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April 4, 2026
Show AI Summary
Appeal against fund recognition refusal uses Form 187, with supporting documents and filing within 60 days.
Appeal against refusal to recognise or withdrawal of recognition from a recognised provident fund, and refusal to approve or withdrawal of approval from a superannuation fund or gratuity fund, is filed in Form 187 by the employer, trustee, or authorised representative within 60 days of communication of the order. The form requires appellant particulars, fund details, grounds of appeal, verification, and supporting documents such as the impugned order, original application, proof of filing, authorisation, and fee challan.
April 4, 2026
Show AI Summary
Appeals for provident, superannuation and gratuity funds require Form 187, supporting documents and filing within 60 days.
Form 187 prescribes the appellate mechanism under the Income-tax Act, 2025 for matters concerning recognised provident funds, superannuation funds and approved gratuity funds, including appeals against orders affecting recognition, approval, withdrawal, cancellation or refusal of such status. The form is to be used by trustees, employers or other authorised persons representing the fund where an adverse order has been passed by the competent income-tax authority. Appeals must be filed within 60 days from communication of the order, and filing does not by itself operate as a stay unless specifically granted.
April 4, 2026
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Customs enforcement along the India-Nepal border led to seizure of undocumented soft drinks and air conditioners.
Customs enforcement along the India-Nepal border led to seizure of soft drinks and air conditioners being moved without valid customs documents. A vehicle carrying 1,575 bottles of soft drinks was intercepted after the driver tried to flee, while two split air conditioners transported on bicycles were also recovered in a separate patrol operation. The goods, vehicle and bicycles were handed over to the Customs Department.
April 4, 2026
Show AI Summary
Indian pharmaceutical exports show sustained growth as formulations, biologicals, vaccines and Ayush products drive resilience.
Indian pharmaceutical exports recorded sustained growth in FY26, reaching nearly USD 29 billion by the end of February and increasing over the corresponding period in the previous financial year. The export performance was led by formulations, biologicals, vaccines and Ayush products, and was described as resilient despite global challenges, pricing pressures and trade volatility. The sector's overall value was placed at about USD 60 billion, with projected expansion to USD 130 billion by 2030.
April 4, 2026
Show AI Summary
Recognised Provident Fund recognition process requires trust deed compliance, supporting documents, scrutiny and ongoing investment and reporting obligations.
Application under Rule 40C seeks recognition of a provident fund so it qualifies as a Recognised Provident Fund for income-tax purposes. It applies to employers, trustees and existing funds seeking recognition on formation, conversion, amendment, merger or split. The form requires trust deed details, fund rules, investment policy, financial information and supporting documents, followed by scrutiny, possible revisions, issuance of recognition and ongoing compliance with investment, audit and reporting requirements.
April 4, 2026
Show AI Summary
Recognised Provident Fund recognition through Form 186 depends on disclosure, supporting documents, and compliance with trust conditions.
Form 186 is the prescribed application for seeking recognition of a provident fund as a Recognised Provident Fund for income-tax purposes. It is filed by the employer, trustees, or an existing trust seeking recognition, and is ordinarily a one-time application subject to refiling or intimation for material changes in the trust deed or fund rules. The form requires detailed disclosures and supporting documents, and on approval the fund attains RPF status with tax treatment governed by applicable statutory limits and conditions. Recognition may later be withdrawn for non-compliance.
April 4, 2026
Show AI Summary
Recognised provident fund accounting in Form 185 requires annual subscriber-wise records of contributions, interest, withdrawals, and balances.
Rule 294 requires recognised provident fund accounts to be prepared at intervals not exceeding twelve months, with a separate account maintained for each subscriber in Form 185. The form is maintained internally by the provident fund trust or authorised officers, and records subscriber particulars, opening balance, monthly contributions, interest, withdrawals or advances, closing balance, and verification. Part A is maintained separately for each subscriber, while Part B presents the same information in consolidated annual subscriber-wise form.
April 4, 2026
Show AI Summary
Recognised Provident Fund recordkeeping requires Form 185 to track contributions, interest, withdrawals, and annual balances.
Form No. 185 is the prescribed accounting format for individual subscriber records under a Recognised Provident Fund, maintained by trustees or authorised officers under the Income-tax Rules. It records annual subscriber-wise particulars such as contributions, interest credited, withdrawals or advances, opening and closing balances, and verification details. Part-A is kept for each subscriber, while Part-B is the annual consolidated abstract filed with the Assessing Officer.
April 4, 2026
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Deduction audit report for petroleum and natural gas businesses requires deposit verification, withdrawal checks, and Chartered Accountant certification.
Form No. 183 is the prescribed audit report for claiming deduction under section 49 in the business of prospecting, extracting, or producing petroleum, natural gas, or both in India. It is furnished by a Chartered Accountant and verifies audit of the relevant books, timely deposit into the specified account, permitted use of withdrawals, disallowance of inadmissible expenditure, and transfer restrictions on assets acquired under the scheme. The form is filed annually before the return due date and requires supporting records of books, deposits, withdrawals, and asset transfers.
April 4, 2026
Show AI Summary
Supply chain disruption hits Bikaner snack exports as conflict delays shipments and raises freight and input costs.
West Asia conflict has disrupted Bikaner exports and imports, causing delays in shipments of bhujia, papad, namkeen and spices to Gulf and European markets. Traders report longer transit routes, container shortages, higher freight charges, rising raw material and packaging costs, and consignments stuck at ports or in transit, affecting the city's export-driven economy.
April 4, 2026
Show AI Summary
Audit report for petroleum and natural gas deduction claims requires certification, supporting records, and online filing compliance.
