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    Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation develops India SDG Dashboard in partnership with United Nations Resident Coordinator Office which ...
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April 1, 2026
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Statistical data dissemination and SDG monitoring strengthened through a centralized dashboard, expert review, and public access tools.
MoSPI maintains a centralized digital mechanism for public access to its statistical publications and has developed the India SDG Dashboard in partnership with the United Nations Resident Coordinator Office as a centralized data platform for monitoring SDG indicators aligned with the National Indicator Framework. The Ministry's publications compile social and environmental statistics for evidence-based planning, policymaking, research, and analysis, while expert committees, the e-Sankhyiki portal, the Advance Release Calendar, and stakeholder consultations are used to improve coverage, dissemination, transparency, and usability.
April 1, 2026
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Perquisites and fringe benefit reporting through Form 123 for employee salary disclosures and tax valuation compliance.
Form No. 123 is the employer-issued statement for reporting the value of perquisites, fringe benefits, amenities and profits in lieu of salary provided to an employee during a financial year. It is issued where salary paid or payable exceeds one lakh and fifty thousand rupees, and it is due by 30 April of the following year. The form captures employer and employee details, valuation of perquisites, tax deducted or paid, and a declaration certifying correctness and completeness.
April 1, 2026
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Digitalisation of official statistics uses AI, machine learning and secure data systems to improve dissemination and access.
Digitalisation and technological upgradation in the Official Statistical System include modules for data collection, processing, analysis and dissemination, with a Data Innovation Lab integrating Artificial Intelligence and Machine Learning. Security by design principles, cyber security guidelines, agency-based compliance monitoring, a Chief Information Security Officer, and security audit with SSL certification support the deployment of applications. These reforms are continuous and are expected to improve data collection, validation, processing and dissemination.
April 1, 2026
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Concessional customs duty relief for eligible SEZ units enables limited DTA sales with value addition and export-linked caps.
A one-time customs relief window allows eligible SEZ manufacturing units to sell manufactured goods in the Domestic Tariff Area at concessional duty rates for a limited period. Eligibility is confined to units that commenced production on or before 31 March 2025, and the goods must have undergone minimum 20% value addition over inputs. DTA sales under the relief are capped at 30% of the highest annual FOB value of exports in any of the three preceding financial years, with certain sensitive sectors excluded and faceless assessment applying to clearances.
April 1, 2026
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Perquisite valuation statement under income tax rules continues to govern employee benefits, tax details, and return compliance.
Form No. 123 is the employer-issued statement of perquisites, fringe benefits or amenities, and profits in lieu of salary for an employee, replacing the earlier Form 12BA. It certifies valuation of monetary and non-monetary perquisites for income-tax return purposes and is generally required where salary exceeds the prescribed threshold. The form contains Part A with employer and employee particulars and Part B with perquisite-wise valuation and salary tax details, including tax deducted at source and remittance particulars.
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Form No. 122 consolidates employee salary, perquisite and tax details from multiple employers for correct tax deduction.
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Income tax declaration form helps salaried employees report multiple-employer income, house property loss, and source-based tax credits.
Form No. 122 is a consolidated declaration furnished by a salaried employee to the employer for reporting salary from another employer, house property loss, other taxable income, and tax deducted or collected at source. It is intended for employees with salary from more than one employer or other income, is beneficial rather than mandatory, and may be submitted offline or through HR/payroll without uploading to the income-tax portal or attaching it to the return of income.
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Self-declaration for no TDS on specified income: consolidated Form 121 streamlines eligibility, filing, and payer reporting.
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Tax deduction at source declaration under Form No. 121 enables eligible taxpayers to avoid TDS on specified incomes.
Form No. 121 is the declaration mechanism for receiving specified incomes without deduction of tax at source where the declarant expects tax on estimated total income for the tax year to be nil. It replaces the earlier Forms 15G and 15H and is intended for resident individuals, Hindu undivided families, and other specified eligible entities, while companies, firms, and non-residents are ineligible. The declaration must be furnished separately to each payer before the scheduled transaction date, with PAN mandatory for validity, and must be filed afresh for each tax year.
April 1, 2026
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Parliamentary debate on West Asia crisis and legislative agenda turns into clash over discussion, time allocation, and excise duty resolution.
