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    Form No. 145 – Frequently Asked Questions
    Guidance Note – Form 144
    Dependent on supply from southern states, Maharashtra plans to develop egg brand
    Unusual extension of Budget session that saw passage of key bills despite Oppn uproar
    Haryana logs 22 pc growth in SGST revenue in FY26
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April 3, 2026
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Mandatory foreign remittance declaration governs payments to non-residents, with exemptions, verification rules, and penalty exposure for non-compliance.
Mandatory declaration is required before remitting funds outside India to a non-resident, other than a company, or to a foreign company. The form is filed by the person responsible for the payment, subject to specified exemptions, and must be furnished before the remittance is made. The filing structure depends on whether the remittance is chargeable to tax, the applicable threshold during the tax year, and whether an Assessing Officer certificate or an Accountant's certificate has been obtained. Supporting documents, e-verification, withdrawal rights, and penalty consequences are also specified.
April 3, 2026
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Tax deducted at source on non-resident payments is reported through Form 144 with quarterly deductee-wise compliance requirements.
Quarterly statement in Form No. 144 is the prescribed TDS return for reporting tax deducted at source on payments other than salary made to non-resident persons, including non-resident Indians and foreign companies. The form covers interest, royalty, technical fees, dividends, and similar cross-border remittances, and is filed by deductors for the relevant tax year. It contains deductor particulars, tax paid details, and a deductee-wise annexure, and requires challans, PAN details, and treaty documents where benefits are claimed.
April 2, 2026
Show AI Summary
Egg brand initiative to boost poultry farming, strengthen local production and support rural entrepreneurship in Maharashtra.
Maharashtra is planning to develop a state-specific egg brand and expand poultry farming to strengthen local egg production, reduce dependence on imports from southern states and improve supply chain stability. The initiative is linked to rural entrepreneurship and allied agricultural activity, with the aim of creating a stable market for poultry farmers, improving quality assurance and increasing incomes in rural areas. Financial assistance is being provided under the Mukhyamantri Gramin Pashudhan Udyojakata Yojana for poultry units at two levels, with higher subsidy support for SC and ST beneficiaries.
April 2, 2026
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Parliamentary legislative reform advanced across insolvency, service law, decriminalisation, and transgender rights during the extended Budget session.
Parliament's extended Budget session focused on key legislative measures covering financial business, service law reform, decriminalisation, insolvency reform, state reorganisation, and transgender rights. Bills reported as passed or considered included measures on Central Armed Police Forces, Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation, transgender persons' protection, Jan Vishwas amendments, and the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, with some bills referred for further scrutiny and one proposed amendment on foreign contribution not taken up.
April 2, 2026
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GST revenue growth and tax administration reforms lifted Haryana's SGST collections and expanded the taxpayer base.
Haryana recorded 22 per cent growth in gross State GST revenue in FY26, with post-settlement SGST collections rising to Rs 48,289 crore and its national rank improving from ninth to sixth. The number of registered GST taxpayers increased to 6,30,818, while the growth was linked to GST rate rationalisation reforms and improved tax administration.
April 2, 2026
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GST revenue growth in Bihar remained strong despite rate rationalisation, election slowdown, and IGST settlement deductions.
Bihar's commercial taxes department reported total revenue collections of Rs 43,324 crore for the 2025-26 financial year, with GST collections of Rs 32,801 crore and net GST receipt of Rs 32,077 crore after IGST settlement deduction. The department said the 9.2 per cent GST growth remained significant despite GST rate rationalisation and an election-related slowdown. The state ranked fourth among large states in total GST collection, while petrol collections declined and the Registration Department exceeded its revenue target.
April 2, 2026
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Foreign exchange controls tighten as RBI caps bank rupee positions and restricts derivative rebooking to curb volatility.
