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March 26, 2026
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Freight disruption and export relief measures shape India's response to West Asia-linked logistics stress and production shortages.
West Asia-related disruption in shipping and logistics has led to steep increases in freight charges, container shortages, stranded cargo and shipment cancellations affecting exporters in eastern India. Perishable goods, engineering products, textiles and medicines are among the sectors most affected, while the LPG supply crunch has added to production difficulties and air cargo costs have risen because of route changes and cancellations. The text also refers to relief measures, including waiver-based port concessions, the RELIEF scheme for conflict-linked losses and reimbursement support for eligible MSME exporters.
March 26, 2026
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Production compliance certificate governs carry forward and set-off benefits for amalgamated companies under the income tax rules.
Form 29 is the mandatory certificate under Rule 60 for an amalgamated company claiming carry forward and set-off of accumulated losses and unabsorbed depreciation under Section 116(4)(b)(iii). It certifies achievement and maintenance of the prescribed production level in acquired industrial undertakings, requires electronic filing with the return of income, and may cover multiple amalgamating companies. The production condition is 50% of installed capacity within four years of amalgamation and maintenance up to five years, with possible governmental relaxation in suitable cases.
March 26, 2026
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Slump sale reporting requires accountant certification of net worth and capital gains through online Form 28 filing.
Accountant's report in Form No. 28 (Form No. 3CEA) is required for an assessee undertaking a slump sale to certify the computation of net worth and capital gains under the Income Tax Act, 2025. The form applies where an undertaking or division is transferred as a going concern for a lump-sum consideration without assigning individual values to assets and liabilities. It must be furnished online on the income tax e-filing portal on or before the due date for filing the assessee's income tax return.
March 26, 2026
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Slump sale reporting under income tax law requires mandatory accountant certification, online filing, and timely submission through Form 28.
Form No. 28 is the accountant's report required under section 77(4) of the Income-tax Act, 2025 for computation of capital gains in a slump sale. It applies where an undertaking or division is transferred as a going concern for lump-sum consideration without assigning separate values to assets and liabilities, and it is mandatory for certifying net worth and capital gains. The form must be filed once in a year on or before the due date for the income-tax return, only online, and cannot be edited after submission. A valid PAN is required.
March 26, 2026
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Capital gains attribution framework for specified entities filing Form 27 with valuation support and electronic certification.
Form 27 is filed by every specified entity to furnish details of the amount attributed to capital assets remaining with the entity where a specified person receives capital asset or stock-in-trade on dissolution or reconstitution. It supports computation under Rule 50 and must be certified on the basis of a registered valuer's report. The form is filed electronically with the return of income and includes particulars of the amount taxable, its attribution to remaining assets, and the valuer's details.
March 26, 2026
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Form No. 27 reporting requirement governs valuation-based attribution of income on dissolution or reconstitution of a specified entity.
Form No. 27 is a mandatory income-tax reporting form prescribed under Rule 50 for a specified entity where income becomes taxable under section 67(10) on dissolution or reconstitution and a specified person receives capital asset, stock-in-trade, or both. It operationalises the attribution of such taxable income to the capital assets remaining with the specified entity and must be furnished for each tax year in which the relevant event occurs. The form requires electronic filing with the return of income and valuation-based attribution supported by a registered valuer's report.
March 26, 2026
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Tax audit Form No. 26 standardises disclosures, audit reporting, and filing requirements under the new income tax framework.
