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April 3, 2026
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Authorised Income-tax Practitioner registration through Form 171 requires eligibility details, supporting documents, and one-time filing.
Form 171 is the prescribed application for registration as an Authorised Income-tax Practitioner under section 515 of the Income-tax Act 2025 and must be filed with the jurisdictional Chief Commissioner or Commissioner of Income-tax. The application is mandatory for recognition in that capacity, may be filed after eligibility arises, and is a one-time filing unless otherwise directed. It requires applicant particulars, eligibility details, qualifications, supporting documents, and relevant firm or association details. On approval, the applicant's name is entered in the Register of Income-tax Practitioners and a Certificate of Registration is issued.
April 3, 2026
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Annual Information Statement consolidates tax credits, payments, transactions, and proceedings in a taxpayer's e-filing account.
Form 168 operates as an auto-generated Annual Information Statement linked to a taxpayer's PAN and available in the e-filing account. It consolidates TDS, TCS, tax payments, specified financial transactions, demand and refund details, and pending or completed proceedings, together with any other prescribed information. The taxpayer does not file the form manually. It is updated dynamically during the year as underlying reports and payments are processed, and it uses Tax Year instead of Financial Year.
April 3, 2026
Show AI Summary
Annual Information Statement and taxpayer summary streamline income reporting through detailed verification, feedback correction, and consolidated return filing.
Annual Information Statement (AIS) is the detailed financial statement linked to PAN, and Taxpayer Information Summary (TIS) is its consolidated version showing category-wise totals for use in return filing. AIS contains transaction-level data, while TIS provides summarized figures such as salary, rental income, interest, capital gains, dividend, business income and taxes paid. Taxpayers should verify AIS, use the feedback mechanism for incorrect or unrelated entries, and rely on the updated TIS; actual income must still be reported in the return even if missing from AIS.
April 3, 2026
Show AI Summary
GST appeal filing blocked by NIL demand entries despite unpaid dispute over liability and prior voluntary payment.
Taxpayers may face portal restrictions when an adjudication order reflects a NIL demand because payment was made at the show cause notice stage without admitting liability. Although such payment does not amount to acceptance of the demand, the GST portal may block filing of appeal application APL-01 when no liability is captured in the Demand and Collection Register. The taxpayer may seek rectification of the order so that the correct demand amount is reflected and the appeal can then be filed within the prescribed time.
April 3, 2026
Show AI Summary
Annual reporting for film production and specified activities under the income-tax framework now requires structured disclosure and TDS linkage.
Form 164 requires persons engaged in cinematograph film production or notified specified activities to furnish an annual statement for each tax year under section 507 of the Income-tax Act, 2025, read with Rule 236. The statement is due within 60 days from the end of the tax year and covers filer particulars, film or activity details, and payment and TDS information, including aggregate payments above the prescribed threshold linked to the relevant film or activity. The revised format uses three parts and standardised digital reporting.
April 3, 2026
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Mandatory annual statement for film production and specified activities covers incomplete projects, threshold payments, TAN, and electronic filing status.
A mandatory annual statement is required under section 507 of the Income-tax Act, 2025 for persons engaged in cinematograph film production or specified activities such as event management, sports events, documentary production, OTT or TV programme production, performing arts, or similar notified activities. The filing obligation applies to every individual, partnership firm, LLP, company or other entity that produced a film or undertook a specified activity during the relevant tax year, including cases where the film or activity was not completed in that year. The statement must be filed within 60 days from the end of the tax year, and TAN is required where the filer is liable to deduct tax at source.
April 3, 2026
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Personal loan flexibility expands as longer repayment tenure, collateral-free borrowing, and faster disbursal aim to ease EMI burden.
Bajaj Finance has revised its personal loan offering by extending the repayment tenure up to 108 months, replacing the earlier 96-month structure. The longer tenure is intended to reduce monthly EMI burden and give borrowers greater flexibility in managing repayments, while shorter tenures remain available within a range of 12 months to 108 months depending on customer preference. The personal loan product is described as collateral-free and designed for planned and urgent expenses, with loan amounts ranging from Rs. 40,000 to Rs. 55 lakh.
April 3, 2026
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Indirect transfer reporting under Form 163 requires timely electronic disclosure of share transfers affecting Indian assets and control rights.
Form 163 is the reporting statement for indirect transfers of assets located in India under section 506 of the Income-tax Act, 2025 and Rule 235 of the Income-tax Rules, 2026. It is to be furnished by an Indian concern, or its representative, where a non-resident transfers shares or interests in a foreign company or entity in a manner affecting assets, rights, management or control in relation to the Indian concern. The form is filed electronically within the prescribed timelines and supports computation of income reported in Form 4.
April 3, 2026
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Foreign exchange reserves decline as rupee pressure, RBI dollar sales, and lower gold and currency assets shape weekly movement.
India's foreign exchange reserves declined to USD 688.058 billion for the week ended March 27, driven by lower foreign currency assets and gold reserves. The Reserve Bank of India continued to intervene in the foreign exchange market through dollar sales and related policy measures as the rupee remained under pressure, while Special Drawing Rights rose slightly and the IMF reserve position edged down.
April 3, 2026
Show AI Summary
Indirect transfer reporting in Form No. 163 requires timely electronic filing, supporting documents, and a valid PAN.
Reporting of indirect transfers of assets located in India requires an Indian concern, or its representative, to furnish information in Form No. 163 under section 506 of the Income Tax Act, 2025. The form is mandatory and applies where a non-resident transfers shares of, or interest in, an offshore company or entity resulting in an indirect transfer of assets in India. It must be furnished within ninety days from the end of the financial year, or within ninety days of the transaction where management or control rights in relation to the Indian concern are transferred.