Reserve Bank of India measures were reported to have triggered a sharp recovery in the rupee after recent foreign exchange volatility. The action included a cap on the net open position in the Indian rupee for banks, a bar on offering non-deliverable derivative contracts involving the rupee to resident or non-resident users, and a restriction on rebooking cancelled foreign exchange derivative contracts. The measures were described as a response to evolving market conditions and to curb risk in derivative activity.
April 2, 2026
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Foreign exchange counters at airports can now exchange Indian rupee notes for residents and non-residents beyond immigration controls.
Residents, as well as non-residents, may exchange Indian rupee notes at foreign exchange counters in departure halls of international airports beyond the immigration or customs desk. The earlier facility at such counters was limited to buying Indian rupees from non-residents and selling foreign currency to them. The Master Direction on Money Changing Activities is being amended to reflect the expanded exchange scope.
April 2, 2026
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Tax deduction statements for non-resident payments require quarterly electronic filing, with correction statements allowed after processing.
Form No. 144 is the quarterly statement for deduction of tax at source on payments other than salary made to non-residents. It is mandatory for every deductor required to deduct tax on such payments, must be filed electronically within the prescribed quarterly due dates, and cannot be edited after submission. Corrections may be filed after processing by CPC-TDS within two years from the end of the relevant tax year. Successful filing on TRACES generates an Acknowledgment Receipt Number.
April 2, 2026
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LPG supply prioritisation reshapes refinery allocations as propylene is partly redirected to ease petrochemical shortages.
The government has adjusted refinery output directions in response to LPG import disruptions and petrochemical feedstock shortages. After requiring C3 and C4 streams to be used exclusively for LPG production, the Ministry later allowed part of the propylene supply to return to the petrochemical industry. The policy is presented as a balance between domestic LPG supply security and the needs of sectors such as packaging and condom manufacturing, alongside partial restoration and enhancement of commercial LPG allocations for priority consumers.
April 2, 2026
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Tax collected at source reporting through Form 143 streamlines quarterly filing, certificate issuance, and collectee credit tracking.
Quarterly reporting of tax collected at source is filed in Form No. 143 by collectors responsible for collection on specified transactions under the Income-tax Act, 2025. The form requires collector particulars, challan and deposit details, and collectee-wise annexure information on amounts, dates, rates, tax collected and deposited, with quarterly due dates and utility-based electronic filing. Processing may lead to default corrections, issuance of the collectee tax certificate, and reflection of TCS as credit in the collectee's tax record.
April 2, 2026
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Tax collection at source statement filing requires quarterly electronic submission, correction limits, and acknowledgment on the portal.
Form No. 143 is the mandatory quarterly electronic statement for collection of tax at source on specified goods and transactions, to be filed by the collector, seller, operator or authorised person responsible for collection at the time of debit or receipt of payment. It follows a quarterly due-date schedule, cannot be edited after submission, and may be corrected only through a correction statement after processing by CPC-TDS, within two years from the end of the relevant tax year. Successful filing generates an Acknowledgment Receipt Number on the TRACES portal.
April 2, 2026
Show AI Summary
Virtual Digital Asset TDS reporting requires quarterly electronic filing by exchanges with transaction-wise deduction, exemption, and challan details.
Form No. 142 is the quarterly electronic statement to be furnished by a Virtual Digital Asset exchange for reporting tax deducted at source on transfer of virtual digital assets and transactions where tax was not deducted under the notified exemption framework. It must be filed with the Director General of Income-tax (Systems) and includes exchange particulars, transaction details, challan data and a declaration of correctness. The filing process uses the e-filing portal and supports smart features such as auto-population, validation, API integration and standardised fields.
April 2, 2026
Show AI Summary
Virtual digital asset tax reporting requires quarterly exchange filing, full tax deposit, and electronic submission with challan details.
