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    India emerges as key petrol supplier to Russia as refinery attacks disrupt fuel supplies
    Judiciary proactively responded to emerging fraudulent schemes like digital arrest: CJI
    After HC rap, FDA withdraws licence cancellation and suspension orders against Cipla, MCA eateries
    HC slams FDA for ‘pedantic’ view, clears reopening of 5 eateries at MCA premises
    Commerce Secretary Shri Rajesh Agrawal Leads 4th India–Argentina JTC Meeting; Both Sides Reaffirm Commitment to Deepen Strategic and Economic Partne...
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August 30, 2026
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Gasoline trade amid refinery disruptions relies on sanctioned fleets and dark ship-to-ship transfers, alongside continuing fuel export restrictions.
Russian refinery disruption has increased gasoline imports and made India a significant supplier of gasoline to Russia. Indian supplies were principally linked to the Vadinar refinery, and increased Indian purchases of Russian crude may mean exported gasoline was produced from Russian crude. Russia has retained a gasoline export ban while domestic production remains disrupted. India-origin cargoes imported during August were carried on sanctioned fleets and involved dark ship-to-ship transfers, including transfers conducted with automatic identification system signals switched off.
August 30, 2026
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Digital arrest fraud: judicial responses seek a distinct offence while preserving due process and proportionality in economic-crime enforcement.
Suo motu consideration of digital-arrest fraud reflects a proactive judicial response to video-call scams involving impersonation of police, judicial officials or bureaucrats. The Union and the States have been directed to assess the problem, with a call for a distinct offence carrying proportionate penalties. Economic-crime enforcement remains subject to safeguards requiring written grounds of arrest and preventing pre-trial detention from becoming punishment. Due process, proportionality and the presumption of innocence remain central constraints.
August 29, 2026
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Natural justice in licensing enforcement requires meaningful hearing and reasoned orders before cancellation or suspension of regulated operations.
Natural justice in regulatory licensing enforcement requires a meaningful hearing, proper legal analysis, and a reasoned decision before licence cancellation or suspension. Maharashtra FDA withdrew cancellation of drug-sale licences after criticism of the procedure adopted. Food-safety enforcement against restaurants was also reconsidered where the premises were substantially compliant, despite licences being issued to one entity and operations being conducted by another. A fresh notice, hearing on the contractual arrangement, and reasoned order were required before further licensing action.
August 29, 2026
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Food-safety licensing compliance supports reopening while contractual operation requires notice, hearing, and a reasoned regulatory decision.
Food-safety licence suspension of five eateries was reconsidered after a fresh inspection recorded 88 per cent compliance. The suspension had continued because a third-party operator ran the eateries while licences remained in the association's name, despite no identified legal prohibition. The Food and Drug Administration proposed a fresh notice, hearing, and reasoned order on the contractual arrangement, while current compliance permitted services to resume.
August 29, 2026
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Market access and regulatory cooperation advance agricultural, pharmaceutical, digital, and trade integration priorities across the bilateral economic partnership.
India-Argentina cooperation focused on expanding bilateral trade, reducing non-tariff barriers, facilitating investment, and strengthening market access. Sanitary and phytosanitary discussions progressed for Indian agricultural products, while pharmaceutical engagement covered regulatory upgrading and reduced entry barriers. Mining and lithium-sector engagement, digital services, space technology, telecommunications, artificial intelligence and digital infrastructure were identified as priority areas. The India-MERCOSUR Preferential Trade Agreement, Terms of Reference and digital certificates of origin were considered mechanisms for trade facilitation and economic integration. Business discussions addressed commercial partnerships across agriculture, minerals, energy, pharmaceuticals, healthcare, banking and telecommunications.
August 29, 2026
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Shared digital infrastructure for professional services aims to expand technology access, interoperability, capability development and secure adoption across firms.
MCA and IICA are developing a government-backed digital public good ecosystem for domestic professional services, particularly small and medium practices. The framework proposes curated technology access, learning and capability development, and knowledge and practice infrastructure. It is intended to improve access to technology and professional knowledge while complementing existing institutional and market-based systems. Consultations address interoperability, common standards, cybersecurity, affordable access, implementation, change management, openness, competition and technology adoption suited to differing levels of digital readiness.