Prescribed Form No. 26 is the audit report and statement of particulars under section 63 of the Income-tax Act, 2025 read with rule 47 of the Income-tax Rules, 2026. Parts A and B contain the substantive disclosures for tax audit compliance, including books of account, method of accounting, income, expenses, losses, depreciation, deductions, international taxation, TDS/TCS, indirect taxation and quantitative details. Part C applies where accounts are audited under another law, while Part D applies where they are not. The form is required for specified business and professional thresholds and certain presumptive taxation cases, and is furnished through a structured online filing process.
March 26, 2026
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Mandatory audit reporting under Form No. 26 introduces clause-wise disclosures, UDIN compliance, and schedule-based tax audit filing.
Form No. 26 is the mandatory audit report and statement of particulars for persons carrying on business or profession whose accounts are required to be audited under section 63. It applies from tax years commencing on or after 1 April 2026, is due one month before the return filing deadline, and must be signed by an Accountant with UDIN, and FRN where applicable. The form uses Part B clause-wise Yes/No reporting with trigger-based schedules, and Parts C and D for audit reporting depending on whether accounts are audited under another law.
March 26, 2026
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Daily case register requirements for medical professionals under tax rules, including maintenance, exceptions, and non-filing status.
Form No. 25 prescribes a daily case register for medical professionals under Rule 46 of the Income-tax Rules, 2026. It records the patient's name, nature of service, fees charged, and date of receipt of fees. The form is mandatory for persons engaged in the medical profession, subject to the stated gross-receipts exceptions, and is maintained in addition to books of account. It is not furnished to the Department and has no due date.
March 26, 2026
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Daily case register compliance for medical practitioners requires tabular records, electronic access safeguards, and preservation obligations.
Form No. 25 is the prescribed daily case register for practitioners of any system of medicine under Rule 46 of the Income-tax Rules, 2026, subject to the prescribed gross receipt threshold and the position of newly set-up medical practices. It records patient and fee particulars in tabular form, is not furnished to the Income-tax Department, but must be maintained daily, produced before the Assessing Officer when called for, may be kept electronically with India-based access and backups, and must be preserved for seven tax years or until completion of reassessment proceedings.
March 26, 2026
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Permanent establishment audit reporting for royalty and technical services income now uses a structured Chartered Accountant certification format.
Form No. 24 is a statutory audit report for non-residents and foreign companies earning royalty or fees for technical services from India through a permanent establishment or fixed place of profession in India. It requires a Chartered Accountant's certification of the correctness of income computation, verification of the PE or fixed place, maintenance of books of account, and deduction only of expenses attributable to the PE while computing income under section 59. The form is filed annually, contains structured particulars of the assessee, agreement, PE, books examined, and income computation, and is submitted through the e-filing portal with digital signature verification.
March 26, 2026
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Competition approval for additional shareholding acquisition in Valuedrive Technologies through an alternative investment and trust co-investment structure.
The Competition Commission of India approved the proposed acquisition of additional shareholding in Valuedrive Technologies Private Limited by Setu AIF Trust, Konark Trust and MMPL Trust. The transaction concerns acquisition of shares on a fully diluted basis through an alternative investment fund and private trust co-investment structure. Valuedrive Technologies Private Limited operates as an operating-cum-holding company for the Spinny Group and carries on an electronic platform business for used motor vehicles, together with related subsidiary activities.
March 26, 2026
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Competition law approval for acquisition of shares in a listed NBFC by a Japan-based banking institution.
Competition Commission of India approval was granted for the acquisition of certain shares in Shriram Finance Limited by MUFG Bank Ltd. The acquirer is a Japan-based banking institution wholly owned and controlled by Mitsubishi UFJ Financial Group, Inc., and carries on banking-related activities in India including corporate banking loans, deposit accounts, remittances, trade finance, bank guarantees and hedging. The target is a listed non-banking financial company registered with the Reserve Bank of India, classified as an Investment and Credit Company and an NBFC-Upper Layer, engaged in financing commercial goods and passenger vehicles, construction equipment, farm equipment, MSMEs, two-wheelers, gold and personal loans.