Form No. 142 is a PAN-based quarterly statement to be filed electronically by a Virtual Digital Asset exchange that has agreed to deposit tax on transfers of virtual digital assets in place of deduction by the buyer or broker. It applies to VDA transactions where the exchange deposits tax, including purchase, exchange, and partly or fully in-kind settlements, and is mandatory for reporting transactions covered by the prescribed TDS mechanism. The form is filed quarterly, captures exchange, buyer or broker, transaction, and challan details, and requires full tax deposit before submission.
April 2, 2026
Show AI Summary
Combined TDS Form 141 streamlines reporting for rent, property, professional fees, and virtual digital asset transfers.
Form No. 141 is the combined PAN-based challan-cum-statement for reporting and depositing tax deducted at source on rent, transfer of immovable property, specified professional, contract, commission and brokerage payments, and transfer of virtual digital assets. It replaces the earlier separate Forms 26QB, 26QC, 26QD and 26QE, is filed electronically within 30 days from the end of the month of deduction, and uses separate schedules for each transaction category. The revised form also allows consolidated reporting for same-status parties and introduces prefilled details, smart validations, standardised fields, and correction mechanisms.
April 2, 2026
Show AI Summary
Settlement-linked quashing of proceedings keeps SEBI closure issue alive for Sterling Biotech and the Sandesara brothers.
Settlement-linked quashing of proceedings concerning Sterling Biotech Limited and the Sandesara brothers remained under consideration, with the Supreme Court indicating that SEBI must close its proceedings in view of the earlier order under which deposit of the settlement amount was to trigger quashing of all proceedings. The Court recorded that the amount had already been deposited in the registry and that the earlier order had been given effect to, while SEBI sought time after internal deliberations on the closure issue.
April 2, 2026
Show AI Summary
Trade liberalisation under India-Australia ECTA expands market access, boosts exports, and advances zero-duty access for Indian goods.
India-Australia Economic Cooperation and Trade Agreement has completed four years, marking stronger bilateral economic engagement through expanded market access, reduced trade barriers, and deeper trade and supply-chain linkages. India has granted preferential access on 70.3% of its tariff lines, while Australia has granted preferential access on 100% of its tariff lines and imports from India, with most lines duty-free immediately and all Indian exports eligible for zero-duty access from 1 January 2026. The Mutual Recognition Arrangement on Organic Products supports trade by recognising certification systems and reducing duplication, cost, and time.
April 2, 2026
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Customs duty exemption on critical petrochemical inputs aims to ease supply disruptions and support downstream manufacturing.
Full customs duty exemption is granted on critical petrochemical products as a temporary and targeted relief measure in response to the ongoing conflict in West Asia and resulting supply chain disruptions. The exemption continues until 30 June 2026 and is intended to ensure continued availability of essential petrochemical inputs for domestic industry, reduce cost pressures on downstream sectors, and maintain supply stability. The notified products cover petrochemical feedstock, intermediates and related industrial inputs used across multiple manufacturing sectors.
April 2, 2026
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Consolidated TDS reporting through Form 141 streamlines tax deduction filing, schedule-wise payment, and compliance for specified transactions.
Form No. 141 is a single consolidated challan-cum-statement for reporting and payment of tax deducted at source on specified transactions through separate schedules instead of multiple standalone forms. It replaces Forms 26QB, 26QC, 26QD and 26QE, and requires only the relevant schedule to be completed for the transaction reported. The form is filed using PAN, not TAN, and is available for rent, immovable property, contractor or professional payments, and transfer of virtual digital assets, with one transaction type per form.
April 2, 2026
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Defence exports growth reflects India's indigenous manufacturing strength, wider global acceptance, and streamlined export regulation.
India's defence exports recorded a new high, driven by indigenous manufacturing strength, wider global acceptance of Indian defence products, and a collaborative ecosystem involving defence public sector undertakings and private industry. The exports reached more than 80 countries, while the number of exporters increased, reflecting growing participation in the sector. The ministry also noted that streamlined export regulatory processes, a revamped online portal, and simplified authorisation procedures supported this growth.

