reporting: Form 33 supports deduction claims for new plant and machinery purchases under section 144.
Form 33 is the prescribed statement for assessees claiming deduction under section 144 in respect of profits and gains derived by newly established units in SEZs. It is filed where amounts are withdrawn from the SEZ Reinvestment Reserve Account for purchase of new plant or machinery, and it must be verified by the proprietor, partner, or director. The form is to be filed along with the return of income, and the deduction is based on the particulars reported in the form.
March 26, 2026
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Audit report form requirements govern deduction claims under specified income-tax provisions, with section-wise disclosures and chartered accountant verification.
Form 32 is the prescribed audit-report form for assessees claiming deductions under the specified provisions of the Income-tax Act, 2025, and it must be verified by a Chartered Accountant. The form is filed by the due date applicable to the audit report and requires basic particulars, section-specific disclosure fields, supporting documents such as agreements, SEZ notifications, start-up certification, turnover and profit details, and capital expenditure details where relevant. Filing is completed by entering the applicable deduction particulars and electronic verification through the Chartered Accountant's DSC.
March 26, 2026
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Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code misuse allegations surface over creditor voting control and resolution process conduct in a fraud FIR.
Fraud allegations arose from an FIR filed on the basis of an Enforcement Directorate complaint linked to a money laundering probe. The complaint stated that Experion entities were examined in relation to the insolvency proceedings of Dignity Buildcon Private Limited and were said to have misused the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code during the Corporate Insolvency Resolution Process. It further alleged acquisition of debt and debentures to increase voting rights in the Committee of Creditors and pressure on the authorised representative of Alchemist Asset Reconstruction Company to vote for a resolution plan.
March 26, 2026
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Audit report requirements govern deductions for specified business, start-ups, SEZ units, and North-Eastern eligible businesses.
Form 32 is the audit report required for deductions under the specified provisions of the Income-tax Act, 2025, and must be verified by a Chartered Accountant. It applies to claims for specified business capital expenditure, industrial and infrastructure undertakings, SEZ development, eligible start-ups, housing projects, North-Eastern business units, and newly established SEZ units, and must be filed by the audit-report due date. The document also states the conditions for specified business capital expenditure, start-up eligibility and duration, and the qualifying North-Eastern businesses.
March 26, 2026
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Rent deduction declaration requires Form 31, with landlord details, rent evidence, and e-verification alongside the return.
Form 31 is the declaration to be furnished by an assessee claiming deduction under section 134 of the Income-tax Act, 2025 in respect of rent paid for residential accommodation. It applies to a resident individual who pays rent for furnished or unfurnished accommodation, does not receive house rent allowance, and does not own residential property at the place of employment or residence. The form is to be filed along with the return of income and requires rent details, landlord particulars, supporting documents, and e-verification through DSC or Aadhaar.
March 26, 2026
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Rent deduction declaration under section 134 requires Form 31 for eligible resident individuals without house rent allowance.
Form 31 is the declaration required for claiming deduction under section 134 for rent paid for residential accommodation. It applies to a resident individual who does not receive house rent allowance and does not own residential property at the place of employment or residence. The form must be filed along with the return of income, and the deduction is available on the basis of details furnished in the form, subject to the annual ceiling of Rs. 60,000.
March 26, 2026
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Deduction for dependant with disability requires Form 30, supported by medical certification, filing details, and electronic verification.
Deduction for maintenance, medical treatment, training and rehabilitation of a dependant with disability is supported by Form 30, which must be filed by a resident individual claiming expenditure for a dependant with disability or payments under an approved scheme. The form is filed with the return of income, supported by the medical authority certificate, and requires completion of assessee details, patient and disability particulars, upload of the signed verification, and e-verification through DSC or Aadhaar.