August 29, 2026
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Methamphetamine trafficking enforcement targets concealed cross-border transport, with seizures, vehicle confiscation, arrests and stringent penalties under narcotics law.
Methamphetamine trafficking enforcement under the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1985 involved intelligence-led seizures of tablets in Assam and Mizoram, along with the vehicles allegedly used for transportation and arrests of two vehicle occupants. Field testing indicated the presence of amphetamine. The tablets were concealed in fabricated cavities within a truck and car, with preliminary investigation indicating alleged cross-border smuggling into Mizoram. Methamphetamine is a notified psychotropic substance, and illicit manufacture, possession, transportation and trafficking attract stringent penal consequences.
August 29, 2026
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IPO disclosure integrity triggers one-year market access bar for issuer and promoter-directors over fabricated quotation and misleading financial disclosures.
SEBI restrained Trafiksol ITS Technologies Ltd. and its promoter-directors from accessing or dealing in the securities market for one year and imposed monetary penalties over irregularities in its SME IPO. The action concerned overstated financial disclosures, inadequate disclosure of issue expenditure and a potential merchant-banker conflict, and proposed use of IPO proceeds based on a fabricated software-vendor quotation. The listing was deferred and IPO proceeds were placed in an interest-bearing escrow account. One promoter was directly involved in procuring the quotation, while the other failed to exercise due diligence.
August 29, 2026
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Securities market fraud involving fictitious transactions triggered market bans, disgorgement, fund restoration, and governance restrictions.
SEBI imposed securities-market restrictions, disgorgement directions and monetary penalties in relation to alleged accounting fraud involving fictitious sales, purchases, circular transactions and fraudulent ledger entries. The alleged inflation of financial results facilitated migration to the NSE main board and was followed by fraudulent preferential allotments, a bonus issue and a rights issue. Rights issue proceeds were found to have been diverted, requiring restoration with applicable interest. The company and its managing director received seven-year market prohibitions, with additional governance restrictions applying to the managing director.
August 28, 2026
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Insolvency debt settlements: political criticism alleges severe creditor haircuts favour influential corporate borrowers over ordinary debtors.
CPI(M) criticised approval of a repayment plan involving Zee Group founder Subhash Chandra, asserting that repayment of Rs 6.5 crore against creditor claims of Rs 22,006.57 crore undermines fairness in insolvency debt settlement. It alleged severe creditor haircuts and bias favouring influential corporate borrowers. The party linked the settlement to an alleged pattern of large borrowers resolving liabilities at steep discounts, shifting the burden to taxpayers and small depositors while smaller borrowers face coercive recovery measures.
August 28, 2026
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Corporate governance requires company secretaries to promote ethical practices, transparency, responsibility and institutional accountability across economic ecosystems.
Good corporate governance is central to development and depends on responsible governance, ethical practices, transparency, institutional accountability and professional excellence. Company Secretaries have an expanding role in strengthening governance practices through professional expertise. Professional institutions should promote governance standards, support institutional excellence, and evolve their practices in response to changing requirements. Their wider contribution lies in fostering a culture of ethical entrepreneurship, responsibility, transparency and sound governance.
August 28, 2026
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Proceeds-of-crime tracing prompts freezing of deposits linked to structured disposal of foreign property in a bank-loan fraud investigation.
Money-laundering investigation into alleged bank-loan fraud involving DHFL has resulted in the freezing of bank deposits held by Al Jalore Trading FZE under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act. A United Kingdom property was allegedly disposed of through a purported loan arrangement that created an encumbrance to settle an Indian liability. Sale proceeds were credited to Al Jalore Trading FZE's Indian bank account rather than to the registered owner, indicating alleged dissipation of proceeds of crime through a structured foreign-property transaction.
August 28, 2026
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Defence export authorisation reform streamlines consultations, expands unified licences, and facilitates eligible exporters' access to international markets.
