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March 26, 2026
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Freight disruption and export relief measures shape India's response to West Asia-linked logistics stress and production shortages.
West Asia-related disruption in shipping and logistics has led to steep increases in freight charges, container shortages, stranded cargo and shipment cancellations affecting exporters in eastern India. Perishable goods, engineering products, textiles and medicines are among the sectors most affected, while the LPG supply crunch has added to production difficulties and air cargo costs have risen because of route changes and cancellations. The text also refers to relief measures, including waiver-based port concessions, the RELIEF scheme for conflict-linked losses and reimbursement support for eligible MSME exporters.
March 26, 2026
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Production compliance certificate governs carry forward and set-off benefits for amalgamated companies under the income tax rules.
Form 29 is the mandatory certificate under Rule 60 for an amalgamated company claiming carry forward and set-off of accumulated losses and unabsorbed depreciation under Section 116(4)(b)(iii). It certifies achievement and maintenance of the prescribed production level in acquired industrial undertakings, requires electronic filing with the return of income, and may cover multiple amalgamating companies. The production condition is 50% of installed capacity within four years of amalgamation and maintenance up to five years, with possible governmental relaxation in suitable cases.
March 26, 2026
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Slump sale reporting requires accountant certification of net worth and capital gains through online Form 28 filing.
Accountant's report in Form No. 28 (Form No. 3CEA) is required for an assessee undertaking a slump sale to certify the computation of net worth and capital gains under the Income Tax Act, 2025. The form applies where an undertaking or division is transferred as a going concern for a lump-sum consideration without assigning individual values to assets and liabilities. It must be furnished online on the income tax e-filing portal on or before the due date for filing the assessee's income tax return.
March 26, 2026
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Slump sale reporting under income tax law requires mandatory accountant certification, online filing, and timely submission through Form 28.
Form No. 28 is the accountant's report required under section 77(4) of the Income-tax Act, 2025 for computation of capital gains in a slump sale. It applies where an undertaking or division is transferred as a going concern for lump-sum consideration without assigning separate values to assets and liabilities, and it is mandatory for certifying net worth and capital gains. The form must be filed once in a year on or before the due date for the income-tax return, only online, and cannot be edited after submission. A valid PAN is required.
March 26, 2026
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Capital gains attribution framework for specified entities filing Form 27 with valuation support and electronic certification.
Form 27 is filed by every specified entity to furnish details of the amount attributed to capital assets remaining with the entity where a specified person receives capital asset or stock-in-trade on dissolution or reconstitution. It supports computation under Rule 50 and must be certified on the basis of a registered valuer's report. The form is filed electronically with the return of income and includes particulars of the amount taxable, its attribution to remaining assets, and the valuer's details.
March 26, 2026
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Form No. 27 reporting requirement governs valuation-based attribution of income on dissolution or reconstitution of a specified entity.
Form No. 27 is a mandatory income-tax reporting form prescribed under Rule 50 for a specified entity where income becomes taxable under section 67(10) on dissolution or reconstitution and a specified person receives capital asset, stock-in-trade, or both. It operationalises the attribution of such taxable income to the capital assets remaining with the specified entity and must be furnished for each tax year in which the relevant event occurs. The form requires electronic filing with the return of income and valuation-based attribution supported by a registered valuer's report.
March 26, 2026
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Tax audit Form No. 26 standardises disclosures, audit reporting, and filing requirements under the new income tax framework.