March 26, 2026
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Disability-related tax deduction requires Form 30, medical certification, and timely filing with the return of income.
Deduction is available for maintenance, including medical treatment, training and rehabilitation, of a dependant who is a person with disability, and for payments made under a qualifying insurance or specified scheme. Form 30 is the prescribed statement for claiming the deduction and must be filed by a resident individual along with the return of income. The medical authority certificate must be uploaded online, and a fresh certificate is required when a temporary disability certificate expires.
March 26, 2026
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Carry forward and set-off of amalgamated losses depends on Form 29 production certification and verified compliance.
Form 29 is the prescribed certificate for an amalgamated company to evidence achievement and maintenance of the prescribed level of production in an undertaking received through amalgamation. It is filed with the return of income to support compliance with the conditions for carry forward and set-off of accumulated loss and unabsorbed depreciation of the amalgamating company. The form must be certified by the principal officer and verified by an accountant, and it requires confirmation that the prescribed production threshold has been achieved and maintained within the specified period.
March 26, 2026
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Freight disruption and export relief measures shape India's response to West Asia-linked logistics stress and production shortages.
West Asia-related disruption in shipping and logistics has led to steep increases in freight charges, container shortages, stranded cargo and shipment cancellations affecting exporters in eastern India. Perishable goods, engineering products, textiles and medicines are among the sectors most affected, while the LPG supply crunch has added to production difficulties and air cargo costs have risen because of route changes and cancellations. The text also refers to relief measures, including waiver-based port concessions, the RELIEF scheme for conflict-linked losses and reimbursement support for eligible MSME exporters.
March 26, 2026
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Production compliance certificate governs carry forward and set-off benefits for amalgamated companies under the income tax rules.
Form 29 is the mandatory certificate under Rule 60 for an amalgamated company claiming carry forward and set-off of accumulated losses and unabsorbed depreciation under Section 116(4)(b)(iii). It certifies achievement and maintenance of the prescribed production level in acquired industrial undertakings, requires electronic filing with the return of income, and may cover multiple amalgamating companies. The production condition is 50% of installed capacity within four years of amalgamation and maintenance up to five years, with possible governmental relaxation in suitable cases.
March 26, 2026
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Slump sale reporting requires accountant certification of net worth and capital gains through online Form 28 filing.
Accountant's report in Form No. 28 (Form No. 3CEA) is required for an assessee undertaking a slump sale to certify the computation of net worth and capital gains under the Income Tax Act, 2025. The form applies where an undertaking or division is transferred as a going concern for a lump-sum consideration without assigning individual values to assets and liabilities. It must be furnished online on the income tax e-filing portal on or before the due date for filing the assessee's income tax return.
March 26, 2026
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Slump sale reporting under income tax law requires mandatory accountant certification, online filing, and timely submission through Form 28.
Form No. 28 is the accountant's report required under section 77(4) of the Income-tax Act, 2025 for computation of capital gains in a slump sale. It applies where an undertaking or division is transferred as a going concern for lump-sum consideration without assigning separate values to assets and liabilities, and it is mandatory for certifying net worth and capital gains. The form must be filed once in a year on or before the due date for the income-tax return, only online, and cannot be edited after submission. A valid PAN is required.
March 26, 2026
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Capital gains attribution framework for specified entities filing Form 27 with valuation support and electronic certification.