Open General Export Licence arrangements permit eligible exporters to self-generate authorisations for multiple consignments of specified defence items without obtaining separate authorisation for each consignment. Three existing licence procedures are consolidated into a unified framework. Licence validity is extended to three years, and territorial coverage is expanded to all countries other than negative or sensitive nations and destinations subject to United Nations Security Council sanctions or arms embargoes. Eligible companies with long-term foreign original equipment manufacturer agreements may obtain licences aligned with the underlying contract, subject to prescribed conditions.
August 28, 2026
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IPO approval enables Jio Platforms to issue fresh equity shares, with proceeds earmarked for subsidiary debt repayment and corporate purposes.
SEBI's final observations enable Jio Platforms Ltd to proceed with an initial public offering comprising up to 27 crore newly issued equity shares. The transaction is structured as a fresh issue of shares. Offer proceeds are primarily allocated towards repayment or prepayment of outstanding borrowings of Reliance Jio Infocomm Ltd, Jio Platforms' material subsidiary, with the balance designated for general corporate purposes.
August 28, 2026
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Gold price volatility intensified as dollar strength, profit-booking, and customs-duty-cut reports pressured domestic bullion markets.
Domestic bullion prices declined for a third consecutive session as a stronger US dollar and sustained profit-booking after a recent rally weakened gold and silver. Gold fell sharply in the national capital and silver also declined in domestic trading, with the three-day movement reflecting ongoing price volatility in the bullion market. International spot gold remained marginally lower while investors awaited policy-related remarks concerning inflation and elevated yields.
August 28, 2026
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Direct benefit transfer strengthens welfare delivery through Jan Dhan accounts, digital payments, reduced intermediaries, and expanded financial inclusion.
Direct Benefit Transfer has transferred welfare benefits directly to beneficiaries, largely through Jan Dhan accounts, reducing intermediaries and supporting transparent delivery. The Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana provides unbanked adults basic accounts without minimum-balance or maintenance-charge requirements, along with RuPay debit cards, accident insurance coverage, and emergency overdraft access. Banking outlets, digital-payment infrastructure, and Bank Mitras extend formal financial services to women, rural and semi-urban communities, strengthening financial inclusion and participation in the formal economy.
August 28, 2026
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Foreign exchange reserves reached a record level, supported by increases in foreign currency assets and gold holdings.
India's foreign exchange reserves increased by USD 12.422 billion to an all-time high of USD 729.328 billion for the week ended 21 August. Foreign currency assets and gold reserves recorded the principal increases, while special drawing rights and the reserve position with the IMF also rose. Foreign currency asset valuation reflects movements in non-US currencies held in the reserves. FCNR(B) and concessional swap arrangements were introduced to attract additional foreign-exchange inflows.
August 28, 2026
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IPO regulatory approval enables Jio Platforms to advance preparations for its proposed fresh equity share public offering.
Jio Platforms Ltd. has obtained Sebi's final observations for its proposed initial public offering. This key regulatory stage enables further preparations for the public issue, subject to applicable regulatory requirements. The proposed offering comprises up to 27 crore fresh equity shares and is expected to account for approximately 2.9 per cent of the company's post-issue equity base.
August 28, 2026
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Financial inclusion through basic bank accounts expands banking access with no-balance accounts, debit cards, and emergency overdraft support.
Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana enables unbanked adults to open basic bank accounts without minimum-balance or maintenance-charge requirements. Accounts include a free RuPay debit card with accident insurance coverage and eligibility for an overdraft facility during emergencies. The scheme promotes digital transactions, financial security and participation in the formal economy, while extending banking access to rural and semi-urban communities and increasing women's financial inclusion.
August 28, 2026
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Flexible personal loan repayment enables eligible borrowers to select longer tenures, subject to eligibility, terms, verification, and repayment capacity.
Bajaj Finance personal loans offer eligible customers collateral-free borrowing with flexible repayment tenures of 12 to 108 months, subject to eligibility, applicable terms, verification and documentation. A longer tenure may reduce monthly EMIs by spreading repayment over more months, but can increase total interest payable. Borrowers should compare the interest rate, tenure, EMI, processing charges and other costs, while considering their income, existing commitments and repayment capacity. Loan Utsav 2026 provides limited-period rewards for eligible customers whose loans are successfully disbursed during the campaign period, subject to applicable terms.