Form No. 183 is the prescribed audit report under Rule 291 read with Section 49 of the Income-tax Act, 2025 for an assessee engaged in the business of prospecting, extracting, or producing petroleum, natural gas, or both in India. It is mandatory where the deduction is claimed and must be certified by an Accountant. The form requires supporting books, financial statements, evidence of deposits and withdrawals from the specified account, and a computation showing that the deduction remains within the permissible limit.
April 4, 2026
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Deduction claim audit report for tea, coffee and rubber businesses requires Chartered Accountant certification and compliance with deposit rules.
Form No. 182 is a statutory audit report for assessees engaged in growing and manufacturing tea, coffee or rubber who claim deduction under section 48. It must be furnished by a Chartered Accountant annually before the return due date and certifies audit of books, timely deposit in the specified account or approved scheme, withdrawal utilisation, disallowable amounts, asset transfers, and the deduction permissible. The form is now a smart, tabulated e-form with mandatory professional identifiers and standardised fields for e-filing and validation.
April 4, 2026
Show AI Summary
Tax deduction audit report rules require prescribed certification, verified deposits, and portal filing for tea, coffee and rubber businesses.
Form No. 182 is the prescribed audit report for assessees engaged in growing and manufacturing tea, coffee or rubber in India who claim deduction under section 48. It must be certified by an Accountant and furnished annually before the return due date. The report is mandatory for the deduction claim, supports verification of deposits, withdrawals, utilisation and deduction computation, and is completed through the e-filing portal with digital signing and assessee acceptance.
April 4, 2026
Show AI Summary
Electoral trust audit reporting through Form 181 requires electronic disclosure of contributions, distributions, and administration expenses.
Form 181 is the annual audit report for electoral trusts, to be furnished electronically by an accountant through the e-filing portal before the return due date. It requires disclosure of voluntary contributions received and distributed, application for the benefit of persons or interested persons, and expenditure on administration or management of the trust. The form has been simplified and aligned with the Income-tax Act, 2025.
April 4, 2026
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Digital audit report requirements govern electoral trusts claiming exclusion of voluntary contributions from total income.
FN 181 is a mandatory digital audit report for an electoral trust seeking exclusion of reported voluntary contributions from total income. It must be prepared by an accountant, filed electronically with the Commissioner of Income Tax (CPC) through the e-filing portal, and submitted on or before the due date for filing the return of income. The form cannot be filed offline or edited after submission, and a valid PAN is mandatory for filing.
April 4, 2026
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Employee welfare fund approval under income tax rules depends on notified purposes, verified disclosure, and hearing before rejection.
Form 180 is the electronic application for approval or renewal of an employee welfare fund established for notified purposes under section 11(3) read with Schedule VII, to be filed by the trust or fund before the jurisdictional PCIT/CIT and verified by the trustee or principal officer. The form requires details of the trust or fund, employer organisation, objects, trustees, employee membership, contributions, income, application or accumulation of funds, along with the trust deed, activity notes and accounts. Approval is granted only if the prescribed conditions are satisfied, for a period not exceeding three tax years, and rejection requires recorded reasons and an opportunity of hearing.
April 4, 2026
Show AI Summary
Employee Welfare Fund approval through Form 180 requires online filing, valid PAN, and strict trust-based eligibility conditions.
Form 180 is the prescribed electronic application for an Employee Welfare Fund seeking approval or renewal from the jurisdictional Principal CIT/CIT. The fund must be a trust for notified welfare purposes for serving employees or their dependents, and the application must be verified by the trustee or principal officer. Filing is mandatory for approval, which confers pass-through treatment and tax exemption subject to conditions. The form can be filed only online, cannot be edited after submission, and requires a valid PAN and supporting documents.
April 4, 2026
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Business connection in India compliance through Form 173 for eligible investment funds and annual verification of eligibility conditions.
Form 173 is a statement furnished by an eligible investment fund to verify compliance with the conditions for claiming that its activities do not constitute a business connection in India. The form is filed once in a tax year within 90 days from the end of the tax year, and it contains particulars on residence, tax identification number, Schedule I compliance, participation interests in India, fund manager remuneration, and investment profits. Supporting documents may include approval orders, registrations, financial statements, and remuneration contracts.
April 4, 2026
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Eligible investment fund reporting under no-business-connection rules requires mandatory online Form 173 filing and digital signature compliance.
Form 173 is the mandatory statement for an eligible investment fund to establish that its activities do not create a business connection in India. It must be filed once in a tax year, within 90 days from the end of the tax year, by the fund manager or designated person, only through the Income Tax e-filing portal, and it cannot be edited after submission. The form requires supporting fund details, registrations, financial statements, and digital signature compliance, and a valid PAN is mandatory.
April 4, 2026
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Eligible investment fund reporting under Form 172 requires accountant certification, electronic filing, and compliance with prescribed conditions.
Form 172 is the accountant's report for an eligible investment fund to establish fulfilment of prescribed conditions relevant to section 9(12) and the claim that the fund's activities do not create a business connection in India. It is prescribed under Rule 274(7), filed once in each tax year by the appointed accountant, and due by 31 October of the succeeding tax year. The form is filed electronically with a UDIN and digital signature, and non-filing may attract penalty under section 447.