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Form No. 49 - Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs)

March 27, 2026

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Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs)

Form No. 49 (Merged form of erstwhile Forms 3CEFA, 3CEFB and 3CEFC)

Application for opting for Safe Harbour under section 167 of the Income-tax Act, 2025

Name of form as per I.T. Rules, 1962

Forms 3CEFA, 3CEFB and 3CEFC

Name of form as per I.T. Rules, 2026

Form No. 49

Corresponding section of I.T. Act, 1961

92CB

Corresponding section of I.T. Act, 2025

167

Corresponding Rule of I.T. Rules, 1962

10TA to 10TIC

Corresponding Rule of I.T. Rules, 2026

86 to 102

1. What is Form No. 49?

Ans: Form No. 49 is a prescribed e-form to opt for Safe Harbour under section 167 of the Income-tax Act, 2025 read with rules 86 to 102 of the Income-tax Rules, 2026. The form is a merged and simplified version of the erstwhile Forms 3CEFA, 3CEFB and 3CEFC.

2. Why have Forms 3CEFA, 3CEFB and 3CEFC been merged into a single form?

Ans: The three forms have been merged to simplify compliance, reduce duplication, and enable a unified, system-driven (smart) e-form. The merged form allows an assessee to opt for Safe Harbour for eligible international transaction (EIT), eligible specified domestic transaction (ESDT) and/or eligible business (EB) through a single application.

3. Who is required to file Form No. 49?

Ans: All eligible assessees as per Rule 87/95/99(c), intending to opt for Safe Harbour shall file the Form No. 49 for the relevant tax year with respect to:

i. EIT as per Rule 88, and/or

ii. ESDT as per Rule 96, and/or

iii. EB as per Rule 99(d).

4. Is filing of Form No. 49 mandatory?

Ans: No. Filing of Form No. 49 is required only if an eligible assessee intends to opt for the Safe Harbour provisions.

5. What is the due date for filing Form No. 49?

Ans: While Form No. 49 is generally filed for a relevant tax year, for EIT of provision of information technology services, it can be filed for the relevant tax years up to 30th June of the financial year immediately succeeding the first tax year out of a period of five consecutive tax years. For other eligible transactions, the due date remains on or before the due date specified in section 263(1)(b). However, the return of income for the relevant tax year is to be furnished on or before the date of furnishing the form.

6. How can Form No. 49 be filed?

Ans: Form No. 49 can be filed electronically through the Income-tax e-filing portal using the assessee’s user ID and password.

7. Can Form No. 49 be filed offline?

Ans: No. Form No. 49 is an electronic form and can be filed only in online mode through the e-filing portal.

8. What are the main parts of Form No. 49?

Ans: Form No. 49 consists of the two main parts:

  • PART A: Particulars of the person (basic information).
  • PART B: Other Information consisting of five sub-items: Option for Safe Harbour, Tax Year(s), Eligible International Transaction (EIT), Eligible Specified Domestic Transaction (ESDT), and Eligible Business (EB).

9. Can an assessee fill more than one part of the form?

Ans: Depending upon eligibility, an assessee can opt for Safe Harbour for one or more of the following:

i. Eligible International Transaction (EIT),

ii. Eligible Specified Domestic Transaction (ESDT), and/or

iii. Eligible Business (EB).

The form is a smart form and only the relevant part(s) of the form will be displayed electronically, depending upon the option(s) selected by the applicant.

10. What are the eligible international transactions?

Ans: Eligible international transactions specified under rule 88 includes:

(a) provision of information technology services consisting of any one or more of the following:—

(i) provision of software development services;

(ii) provision of information technology enabled services;

(iii) provision of knowledge process outsourcing services;

(iv) provision of contract research and development services wholly or partly relating to software development with insignificant risk, to a non-resident associated enterprise;

(b) advance of intra-group loan;

(c) provision of corporate guarantee, where the amount guaranteed, —

(i) does not exceed one hundred crore rupees; or

(ii) exceeds one hundred crore rupees, and the credit rating of the associated enterprise, done by an agency registered with the Securities and Exchange Board of India, is of the adequate to highest safety;

(d) provision of contract research and development services wholly or partly relating to generic pharmaceutical drugs with insignificant risk, to a non-resident associated enterprise;

(e) manufacture and export of core auto components;

(f) manufacture and export of non-core auto components; or

(g) receipt of low value-adding intra-group services from one or more members of its group; or

(h) provision of the data centre services.

11. Can details of multiple associated enterprises (AEs) be reported in the form?

Ans: Yes. For each eligible transaction, details of one or more associated enterprises can be furnished by adding multiple rows in the relevant tables.

12. Is it mandatory to provide Taxpayer Identification Number (TIN) of the associated enterprise?

Ans: Yes. TIN of the associated enterprise (AE) in the country or territory of residence is a mandatory field. PAN of AE may be provided where available.

13. Are transactions with AEs located in no-tax or low-tax jurisdictions eligible for Safe Harbour?

Ans: No. If the associated enterprise is located in a country or territory notified as no-tax or low-tax jurisdiction or notified under section 176 of the Income-tax Act, 2025, Safe Harbour is not available for such transaction(s).