Prescribed Form No. 26 is the audit report and statement of particulars under section 63 of the Income-tax Act, 2025 read with rule 47 of the Income-tax Rules, 2026. Parts A and B contain the substantive disclosures for tax audit compliance, including books of account, method of accounting, income, expenses, losses, depreciation, deductions, international taxation, TDS/TCS, indirect taxation and quantitative details. Part C applies where accounts are audited under another law, while Part D applies where they are not. The form is required for specified business and professional thresholds and certain presumptive taxation cases, and is furnished through a structured online filing process.
March 26, 2026
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Mandatory audit reporting under Form No. 26 introduces clause-wise disclosures, UDIN compliance, and schedule-based tax audit filing.
Form No. 26 is the mandatory audit report and statement of particulars for persons carrying on business or profession whose accounts are required to be audited under section 63. It applies from tax years commencing on or after 1 April 2026, is due one month before the return filing deadline, and must be signed by an Accountant with UDIN, and FRN where applicable. The form uses Part B clause-wise Yes/No reporting with trigger-based schedules, and Parts C and D for audit reporting depending on whether accounts are audited under another law.
March 26, 2026
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Daily case register requirements for medical professionals under tax rules, including maintenance, exceptions, and non-filing status.
Form No. 25 prescribes a daily case register for medical professionals under Rule 46 of the Income-tax Rules, 2026. It records the patient's name, nature of service, fees charged, and date of receipt of fees. The form is mandatory for persons engaged in the medical profession, subject to the stated gross-receipts exceptions, and is maintained in addition to books of account. It is not furnished to the Department and has no due date.
March 26, 2026
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Daily case register compliance for medical practitioners requires tabular records, electronic access safeguards, and preservation obligations.
Form No. 25 is the prescribed daily case register for practitioners of any system of medicine under Rule 46 of the Income-tax Rules, 2026, subject to the prescribed gross receipt threshold and the position of newly set-up medical practices. It records patient and fee particulars in tabular form, is not furnished to the Income-tax Department, but must be maintained daily, produced before the Assessing Officer when called for, may be kept electronically with India-based access and backups, and must be preserved for seven tax years or until completion of reassessment proceedings.
March 26, 2026
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Permanent establishment audit reporting for royalty and technical services income now uses a structured Chartered Accountant certification format.
Form No. 24 is a statutory audit report for non-residents and foreign companies earning royalty or fees for technical services from India through a permanent establishment or fixed place of profession in India. It requires a Chartered Accountant's certification of the correctness of income computation, verification of the PE or fixed place, maintenance of books of account, and deduction only of expenses attributable to the PE while computing income under section 59. The form is filed annually, contains structured particulars of the assessee, agreement, PE, books examined, and income computation, and is submitted through the e-filing portal with digital signature verification.
March 26, 2026
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Competition approval for additional shareholding acquisition in Valuedrive Technologies through an alternative investment and trust co-investment structure.
The Competition Commission of India approved the proposed acquisition of additional shareholding in Valuedrive Technologies Private Limited by Setu AIF Trust, Konark Trust and MMPL Trust. The transaction concerns acquisition of shares on a fully diluted basis through an alternative investment fund and private trust co-investment structure. Valuedrive Technologies Private Limited operates as an operating-cum-holding company for the Spinny Group and carries on an electronic platform business for used motor vehicles, together with related subsidiary activities.
March 26, 2026
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Competition law approval for acquisition of shares in a listed NBFC by a Japan-based banking institution.
Competition Commission of India approval was granted for the acquisition of certain shares in Shriram Finance Limited by MUFG Bank Ltd. The acquirer is a Japan-based banking institution wholly owned and controlled by Mitsubishi UFJ Financial Group, Inc., and carries on banking-related activities in India including corporate banking loans, deposit accounts, remittances, trade finance, bank guarantees and hedging. The target is a listed non-banking financial company registered with the Reserve Bank of India, classified as an Investment and Credit Company and an NBFC-Upper Layer, engaged in financing commercial goods and passenger vehicles, construction equipment, farm equipment, MSMEs, two-wheelers, gold and personal loans.