March 26, 2026
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Competition approval for acquisition of Groww Asset Management shareholding by State Street Global Advisors
Competition approval was granted for the proposed acquisition of shareholding in Groww Asset Management Limited by State Street Global Advisors, Inc. The target manages schemes of Groww Mutual Fund, including equity, hybrid, debt and exchange traded fund schemes. State Street operates under the State Street Investment Management brand as the asset management arm of State Street Corporation. The detailed order of the Commission would follow.
March 26, 2026
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Competition combination approval for Coursera and Udemy merger, creating sole control over Udemy through a subsidiary merger.
Competition Commission of India approved a proposed combination involving the merger of Chess Merger Sub, a wholly owned subsidiary of Coursera Inc., with and into Udemy Inc., with Udemy surviving as a wholly owned subsidiary of Coursera. The transaction results in Coursera acquiring sole control over Udemy, and the combined company is expected to have post-closing shareholding in which existing Coursera stockholders hold approximately 59% and existing Udemy stockholders approximately 41% on a fully diluted basis.
March 26, 2026
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Competition approval for renewable energy investment in Aditya Birla Renewables through equity subscription by GIP EM Star.
Competition Commission of India approved the subscription of certain equity share capital of Aditya Birla Renewables Limited by GIP EM Star Pte. Ltd. The acquirer is incorporated in Singapore and is ultimately linked to Global Infrastructure Management, LLC and BlackRock, Inc. The target, headquartered in Mumbai, is engaged in renewable energy power generation, including solar and wind power.
March 25, 2026
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Inflation targeting framework retained with a 4 per cent objective and a 2 per cent tolerance band for the next cycle.
The central government, in consultation with the Reserve Bank, has notified the inflation target for 1 April 2026 to 31 March 2031 at 4 per cent, with an upper tolerance level of 6 per cent and a lower tolerance level of 2 per cent. The framework continues to place the Monetary Policy Committee in charge of setting the policy rate needed to achieve the inflation objective within the prescribed band.
March 25, 2026
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Insolvency resolution delays under the bankruptcy code draw debate over tribunal capacity, creditor recoveries, and reform priorities.
Delay in insolvency resolution under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code remained the central issue in parliamentary discussion on the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (Amendment) Bill, 2025. Members referred to tribunal capacity constraints, overburdened case loads, delayed liquidation and resolution timelines, value deterioration, and low realisations to creditors as continuing problems in the insolvency ecosystem. The select committee report was noted as seeking to address these structural concerns through amendments aimed at improving the functioning of the insolvency and bankruptcy framework.
March 25, 2026
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Electricity tariff reduction cuts power charges by one paisa per unit across all consumer categories for FY27.
Electricity tariff for all consumer categories in Himachal Pradesh has been reduced by one paisa per unit for FY27, effective from 1 April 2026. The tariff order fixes the average cost of supply at Rs 6.75 per unit after truing up, resulting in a corresponding reduction in energy charges across consumer classes. The revised schedule sets category-wise tariffs for domestic, commercial, industrial, agricultural, railway, EV charging, irrigation, bulk supply, and street lighting consumers, while domestic subsidy is left to the state government decision and compensation mechanism.
March 25, 2026
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Money laundering attachment over Mahadev betting assets targets alleged proceeds of crime and overseas luxury properties.
Provisional attachment under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act was issued against immovable assets linked to the Mahadev Online Book betting operation, including luxury properties in Dubai, apartments in Burj Khalifa and two properties in Delhi. The attached assets were alleged to represent proceeds of crime generated from illegal online betting activities controlled through entities associated with the main promoter of the platform.