Parliamentary proceedings saw a dispute over a demand for discussion on the West Asia crisis, with the opposition objecting to the absence of the Prime Minister from an all-party meeting and the government replying that the issue had already been addressed in Parliament. The government also sought extended sittings to clear its agenda, which included the Central Armed Police Forces (General Administration) Bill 2026, the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (Amendment) Bill, 2026, and a statutory resolution on Special Additional Excise Duty on Aviation Turbine Fuel.
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Advance rulings application Form 120 streamlines online tax certainty, detailed disclosures, and unified filing for multiple applicant categories.
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Tax-free spin-off leads Versigent to launch as an independent listed company with shares trading on NYSE.
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Advance ruling applications through Form No. 120 govern online filing, fee slabs, admissibility limits, and binding effect on tax questions.
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April 1, 2026
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Dispute resolution committee applications through Form 119 require eligibility, supporting evidence, and electronic filing for disputed tax orders.
Application to the Dispute Resolution Committee under section 379 is made in Form No. 119 by an eligible assessee aggrieved by a specified order passed by an Income-tax Authority. The form captures the applicant's particulars, the challenged order, disputed additions or disallowances, statement of facts, grounds of application, and supporting evidence. It is filed electronically through the income-tax e-filing portal with the prescribed annexures and, where applicable, payment of the application fee.
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Biomass tariff revision supports continued renewable power operations and revenue visibility for a Punjab-based 6 MW plant.
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Dispute Resolution Committee application framework under Form 119 requires electronic filing, eligibility checks, and structured disclosure.
Form 119 is the prescribed electronic application for seeking dispute resolution before the Dispute Resolution Committee under section 379 of the Income-tax Act, 2025. It is available to an eligible assessee aggrieved by a specified order passed by an Income-tax Authority, subject to statutory eligibility conditions, including payment of tax on returned income where a return has been filed. Filing is optional, separate applications are required for each tax year and each specified order, and the form must be submitted electronically and cannot be revised after submission.
April 1, 2026
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Deferment of appeal for identical question of law enables later filing after the pending case is finally decided.
Form 118 is prescribed for an application to defer filing an appeal before the High Court or the Income-tax Appellate Tribunal where the relevant case involves an identical question of law already pending in another case. The appellant files the form before the appropriate forum with supporting documents showing the identical question of law and the other pending proceeding. The forum examines whether the statutory conditions for deferment are satisfied, and if accepted, filing of the appeal is deferred until the final decision on the identical question of law in the other case.
April 1, 2026
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Deferred appeal on identical question of law under Form 118 requires assessee acceptance and collegium review.
Form 118 is used by the Income-tax Department to defer filing of an appeal before the Income-tax Appellate Tribunal or the High Court where the relevant case involves an identical question of law already pending in another case before the High Court or the Supreme Court. The procedure depends on collegium consideration and the assessee's acceptance that the questions are identical. The form is filed manually by the Assessing Officer on directions of the Principal Commissioner or Commissioner, cannot be revised after submission, and operates only until the identical legal issue attains finality.
April 1, 2026
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GST collections rise on strong domestic demand, higher import revenues, and recovering momentum after rate rationalisation.
GST collections increased in the reported month, with gross receipts rising on the strength of both domestic supplies and import-related revenues. After adjustment for refunds, net GST revenues also recorded year-on-year growth, indicating continued buoyancy in tax mobilisation. The trend was linked to a recent GST rate rationalisation, including lower rates on many goods and a simplified slab structure, with collections initially dipping after the tax cut before recovering in later months.
April 1, 2026
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Quality-controlled masterbatch manufacturing links R&D, regulatory compliance, and application-specific products across export markets.
Masterbatch and compound manufacturing is presented as a quality-controlled, export-oriented activity built on regulatory compliance, R&D support, and structured batch testing for colour consistency, dispersion, mechanical performance, and stability. The product range is described as application-specific, including laser marking masterbatches, flame retardant masterbatches meeting UL 94 ratings, long glass fibre reinforced compounds for metal replacement, and amber colour masterbatches for pharmaceutical packaging that comply with global regulatory requirements.