March 26, 2026
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Competition approval for acquisition of Groww Asset Management shareholding by State Street Global Advisors
Competition approval was granted for the proposed acquisition of shareholding in Groww Asset Management Limited by State Street Global Advisors, Inc. The target manages schemes of Groww Mutual Fund, including equity, hybrid, debt and exchange traded fund schemes. State Street operates under the State Street Investment Management brand as the asset management arm of State Street Corporation. The detailed order of the Commission would follow.
March 26, 2026
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Competition combination approval for Coursera and Udemy merger, creating sole control over Udemy through a subsidiary merger.
Competition Commission of India approved a proposed combination involving the merger of Chess Merger Sub, a wholly owned subsidiary of Coursera Inc., with and into Udemy Inc., with Udemy surviving as a wholly owned subsidiary of Coursera. The transaction results in Coursera acquiring sole control over Udemy, and the combined company is expected to have post-closing shareholding in which existing Coursera stockholders hold approximately 59% and existing Udemy stockholders approximately 41% on a fully diluted basis.
March 26, 2026
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Competition approval for renewable energy investment in Aditya Birla Renewables through equity subscription by GIP EM Star.
Competition Commission of India approved the subscription of certain equity share capital of Aditya Birla Renewables Limited by GIP EM Star Pte. Ltd. The acquirer is incorporated in Singapore and is ultimately linked to Global Infrastructure Management, LLC and BlackRock, Inc. The target, headquartered in Mumbai, is engaged in renewable energy power generation, including solar and wind power.
March 25, 2026
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Inflation targeting framework retained with a 4 per cent objective and a 2 per cent tolerance band for the next cycle.
The central government, in consultation with the Reserve Bank, has notified the inflation target for 1 April 2026 to 31 March 2031 at 4 per cent, with an upper tolerance level of 6 per cent and a lower tolerance level of 2 per cent. The framework continues to place the Monetary Policy Committee in charge of setting the policy rate needed to achieve the inflation objective within the prescribed band.
March 25, 2026
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Insolvency resolution delays under the bankruptcy code draw debate over tribunal capacity, creditor recoveries, and reform priorities.
Delay in insolvency resolution under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code remained the central issue in parliamentary discussion on the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (Amendment) Bill, 2025. Members referred to tribunal capacity constraints, overburdened case loads, delayed liquidation and resolution timelines, value deterioration, and low realisations to creditors as continuing problems in the insolvency ecosystem. The select committee report was noted as seeking to address these structural concerns through amendments aimed at improving the functioning of the insolvency and bankruptcy framework.
March 25, 2026
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Electricity tariff reduction cuts power charges by one paisa per unit across all consumer categories for FY27.
Electricity tariff for all consumer categories in Himachal Pradesh has been reduced by one paisa per unit for FY27, effective from 1 April 2026. The tariff order fixes the average cost of supply at Rs 6.75 per unit after truing up, resulting in a corresponding reduction in energy charges across consumer classes. The revised schedule sets category-wise tariffs for domestic, commercial, industrial, agricultural, railway, EV charging, irrigation, bulk supply, and street lighting consumers, while domestic subsidy is left to the state government decision and compensation mechanism.
March 25, 2026
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Money laundering attachment over Mahadev betting assets targets alleged proceeds of crime and overseas luxury properties.
Provisional attachment under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act was issued against immovable assets linked to the Mahadev Online Book betting operation, including luxury properties in Dubai, apartments in Burj Khalifa and two properties in Delhi. The attached assets were alleged to represent proceeds of crime generated from illegal online betting activities controlled through entities associated with the main promoter of the platform.