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Form 71 - Frequently Asked Questions

March 28, 2026

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Form 71 - Frequently Asked Questions

Form for Verification by an Accountant for computation of exempt income of specified fund, attributable to the investment division of an offshore banking unit, for the purposes of Schedule VI of the Act

Name of form as per I.T. Rules, 1962

Form 10-IL

Name of form as per I.T. Rules, 2026

71

Corresponding section of I.T. Act, 1961

Section 10(4D) and 115AD(1B)

Corresponding section of I.T. Act, 2025

Section 11 read with Schedule VI [Table: Sl. Nos. 1 to 4] and section 210(3)

Corresponding Rule of I.T. Rules, 1962

Rule 21AJA

Corresponding Rule of I.T. Rules, 2026

142

1: What is Form 71 ?

Ans: Form 71 is the prescribed form for filing the audit report prescribed under Rule 142 of the Income Tax Rules, 1962. A specified fund, in order to claim exemption, or benefit of taxation at concessional rates, in respect of eligible income attributable to the investment division of an offshore banking unit, is also required to fulfil certain other eligibility conditions, as prescribed in the rule. These eligibility conditions inter-alia include maintenance of separate books of accounts for the registered investment division, getting the accounts audited by an accountant, maintaining other relevant documentation, and filing of such audit report in the prescribed form on or before the specified date (i.e. one month prior to the due date for filing return of income).

2: Who should file Form 71?

Ans: The accountant, who has audited the book of accounts of the eligible investment division of the offshore banking unit, is required to file this audit report, certifying the correctness of the separate accounts maintained by the investment division and affirming the fulfillment of other eligibility conditions, as stipulated in Rule 142.

3. Who is required to verify the Form 71?

Ans. The accountant, who has audited the book of accounts of the eligible investment division of the offshore banking unit, is required to verify that he has examined the books of accounts of the eligible investment division, and also affirm that such investment division fulfils other eligibility conditions to claim the benefit of exemption, or taxation at concessional rates. The accountant is also required to mention his membership number, the UDIN of the audit report, and details of his audit firm.

4: Where and how the Form 71 is required to be filed?

Ans: The Form 71 shall be filed electronically on the e-filing portal of Income-tax Department. The form shall be duly verified, either under digital signature or through electronic verification code, by the accountant.

5: What is the time limit for filing Form 71?

Ans: The audit report in Form 71 is required to be filed electronically, at least one month prior to such “due date” for filing return of income prescribed under section 263(1)(c) of the ITA’ 2025, as may apply for the specified fund claiming the benefit of exemption, or taxation at concessional rates. This time limit is specified in the relevant rules.

6: What documents are required to file Form 71?

Ans: The following documents may be required while filing Form 71, -

A copy of Trust deed, or Memorandum of Association, or any other legal instrument evidencing the formation of the fund

Copy of SEBI Category-I FPI registration certificate

Annual financial statements of the specified fund for the relevant tax year

Audited financial statements of the eligible investment division of the offshore banking unit for the relevant tax year

Bank statements, Foreign Inward Remittance Certificate, and settlement advisories

Statement of securities (held during the year and transactions executed) including income earned on securities held and gain arising on transfer of securities

Details of Unit Holders with number of units held by them and their classification by residency status i.e. resident or non-resident

7. Is Form 71 mandatory?

Ans: Filing of a valid Form 71 within the specified time limit, is one of the mandatory conditions for making an admissible claim of exemption, or taxation at concessional rates, by a specified fund, in respect of income which is attributable to investment division of an offshore banking unit, under the aforementioned provisions.

8: Can I edit Form 71 after submission?

Ans: No. Once Form 71 is validly submitted, after verification by the accountant, and acknowledgment is generated, it cannot be edited. Please ensure that all details are correct before final submission.

9: Do I need to attach any document with the Form 71?

Ans: No. It is not mandatory to attach any document with the Form 71.

10: While filling Part A and Part B, can I leave any field blank?

Ans:

PAN of the Specified Fund is mandatory. Name and complete address thereof shall be prefilled, which can be updated by the user. Status is pre-filled.

Details of the offshore banking unit are mandatory fields.

In Part B, only the applicable remarks (Yes/No) are to be selected from the drop-down menu.

11: What if the specified fund does not have a PAN?

Ans: Form 71 cannot be submitted without a valid PAN of the specified fund.

12: Can Form 71 be filed offline?

Ans: No. Form 71 can only be submitted online through the Income Tax e-Filing portal.

13: Why is Form 71 important?

Ans: Filing of a audit report in Form 71 within the specified time limit is one of the mandatory compliance for claiming the benefit of tax-exemption, or taxation at concessional rates, by the specified fund, in respect of the eligible income of the investment division of an offshore banking unit, under section 11 read with Schedule VI [Table: Sl. Nos. 1 to 4] and section 210(3) of the ITA 2025. However, the claim of benefit of exemption (as also taxation at concessional rates) is further subject to fulfillment of various other eligibility conditions, as prescribed in the statute and relevant rules.

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