April 3, 2026
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Annual statement filing for liaison offices in India requires RBI-linked disclosure, electronic submission, and timely compliance.
Form 162 is an annual statement required under section 505 of the Income Tax Act, 2025, for non-resident entities maintaining a liaison office in India. It must be filed once in each tax year within eight months from the end of the tax year, electronically through the income-tax e-filing portal and digitally signed by the authorised signatory. The form captures head office, liaison office, RBI approval, Annual Activity Certificate, financial, employee, and counterparty details, and may be used for verification, international taxation, and transfer pricing cross-checks.
April 3, 2026
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Annual statement compliance for liaison offices requires electronic filing, certified activity records, valid PAN, and timely submission.
Form 162 is the annual statement required for non-resident entities maintaining a liaison office in India under the Income-tax Act, 2025, to be filed electronically once in each tax year within eight months from the end of the tax year. The filing requires particulars relating to the office's activities, approval details, employees, Indian counterparties, and audited financial information, along with a certified Annual Activity Certificate and valid PAN. The form cannot be submitted offline or edited after acknowledgment, and non-filing or delay may attract penalty, revocation of liaison office permission, and other assessment-related action.
April 3, 2026
Show AI Summary
Immunity from penalty and prosecution through Form 161 depends on full payment, no appeal, and timely electronic filing.
Form 161 is the prescribed application under the Income-tax Act, 2025 for immunity from penalty and prosecution where an assessee accepts an assessment or reassessment order, pays the full tax and interest demand within the prescribed time, and does not file an appeal. The application is event-based and must be filed within one month from the end of the month in which the order is received. It requires structured taxpayer identity details, order and payment particulars, and a statutory verification, and is filed electronically with supporting assessment, demand, payment, and PAN documents.
April 3, 2026
Show AI Summary
Immunity from penalty and prosecution through Form 161 requires full payment, no appeal, and online filing.
Form 161 is the prescribed application under section 440(2) of the Income-tax Act, 2025 for seeking immunity from penalty and prosecution after an assessment or reassessment order. It is optional and event-based, must be filed within one month from the end of the month of receipt of the order, and is available only where the taxpayer has paid the full tax and interest demand and has not filed any appeal. The form requires order details, demand details, proof of payment, and PAN, and can be submitted only online through the e-Filing portal.
April 3, 2026
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Refund of wrongly deducted tax through Form 160 requires full transaction details, supporting documents, and timely filing.
Refund of tax deducted at source and deposited to the Central Government is available through Form 160 where tax was not required to be deducted on the relevant income or transaction. The form is filed by the deductor before the Assessing Officer having jurisdiction, within thirty days from payment of tax, and must contain transaction details, deductee details, agreement particulars, and proof of the tax deducted and deposited. Supporting documents and verification enable examination of whether the refund claim is admissible.
April 3, 2026
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Refund of wrongly deducted tax through Form 160 requires proof that no tax was deductible and full TDS disclosure.
Refund of tax deducted at source and paid to the Central Government may be sought through Form 160 where the deductor contends that no tax was deductible on the relevant income or transaction. The form is the prescribed application under the Income-tax law and is to be used only in cases where tax was actually deducted and deposited, but the applicant later claims that the deduction was not required under the Act. It is filed before the TDS Assessing Officer having jurisdiction over the applicant, and the application is supported by the statutory particulars needed to test the claim of non-deductibility.
April 3, 2026
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Tax Clearance Certificate Form 159 governs clearance for persons leaving India and requires Assessing Officer issuance on Form 158.
Tax Clearance Certificate in Form 159 is issued by the Assessing Officer in response to Form 158 and is prescribed under section 420(5) of the Income-tax Act, 2025 read with Rule 228 of the Income-tax Rules, 2026. The form records the departing person's identity details and travel-linked validity, is issued through ITBA functionality, and has no statutory timeline for issue. Form 158 is the supporting application, and the note states that the taxpayer cannot leave India without the requisite clearance certificate.
April 3, 2026
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Tax Clearance Certificate governs departure-related compliance and is issued by the Assessing Officer on a Form 158 application.
Form 159 is the Tax Clearance Certificate issued by the Assessing Officer in response to Form 158. It is not filed by the taxpayer, but is issued to the specified taxpayer through the ITBA functionality, subject to the requirements of the Income-tax Act, 2025. No statutory time limit is prescribed for issuance, and the certificate is event-based, depending on the travel requirements of the person leaving India.
April 3, 2026
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Tax clearance certificate requirements for persons leaving India are set out through electronic filing of Form 158.
Form 158 is the application for a Tax Clearance Certificate required from a person directed by the Assessing Officer to obtain clearance before leaving India. It is filed each time the requirement applies, captures travel, identification, business, and passport details, and must be supported by documents such as passport or emergency certificate, PAN, and travel booking records. The form is filed electronically through the income-tax portal and digitally signed; on processing, Form 159 is issued as the Tax Clearance Certificate.
April 3, 2026
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Tax Clearance Certificate filing under Form 158 requires mandatory electronic submission before leaving India.
Form 158 is the mandatory electronic application for a Tax Clearance Certificate for domiciled persons required to obtain clearance before leaving India under the Income-tax Act, 2025. It must be filed each time the person leaves India, through the e-filing portal only. PAN is mandatory, while Aadhaar is not required. Supporting documents include passport or emergency certificate details and travel booking documents. The form cannot be edited after submission, and verification may be completed through prescribed electronic modes.