14. What additional details are required for EIT being ‘advance of intra-group loans’?

Ans: Additional details such as denomination of loan, amount, currency, interest rate, credit rating are required to be furnished. Also, if the loan is in foreign currency, whether the loan advanced to the AE including all loans to all AEs exceed Rs. 250 crore as on 31st March of the tax year to be indicated through ‘Yes’ or ‘No’.

15. What additional details are required for EIT being ‘provision of corporate guarantee’?

Ans: Additional details such rate of commission or fee charged and amount of corporate guarantee to be provided. Also, whether the amount guaranteed exceeds Rs. 100 crore to be indicated through ‘Yes’ or ‘No’.

16. When is credit rating mandatory for intra-group loans and corporate guarantees?

Ans: Credit rating is required in accordance with the circumstances specified under Rule 89(2). In case of corporate guarantees exceeding INR 100 crore, credit rating by a SEBI-registered agency is mandatory.

17. What additional details are required for EIT being ‘receipt of low value-adding intragroup services’?

Ans: Additional details such amount of EIT excluding mark-up, mark-up, amount of EIT including mark-up and details of certificate of accountant to be provided. Also, certificate of the accountant to be uploaded as Annexure.

18. Who is eligible assessee for Eligible Specified Domestic Transaction (ESDT)?

Ans: The “eligible assessee” means a person who has exercised a valid option for application of safe harbour rules in accordance with the provisions of Rule 97, and:

i. is a government companies engaged in generation, supply, transmission or distribution of electricity, or

ii. is a co-operative society engaged in procuring and marketing milk and milk products.

19. Who is eligible assessee for Eligible Business (EB)?

Ans: Eligible assessee for Eligible Business (EB) means:—

(i) a foreign company engaged in the business of diamond mining which has exercised an option for application of safe harbour rules in accordance with Rule 100; or

(ii) a foreign company who stores components in a warehouse in a custom bonded area for providing them to a contract manufacturer to be used for manufacturing of specified electronic goods.

20. What is eligible business for safe harbour rules?

Ans: Eligible Business (EB) means:—

(i) a business of selling raw diamonds in any notified special zone as referred under section 9(8)(c)(ii)(C); or

(ii) the business activity of storage of components in a warehouse in a custom bonded area for sale to a contract manufacturer to be used for manufacturing of specified electronic goods.

21. What are raw diamonds?

Ans: Raw diamonds mean diamonds that are, –

(i) uncut or unpolished;

(ii) unassorted;

(iii) unworked or simply sawn, cleaved or bruted;

(iv) not conflict diamonds as defined by the Kimberley Process;

(v) accompanied by Kimberley Process Certificate issued by the Kimberley Process

(vi) authority in the exporting country; and falling under Tariff Heading 7102 of the First Schedule to the Customs Tariff Act, 1975 (51 of 1975).

22. What are specified electronic goods?

Ans: Specified electronic goods mean:—

(i) mobile phones;

(ii) laptops, all-in-one personal computers and tablets;

(iii) servers and ultra small form factor (USSF);

(iv) sub-assemblies to the finished goods mentioned above; or

(v) hearables and wearables and accessories related to the finished goods mentioned above.

23. What happens if profits of the eligible business are less than the prescribed threshold?

Ans: If the profits and gains of the eligible business are less than the threshold mentioned in Rule 100, the assessee is not eligible for Safe Harbour.

24. What information/document is required for filing Form No. 49?

Ans: The following information/document is required for filing Form No. 49:

i. Documentation prescribed under section 171 of the Income-tax Act, 2025 and Rule 89 of the Income-tax Rules, 2026.

ii. Report from an accountant under section 172 of the Income-tax Act, 2025 and Rule 90 of the Income-tax Rules, 2026.

iii. Chartered Accountant’s certificate – If the eligible assessee has entered into any international transaction in respect of receipt of low value-adding intra-group services, the method of cost pooling, the exclusion of shareholder costs and duplicate costs from the cost pool and the reasonableness of the allocation keys used for allocation of costs to the assessee by the overseas associated enterprise is to be certified by an accountant.

iv. Credit rating of AE if an eligible assessee has advanced intra-group loans or provided corporate guarantee, wherever applicable.

25. How is Form No. 49 verified?

Ans: Form No. 49 is required to be e-verified using the prescribed modes such as Digital Signature Certificate (DSC) or Electronic Verification Code (EVC), as applicable.

***

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