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Form No. 55 – Frequently Asked Questions

March 27, 2026

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Form No. 55 – Frequently Asked Questions

Form of application under section 159 of the Income-tax Act, 2025

Name of form as per I.T. Rules, 1962

Form No. 34F

Name of form as per I.T. Rules, 2026

Form No. 55

Corresponding section of I.T. Act, 1961

90/90A

Corresponding section of I.T. Act, 2025

159

Corresponding Rule of I.T. Rules, 1962

44G

Corresponding Rule of I.T. Rules, 2026

121

1. What is Form No. 55?

Ans. Form No. 55 is an application made by a resident assessee in India to the Competent Authority of India, on being aggrieved by the action or order of the tax authorities of a foreign country or specified territory that, in their view, is not in accordance with the Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement (DTAA) entered into by India with that country or territory.

2. Who should file Form No. 55?

Ans. Form No. 55 can be filed by any resident assessee in India who:

i. Believes that taxation imposed by the tax authorities of another country or specified territory on their income is not in accordance with the DTAA, resulting in double taxation or discriminatory treatment.

ii. Seeks resolution through the Competent Authority of India under the MAP provisions contained in the relevant DTAA article (generally Article 25 or 27).

iii. Has faced or anticipates an adjustment by foreign tax authorities impacting income that is also taxable in India.

3. Who is the "Competent Authority of India” for the purpose of Form No. 55?

Ans. The Joint Secretary (Foreign Tax & Tax Research – FT&TR Division) of the Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT), Ministry of Finance is the Competent Authority.

4. What is the time limit for filing Form No. 55?

Ans. The time limit is specified in the relevant DTAA, which is typically within 3 years from the first notification of the disputed action.

5. How many times can Form No. 55 be filed in a year?

Ans. It is an event-based form and is to be filed as and when an assessee is aggrieved by an action or order of foreign tax authorities that is contrary to the DTAA.

6. What documents are required to file Form No. 55?

Ans. Required documents include:

i. Copy of notice or order giving rise to action.

ii. Detailed reasons why order/action of the Tax Authority of the Treaty Partner not in accordance with the agreement along with supporting documents

iii. Details of remedy sought in the other country or specified territory along with supporting documents.

iv. Any other document relevant to the transaction.

7. How can I file Form No. 55?

Ans: Form No. 55 can be filed through the following methods:

  • Online Mode - through e-Filing portal
  • Offline Mode – through Income Tax Department’s Offline Utility Service. The "offline" process refers to preparing the data using the utility while not connected to the internet, and then uploading the generated file to the online portal for final submission

8. What are the prerequisites for online filing?

Ans. The applicant must be a registered user on the e-Filing portal with valid user ID, password, and an active PAN.

9. What is the "Offline Utility"?

Ans: The Offline Utility is a downloadable tool from the Income Tax e-Filing portal that allows users to prepare Form No. 55 data without an active internet connection.

10. How do I e-Verify form No. 55?

Ans: Form No. 55 can be e-verified through Digital Signature Certificate (DSC) or an Electronic Verification Code (EVC)- OTP-based for individuals and others. DSC is mandatory for companies and firms.

11. How do I know that the form has been successfully submitted?

Ans: Once successfully submitted and verified, an acknowledgement number and transaction ID is generated and the applicant receives a confirmation message via email and SMS.

12. Can the applicant withdraw Form No. 55 after filing?

Ans. No.

13. What is the benefit of filing Form No. 55?

Ans. By filing Form No. 55, individuals or entities can claim the benefits or relief from double taxation as per the tax treaty agreement between India and their country of residence. This can help in avoiding double taxation on the same income.

14. What is the outcome of Form No. 55?

Ans. Upon filing, the Competent Authority in India examines the case in consultation with the foreign tax authority concerned under the MAP provisions of the DTAA.

i. If both authorities agree, the resolution reached is communicated to the applicant and the Assessing Officer.

ii. The Assessing Officer then gives effect to the MAP outcome, providing the necessary tax relief.

iii. If the matter is not resolved within the DTAA-prescribed period, the applicant may pursue domestic remedies or arbitration (if available under the treaty).

15. Why is Form No. 55 important?

Ans. Form No. 55 provides a formal channel to an Indian resident taxpayer, who is faced with double taxation or an action by a foreign tax authority which is contrary to the terms of a relevant DTAA, to seek resolution through Mutual Agreement Procedure (MAP).

16. What is Mutual Agreement Procedure?

Ans. Mutual Agreement Procedure (MAP) is an alternate mechanism to resolve issues of double taxation or disputes arising under international tax treaties, where one country's Competent Authority (tax authority) works with another country’s Competent Authority. This process ensures relief from double taxation, elimination of inconsistent tax treatment, and promotes international tax certainty.

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