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Form No. 49 - Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs)

March 27, 2026

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Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs)

Form No. 49 (Merged form of erstwhile Forms 3CEFA, 3CEFB and 3CEFC)

Application for opting for Safe Harbour under section 167 of the Income-tax Act, 2025

Name of form as per I.T. Rules, 1962

Forms 3CEFA, 3CEFB and 3CEFC

Name of form as per I.T. Rules, 2026

Form No. 49

Corresponding section of I.T. Act, 1961

92CB

Corresponding section of I.T. Act, 2025

167

Corresponding Rule of I.T. Rules, 1962

10TA to 10TIC

Corresponding Rule of I.T. Rules, 2026

86 to 102

1. What is Form No. 49?

Ans: Form No. 49 is a prescribed e-form to opt for Safe Harbour under section 167 of the Income-tax Act, 2025 read with rules 86 to 102 of the Income-tax Rules, 2026. The form is a merged and simplified version of the erstwhile Forms 3CEFA, 3CEFB and 3CEFC.

2. Why have Forms 3CEFA, 3CEFB and 3CEFC been merged into a single form?

Ans: The three forms have been merged to simplify compliance, reduce duplication, and enable a unified, system-driven (smart) e-form. The merged form allows an assessee to opt for Safe Harbour for eligible international transaction (EIT), eligible specified domestic transaction (ESDT) and/or eligible business (EB) through a single application.