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Form No. 49 - Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs)

March 27, 2026

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Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs)

Form No. 49 (Merged form of erstwhile Forms 3CEFA, 3CEFB and 3CEFC)

Application for opting for Safe Harbour under section 167 of the Income-tax Act, 2025

Name of form as per I.T. Rules, 1962

Forms 3CEFA, 3CEFB and 3CEFC

Name of form as per I.T. Rules, 2026

Form No. 49

Corresponding section of I.T. Act, 1961

92CB

Corresponding section of I.T. Act, 2025

167

Corresponding Rule of I.T. Rules, 1962

10TA to 10TIC

Corresponding Rule of I.T. Rules, 2026

86 to 102

1. What is Form No. 49?

Ans: Form No. 49 is a prescribed e-form to opt for Safe Harbour under section 167 of the Income-tax Act, 2025 read with rules 86 to 102 of the Income-tax Rules, 2026. The form is a merged and simplified version of the erstwhile Forms 3CEFA, 3CEFB and 3CEFC.

2. Why have Forms 3CEFA, 3CEFB and 3CEFC been merged into a single form?

Ans: The three forms have been merged to simplify compliance, reduce duplication, and enable a unified, system-driven (smart) e-form. The merged form allows an assessee to opt for Safe Harbour for eligible international transaction (EIT), eligible specified domestic transaction (ESDT) and/or eligible business (EB) through a single application.

3. Who is required to file Form No. 49?

Ans: All eligible assessees as per Rule 87/95/99(c), intending to opt for Safe Harbour shall file the Form No. 49 for the relevant tax year with respect to:

i. EIT as per Rule 88, and/or

ii. ESDT as per Rule 96, and/or

iii. EB as per Rule 99(d).

4. Is filing of Form No. 49 mandatory?

Ans: No. Filing of Form No. 49 is required only if an eligible assessee intends to opt for the Safe Harbour provisions.

5. What is the due date for filing Form No. 49?

Ans: While Form No. 49 is generally filed for a relevant tax year, for EIT of provision of information technology services, it can be filed for the relevant tax years up to 30th June of the financial year immediately succeeding the first tax year out of a period of five consecutive tax years. For other eligible transactions, the due date remains on or before the due date specified in section 263(1)(b). However, the return of income for the relevant tax year is to be furnished on or before the date of furnishing the form.

6. How can Form No. 49 be filed?

Ans: Form No. 49 can be filed electronically through the Income-tax e-filing portal using the assessee’s user ID and password.

7. Can Form No. 49 be filed offline?

Ans: No. Form No. 49 is an electronic form and can be filed only in online mode through the e-filing portal.

8. What are the main parts of Form No. 49?

Ans: Form No. 49 consists of the two main parts:

  • PART A: Particulars of the person (basic information).
  • PART B: Other Information consisting of five sub-items: Option for Safe Harbour, Tax Year(s), Eligible International Transaction (EIT), Eligible Specified Domestic Transaction (ESDT), and Eligible Business (EB).

9. Can an assessee fill more than one part of the form?

Ans: Depending upon eligibility, an assessee can opt for Safe Harbour for one or more of the following:

i. Eligible International Transaction (EIT),

ii. Eligible Specified Domestic Transaction (ESDT), and/or

iii. Eligible Business (EB).

The form is a smart form and only the relevant part(s) of the form will be displayed electronically, depending upon the option(s) selected by the applicant.

10. What are the eligible international transactions?

Ans: Eligible international transactions specified under rule 88 includes:

(a) provision of information technology services consisting of any one or more of the following:—

(i) provision of software development services;

(ii) provision of information technology enabled services;

(iii) provision of knowledge process outsourcing services;

(iv) provision of contract research and development services wholly or partly relating to software development with insignificant risk, to a non-resident associated enterprise;

(b) advance of intra-group loan;

(c) provision of corporate guarantee, where the amount guaranteed, —

(i) does not exceed one hundred crore rupees; or

(ii) exceeds one hundred crore rupees, and the credit rating of the associated enterprise, done by an agency registered with the Securities and Exchange Board of India, is of the adequate to highest safety;

(d) provision of contract research and development services wholly or partly relating to generic pharmaceutical drugs with insignificant risk, to a non-resident associated enterprise;

(e) manufacture and export of core auto components;

(f) manufacture and export of non-core auto components; or

(g) receipt of low value-adding intra-group services from one or more members of its group; or

(h) provision of the data centre services.

11. Can details of multiple associated enterprises (AEs) be reported in the form?

Ans: Yes. For each eligible transaction, details of one or more associated enterprises can be furnished by adding multiple rows in the relevant tables.

12. Is it mandatory to provide Taxpayer Identification Number (TIN) of the associated enterprise?

Ans: Yes. TIN of the associated enterprise (AE) in the country or territory of residence is a mandatory field. PAN of AE may be provided where available.

13. Are transactions with AEs located in no-tax or low-tax jurisdictions eligible for Safe Harbour?

Ans: No. If the associated enterprise is located in a country or territory notified as no-tax or low-tax jurisdiction or notified under section 176 of the Income-tax Act, 2025, Safe Harbour is not available for such transaction(s).