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Form 69 - Frequently Asked Questions

March 28, 2026

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Form 69 - Frequently Asked Questions

Form for filing statement of income of a Specified fund eligible for concessional taxation under section 210(2) of the Income-tax Act’ 2025

Name of form as per I.T. Rules, 1962

Form 10-IH

Name of form as per I.T. Rules, 2026

69

Corresponding section of I.T. Act, 1961

Section 115AD (1A)

Corresponding section of I.T. Act, 2025

section 210(2)

Corresponding Rule of I.T. Rules, 1962

Rule 21AJ

Corresponding Rule of I.T. Rules, 2026

140

1: What is Form 69 ?

Ans: Form 69 is the prescribed form for filing statement of income of a specified fund which is eligible for taxation at concessional rates under section 210(2) of the Income-tax Act’ 2025 (“ITA 2025”). Income of a specified fund (i.e. a fund certified as Category III Alternate Investment Fund, Retail fund or Exchange Traded Fund) which is attributable to units held by non-resident (not being a permanent establishment of a non-resident in India), as calculated in the manner prescribed in the Rue 140, is eligible for taxation at concessional rates, under these provisions. However, to claim the benefit of concessional taxation, the specified fund is required to fine an annual statement of such income in this Form.

2: Who should file Form 69?

Ans: The specified fund is required to file this form to claim the benefit of concessional taxation in respect of income which is attributable to units held by a non-resident (not being the permanent establishment of such non-resident in India), under section 210(2) of the ITA 2025.

3. Who is required to verify the Form 69?

Ans. The Principal Officer/Managing Trustee of the specified fund, seeking to claim the benefit of concessional taxation under the aforesaid provisions, is required to verify the correctness of information provided in the Form, as also that provided in its Annexures. He is further required to affirm that the eligibility conditions for claiming such benefit, as stipulated in Schedule VI [Note 1(g)(i)] of the ITA 2025 are satisfied by the specified fund.

4: Where and how the Form 69 is required to be filed?

Ans: The Form 69 shall be filed electronically on the e-filing portal of Income-tax Department. The form shall be duly verified, either under digital signature or through electronic verification code, by the Principal Officer/Managing Trustee of the specified fund.

5: What is the time limit for filing Form 69?

Ans: The statement of income of specified fund, which is eligible for the benefit of taxation at concessional rates under section 210(2) of ITA 2025, is required to be filed in Form 69 electronically on or before such “due date” for filing return of income prescribed under section 263(1)(c) of the ITA’ 2025, as may apply for the specified fund claiming the tax rate benefit. This time limit is specified in the relevant rule.

6: What documents are required to file Form 69?

Ans: The following documents may be required while filing Form 69, -

A copy of Trust deed, or Memorandum of Association, or any other legal instrument evidencing the formation of the fund

Certificate of registration issued by the IFSC

Annual financial statements of the fund for the relevant tax year

Statement of securities (held during the year and transactions executed) issued by the Broker/Custodian

Details of Unit Holders with number of units held by them and their classification by residency status i.e. resident or non-resident

7. Is Form 69 mandatory?

Ans: Filing of a valid Form 69 within the specified time limit, is a mandatory condition for making an admissible claim of taxation at concessional rates by a specified fund, in respect of income which is attributable to units held by a non-resident (not being the permanent establishment of such non-resident in India), under section 210(2) of the ITA 2025.

8: Can I edit Form 69 after submission?

Ans: No. Once Form 69 is validly submitted, after verification by the Principal Officer/Managing Trustee of the specified fund, and acknowledgment is generated, it cannot be edited. Please ensure that all details are correct before final submission.

9: Do I need to attach any document with the Form 69?

Ans: The following documents are mandatory to be attached, as required in Part B of the Form 69, in the detailed format as given in the Form-

Annexure 1- Details of income from securities as referred to in section 210(1) [Table Sl. No. 1]

Annexure 2- Detail of capital gains arising on transfer of securities as referred to in section 210(1) [Table Sl. No. 2 to 5]

Copy of registration certificate of the fund

10: While filling Part A and Part B, can I leave any field blank?

Ans:

PAN of the Specified Fund is mandatory. Name and complete address thereof shall be prefilled, which can be updated by the user. Status is pre-filled.

An updated Email address and Mobile number would ensure faster communication and verification; therefore it is recommended to provide it.

Details of registration of the specified fund are mandatory fields.

Details of income eligible for concessional taxation in Part B are to be taken as per the relevant columns of Annexures 1 and 2.

11: What if the specified fund does not have a PAN?

Ans: Form 10-IH cannot be submitted without a valid PAN of the specified fund, as also a valid PAN of the Principal Officer/Managing Trustee verifying the Form.

12: Can Form 69 be filed offline?

Ans: No. Form 69 can only be submitted online through the Income Tax e-Filing portal.

13: Why is Form 69 important?

Ans: Filing of a valid statement of exempt income in Form 69 within the specified time limit is a mandatory compliance for claiming the benefit of taxation at concessional rates by the specified fund, in respect of income which is attributable to units held by a non-resident (not being the permanent establishment of such non-resident in India), under section 210(2) of the ITA 2025. However, the claim is further subject to fulfillment of various other eligibility conditions, as prescribed in the statute and relevant rules.   

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