3. Who is required to file Form No. 49?

Ans: All eligible assessees as per Rule 87/95/99(c), intending to opt for Safe Harbour shall file the Form No. 49 for the relevant tax year with respect to:

i. EIT as per Rule 88, and/or

ii. ESDT as per Rule 96, and/or

iii. EB as per Rule 99(d).

4. Is filing of Form No. 49 mandatory?

Ans: No. Filing of Form No. 49 is required only if an eligible assessee intends to opt for the Safe Harbour provisions.

5. What is the due date for filing Form No. 49?

Ans: While Form No. 49 is generally filed for a relevant tax year, for EIT of provision of information technology services, it can be filed for the relevant tax years up to 30th June of the financial year immediately succeeding the first tax year out of a period of five consecutive tax years. For other eligible transactions, the due date remains on or before the due date specified in section 263(1)(b). However, the return of income for the relevant tax year is to be furnished on or before the date of furnishing the form.

6. How can Form No. 49 be filed?

Ans: Form No. 49 can be filed electronically through the Income-tax e-filing portal using the assessee’s user ID and password.

7. Can Form No. 49 be filed offline?

Ans: No. Form No. 49 is an electronic form and can be filed only in online mode through the e-filing portal.

8. What are the main parts of Form No. 49?

Ans: Form No. 49 consists of the two main parts:

  • PART A: Particulars of the person (basic information).
  • PART B: Other Information consisting of five sub-items: Option for Safe Harbour, Tax Year(s), Eligible International Transaction (EIT), Eligible Specified Domestic Transaction (ESDT), and Eligible Business (EB).

9. Can an assessee fill more than one part of the form?

Ans: Depending upon eligibility, an assessee can opt for Safe Harbour for one or more of the following:

i. Eligible International Transaction (EIT),

ii. Eligible Specified Domestic Transaction (ESDT), and/or

iii. Eligible Business (EB).

The form is a smart form and only the relevant part(s) of the form will be displayed electronically, depending upon the option(s) selected by the applicant.

10. What are the eligible international transactions?

Ans: Eligible international transactions specified under rule 88 includes:

(a) provision of information technology services consisting of any one or more of the following:—

(i) provision of software development services;

(ii) provision of information technology enabled services;

(iii) provision of knowledge process outsourcing services;

(iv) provision of contract research and development services wholly or partly relating to software development with insignificant risk, to a non-resident associated enterprise;

(b) advance of intra-group loan;

(c) provision of corporate guarantee, where the amount guaranteed, —

(i) does not exceed one hundred crore rupees; or

(ii) exceeds one hundred crore rupees, and the credit rating of the associated enterprise, done by an agency registered with the Securities and Exchange Board of India, is of the adequate to highest safety;

(d) provision of contract research and development services wholly or partly relating to generic pharmaceutical drugs with insignificant risk, to a non-resident associated enterprise;

(e) manufacture and export of core auto components;

(f) manufacture and export of non-core auto components; or

(g) receipt of low value-adding intra-group services from one or more members of its group; or

(h) provision of the data centre services.

11. Can details of multiple associated enterprises (AEs) be reported in the form?

Ans: Yes. For each eligible transaction, details of one or more associated enterprises can be furnished by adding multiple rows in the relevant tables.

12. Is it mandatory to provide Taxpayer Identification Number (TIN) of the associated enterprise?

Ans: Yes. TIN of the associated enterprise (AE) in the country or territory of residence is a mandatory field. PAN of AE may be provided where available.

13. Are transactions with AEs located in no-tax or low-tax jurisdictions eligible for Safe Harbour?

Ans: No. If the associated enterprise is located in a country or territory notified as no-tax or low-tax jurisdiction or notified under section 176 of the Income-tax Act, 2025, Safe Harbour is not available for such transaction(s).

14. What additional details are required for EIT being ‘advance of intra-group loans’?

Ans: Additional details such as denomination of loan, amount, currency, interest rate, credit rating are required to be furnished. Also, if the loan is in foreign currency, whether the loan advanced to the AE including all loans to all AEs exceed Rs. 250 crore as on 31st March of the tax year to be indicated through ‘Yes’ or ‘No’.