14. What additional details are required for EIT being ‘advance of intra-group loans’?

Ans: Additional details such as denomination of loan, amount, currency, interest rate, credit rating are required to be furnished. Also, if the loan is in foreign currency, whether the loan advanced to the AE including all loans to all AEs exceed Rs. 250 crore as on 31st March of the tax year to be indicated through ‘Yes’ or ‘No’.

15. What additional details are required for EIT being ‘provision of corporate guarantee’?

Ans: Additional details such rate of commission or fee charged and amount of corporate guarantee to be provided. Also, whether the amount guaranteed exceeds Rs. 100 crore to be indicated through ‘Yes’ or ‘No’.

16. When is credit rating mandatory for intra-group loans and corporate guarantees?

Ans: Credit rating is required in accordance with the circumstances specified under Rule 89(2). In case of corporate guarantees exceeding INR 100 crore, credit rating by a SEBI-registered agency is mandatory.

17. What additional details are required for EIT being ‘receipt of low value-adding intragroup services’?

Ans: Additional details such amount of EIT excluding mark-up, mark-up, amount of EIT including mark-up and details of certificate of accountant to be provided. Also, certificate of the accountant to be uploaded as Annexure.

18. Who is eligible assessee for Eligible Specified Domestic Transaction (ESDT)?

Ans: The “eligible assessee” means a person who has exercised a valid option for application of safe harbour rules in accordance with the provisions of Rule 97, and:

i. is a government companies engaged in generation, supply, transmission or distribution of electricity, or

ii. is a co-operative society engaged in procuring and marketing milk and milk products.

19. Who is eligible assessee for Eligible Business (EB)?

Ans: Eligible assessee for Eligible Business (EB) means:—

(i) a foreign company engaged in the business of diamond mining which has exercised an option for application of safe harbour rules in accordance with Rule 100; or

(ii) a foreign company who stores components in a warehouse in a custom bonded area for providing them to a contract manufacturer to be used for manufacturing of specified electronic goods.

20. What is eligible business for safe harbour rules?

Ans: Eligible Business (EB) means:—

(i) a business of selling raw diamonds in any notified special zone as referred under section 9(8)(c)(ii)(C); or

(ii) the business activity of storage of components in a warehouse in a custom bonded area for sale to a contract manufacturer to be used for manufacturing of specified electronic goods.

21. What are raw diamonds?

Ans: Raw diamonds mean diamonds that are, –

(i) uncut or unpolished;

(ii) unassorted;

(iii) unworked or simply sawn, cleaved or bruted;

(iv) not conflict diamonds as defined by the Kimberley Process;

(v) accompanied by Kimberley Process Certificate issued by the Kimberley Process

(vi) authority in the exporting country; and falling under Tariff Heading 7102 of the First Schedule to the Customs Tariff Act, 1975 (51 of 1975).

22. What are specified electronic goods?

Ans: Specified electronic goods mean:—

(i) mobile phones;

(ii) laptops, all-in-one personal computers and tablets;

(iii) servers and ultra small form factor (USSF);

(iv) sub-assemblies to the finished goods mentioned above; or

(v) hearables and wearables and accessories related to the finished goods mentioned above.

23. What happens if profits of the eligible business are less than the prescribed threshold?

Ans: If the profits and gains of the eligible business are less than the threshold mentioned in Rule 100, the assessee is not eligible for Safe Harbour.

24. What information/document is required for filing Form No. 49?

Ans: The following information/document is required for filing Form No. 49:

i. Documentation prescribed under section 171 of the Income-tax Act, 2025 and Rule 89 of the Income-tax Rules, 2026.

ii. Report from an accountant under section 172 of the Income-tax Act, 2025 and Rule 90 of the Income-tax Rules, 2026.

iii. Chartered Accountant’s certificate – If the eligible assessee has entered into any international transaction in respect of receipt of low value-adding intra-group services, the method of cost pooling, the exclusion of shareholder costs and duplicate costs from the cost pool and the reasonableness of the allocation keys used for allocation of costs to the assessee by the overseas associated enterprise is to be certified by an accountant.

iv. Credit rating of AE if an eligible assessee has advanced intra-group loans or provided corporate guarantee, wherever applicable.

25. How is Form No. 49 verified?

Ans: Form No. 49 is required to be e-verified using the prescribed modes such as Digital Signature Certificate (DSC) or Electronic Verification Code (EVC), as applicable.

***

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