Form 27 is filed by every specified entity to furnish details of the amount attributed to capital assets remaining with the entity where a specified person receives capital asset or stock-in-trade on dissolution or reconstitution. It supports computation under Rule 50 and must be certified on the basis of a registered valuer's report. The form is filed electronically with the return of income and includes particulars of the amount taxable, its attribution to remaining assets, and the valuer's details.
March 26, 2026
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Form No. 27 reporting requirement governs valuation-based attribution of income on dissolution or reconstitution of a specified entity.
Form No. 27 is a mandatory income-tax reporting form prescribed under Rule 50 for a specified entity where income becomes taxable under section 67(10) on dissolution or reconstitution and a specified person receives capital asset, stock-in-trade, or both. It operationalises the attribution of such taxable income to the capital assets remaining with the specified entity and must be furnished for each tax year in which the relevant event occurs. The form requires electronic filing with the return of income and valuation-based attribution supported by a registered valuer's report.
March 26, 2026
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Tax audit Form No. 26 standardises disclosures, audit reporting, and filing requirements under the new income tax framework.
Prescribed Form No. 26 is the audit report and statement of particulars under section 63 of the Income-tax Act, 2025 read with rule 47 of the Income-tax Rules, 2026. Parts A and B contain the substantive disclosures for tax audit compliance, including books of account, method of accounting, income, expenses, losses, depreciation, deductions, international taxation, TDS/TCS, indirect taxation and quantitative details. Part C applies where accounts are audited under another law, while Part D applies where they are not. The form is required for specified business and professional thresholds and certain presumptive taxation cases, and is furnished through a structured online filing process.
March 26, 2026
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Mandatory audit reporting under Form No. 26 introduces clause-wise disclosures, UDIN compliance, and schedule-based tax audit filing.
Form No. 26 is the mandatory audit report and statement of particulars for persons carrying on business or profession whose accounts are required to be audited under section 63. It applies from tax years commencing on or after 1 April 2026, is due one month before the return filing deadline, and must be signed by an Accountant with UDIN, and FRN where applicable. The form uses Part B clause-wise Yes/No reporting with trigger-based schedules, and Parts C and D for audit reporting depending on whether accounts are audited under another law.
March 26, 2026
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Daily case register requirements for medical professionals under tax rules, including maintenance, exceptions, and non-filing status.
Form No. 25 prescribes a daily case register for medical professionals under Rule 46 of the Income-tax Rules, 2026. It records the patient's name, nature of service, fees charged, and date of receipt of fees. The form is mandatory for persons engaged in the medical profession, subject to the stated gross-receipts exceptions, and is maintained in addition to books of account. It is not furnished to the Department and has no due date.
March 26, 2026
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Daily case register compliance for medical practitioners requires tabular records, electronic access safeguards, and preservation obligations.
Form No. 25 is the prescribed daily case register for practitioners of any system of medicine under Rule 46 of the Income-tax Rules, 2026, subject to the prescribed gross receipt threshold and the position of newly set-up medical practices. It records patient and fee particulars in tabular form, is not furnished to the Income-tax Department, but must be maintained daily, produced before the Assessing Officer when called for, may be kept electronically with India-based access and backups, and must be preserved for seven tax years or until completion of reassessment proceedings.
March 26, 2026
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Permanent establishment audit reporting for royalty and technical services income now uses a structured Chartered Accountant certification format.
Form No. 24 is a statutory audit report for non-residents and foreign companies earning royalty or fees for technical services from India through a permanent establishment or fixed place of profession in India. It requires a Chartered Accountant's certification of the correctness of income computation, verification of the PE or fixed place, maintenance of books of account, and deduction only of expenses attributable to the PE while computing income under section 59. The form is filed annually, contains structured particulars of the assessee, agreement, PE, books examined, and income computation, and is submitted through the e-filing portal with digital signature verification.