15. What additional details are required for EIT being ‘provision of corporate guarantee’?

Ans: Additional details such rate of commission or fee charged and amount of corporate guarantee to be provided. Also, whether the amount guaranteed exceeds Rs. 100 crore to be indicated through ‘Yes’ or ‘No’.

16. When is credit rating mandatory for intra-group loans and corporate guarantees?

Ans: Credit rating is required in accordance with the circumstances specified under Rule 89(2). In case of corporate guarantees exceeding INR 100 crore, credit rating by a SEBI-registered agency is mandatory.

17. What additional details are required for EIT being ‘receipt of low value-adding intragroup services’?

Ans: Additional details such amount of EIT excluding mark-up, mark-up, amount of EIT including mark-up and details of certificate of accountant to be provided. Also, certificate of the accountant to be uploaded as Annexure.

18. Who is eligible assessee for Eligible Specified Domestic Transaction (ESDT)?

Ans: The “eligible assessee” means a person who has exercised a valid option for application of safe harbour rules in accordance with the provisions of Rule 97, and:

i. is a government companies engaged in generation, supply, transmission or distribution of electricity, or

ii. is a co-operative society engaged in procuring and marketing milk and milk products.

19. Who is eligible assessee for Eligible Business (EB)?

Ans: Eligible assessee for Eligible Business (EB) means:—

(i) a foreign company engaged in the business of diamond mining which has exercised an option for application of safe harbour rules in accordance with Rule 100; or

(ii) a foreign company who stores components in a warehouse in a custom bonded area for providing them to a contract manufacturer to be used for manufacturing of specified electronic goods.

20. What is eligible business for safe harbour rules?

Ans: Eligible Business (EB) means:—

(i) a business of selling raw diamonds in any notified special zone as referred under section 9(8)(c)(ii)(C); or

(ii) the business activity of storage of components in a warehouse in a custom bonded area for sale to a contract manufacturer to be used for manufacturing of specified electronic goods.

21. What are raw diamonds?

Ans: Raw diamonds mean diamonds that are, –

(i) uncut or unpolished;

(ii) unassorted;

(iii) unworked or simply sawn, cleaved or bruted;

(iv) not conflict diamonds as defined by the Kimberley Process;

(v) accompanied by Kimberley Process Certificate issued by the Kimberley Process

(vi) authority in the exporting country; and falling under Tariff Heading 7102 of the First Schedule to the Customs Tariff Act, 1975 (51 of 1975).

22. What are specified electronic goods?

Ans: Specified electronic goods mean:—

(i) mobile phones;

(ii) laptops, all-in-one personal computers and tablets;

(iii) servers and ultra small form factor (USSF);

(iv) sub-assemblies to the finished goods mentioned above; or

(v) hearables and wearables and accessories related to the finished goods mentioned above.

23. What happens if profits of the eligible business are less than the prescribed threshold?

Ans: If the profits and gains of the eligible business are less than the threshold mentioned in Rule 100, the assessee is not eligible for Safe Harbour.

24. What information/document is required for filing Form No. 49?

Ans: The following information/document is required for filing Form No. 49:

i. Documentation prescribed under section 171 of the Income-tax Act, 2025 and Rule 89 of the Income-tax Rules, 2026.

ii. Report from an accountant under section 172 of the Income-tax Act, 2025 and Rule 90 of the Income-tax Rules, 2026.

iii. Chartered Accountant’s certificate – If the eligible assessee has entered into any international transaction in respect of receipt of low value-adding intra-group services, the method of cost pooling, the exclusion of shareholder costs and duplicate costs from the cost pool and the reasonableness of the allocation keys used for allocation of costs to the assessee by the overseas associated enterprise is to be certified by an accountant.

iv. Credit rating of AE if an eligible assessee has advanced intra-group loans or provided corporate guarantee, wherever applicable.

25. How is Form No. 49 verified?

Ans: Form No. 49 is required to be e-verified using the prescribed modes such as Digital Signature Certificate (DSC) or Electronic Verification Code (EVC), as applicable.

***

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