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Form 71 - Frequently Asked Questions

March 28, 2026

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Form 71 - Frequently Asked Questions

Form for Verification by an Accountant for computation of exempt income of specified fund, attributable to the investment division of an offshore banking unit, for the purposes of Schedule VI of the Act

Name of form as per I.T. Rules, 1962

Form 10-IL

Name of form as per I.T. Rules, 2026

71

Corresponding section of I.T. Act, 1961

Section 10(4D) and 115AD(1B)

Corresponding section of I.T. Act, 2025

Section 11 read with Schedule VI [Table: Sl. Nos. 1 to 4] and section 210(3)

Corresponding Rule of I.T. Rules, 1962

Rule 21AJA

Corresponding Rule of I.T. Rules, 2026

142

1: What is Form 71 ?

Ans: Form 71 is the prescribed form for filing the audit report prescribed under Rule 142 of the Income Tax Rules, 1962. A specified fund, in order to claim exemption, or benefit of taxation at concessional rates, in respect of eligible income attributable to the investment division of an offshore banking unit, is also required to fulfil certain other eligibility conditions, as prescribed in the rule. These eligibility conditions inter-alia include maintenance of separate books of accounts for the registered investment division, getting the accounts audited by an accountant, maintaining other relevant documentation, and filing of such audit report in the prescribed form on or before the specified date (i.e. one month prior to the due date for filing return of income).

2: Who should file Form 71?

Ans: The accountant, who has audited the book of accounts of the eligible investment division of the offshore banking unit, is required to file this audit report, certifying the correctness of the separate accounts maintained by the investment division and affirming the fulfillment of other eligibility conditions, as stipulated in Rule 142.

3. Who is required to verify the Form 71?

Ans. The accountant, who has audited the book of accounts of the eligible investment division of the offshore banking unit, is required to verify that he has examined the books of accounts of the eligible investment division, and also affirm that such investment division fulfils other eligibility conditions to claim the benefit of exemption, or taxation at concessional rates. The accountant is also required to mention his membership number, the UDIN of the audit report, and details of his audit firm.

4: Where and how the Form 71 is required to be filed?

Ans: The Form 71 shall be filed electronically on the e-filing portal of Income-tax Department. The form shall be duly verified, either under digital signature or through electronic verification code, by the accountant.

5: What is the time limit for filing Form 71?

Ans: The audit report in Form 71 is required to be filed electronically, at least one month prior to such “due date” for filing return of income prescribed under section 263(1)(c) of the ITA’ 2025, as may apply for the specified fund claiming the benefit of exemption, or taxation at concessional rates. This time limit is specified in the relevant rules.

6: What documents are required to file Form 71?

Ans: The following documents may be required while filing Form 71, -

A copy of Trust deed, or Memorandum of Association, or any other legal instrument evidencing the formation of the fund

Copy of SEBI Category-I FPI registration certificate

Annual financial statements of the specified fund for the relevant tax year

Audited financial statements of the eligible investment division of the offshore banking unit for the relevant tax year

Bank statements, Foreign Inward Remittance Certificate, and settlement advisories

Statement of securities (held during the year and transactions executed) including income earned on securities held and gain arising on transfer of securities

Details of Unit Holders with number of units held by them and their classification by residency status i.e. resident or non-resident

7. Is Form 71 mandatory?

Ans: Filing of a valid Form 71 within the specified time limit, is one of the mandatory conditions for making an admissible claim of exemption, or taxation at concessional rates, by a specified fund, in respect of income which is attributable to investment division of an offshore banking unit, under the aforementioned provisions.

8: Can I edit Form 71 after submission?

Ans: No. Once Form 71 is validly submitted, after verification by the accountant, and acknowledgment is generated, it cannot be edited. Please ensure that all details are correct before final submission.

9: Do I need to attach any document with the Form 71?

Ans: No. It is not mandatory to attach any document with the Form 71.

10: While filling Part A and Part B, can I leave any field blank?

Ans:

PAN of the Specified Fund is mandatory. Name and complete address thereof shall be prefilled, which can be updated by the user. Status is pre-filled.

Details of the offshore banking unit are mandatory fields.

In Part B, only the applicable remarks (Yes/No) are to be selected from the drop-down menu.

11: What if the specified fund does not have a PAN?

Ans: Form 71 cannot be submitted without a valid PAN of the specified fund.

12: Can Form 71 be filed offline?

Ans: No. Form 71 can only be submitted online through the Income Tax e-Filing portal.

13: Why is Form 71 important?

Ans: Filing of a audit report in Form 71 within the specified time limit is one of the mandatory compliance for claiming the benefit of tax-exemption, or taxation at concessional rates, by the specified fund, in respect of the eligible income of the investment division of an offshore banking unit, under section 11 read with Schedule VI [Table: Sl. Nos. 1 to 4] and section 210(3) of the ITA 2025. However, the claim of benefit of exemption (as also taxation at concessional rates) is further subject to fulfillment of various other eligibility conditions, as prescribed in the statute and relevant rules.

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