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Form No. 49 - Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs)

March 27, 2026

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Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs)

Form No. 49 (Merged form of erstwhile Forms 3CEFA, 3CEFB and 3CEFC)

Application for opting for Safe Harbour under section 167 of the Income-tax Act, 2025

Name of form as per I.T. Rules, 1962

Forms 3CEFA, 3CEFB and 3CEFC

Name of form as per I.T. Rules, 2026

Form No. 49

Corresponding section of I.T. Act, 1961

92CB

Corresponding section of I.T. Act, 2025

167

Corresponding Rule of I.T. Rules, 1962

10TA to 10TIC

Corresponding Rule of I.T. Rules, 2026

86 to 102

1. What is Form No. 49?

Ans: Form No. 49 is a prescribed e-form to opt for Safe Harbour under section 167 of the Income-tax Act, 2025 read with rules 86 to 102 of the Income-tax Rules, 2026. The form is a merged and simplified version of the erstwhile Forms 3CEFA, 3CEFB and 3CEFC.

2. Why have Forms 3CEFA, 3CEFB and 3CEFC been merged into a single form?

Ans: The three forms have been merged to simplify compliance, reduce duplication, and enable a unified, system-driven (smart) e-form. The merged form allows an assessee to opt for Safe Harbour for eligible international transaction (EIT), eligible specified domestic transaction (ESDT) and/or eligible business (EB) through a single application.

3. Who is required to file Form No. 49?

Ans: All eligible assessees as per Rule 87/95/99(c), intending to opt for Safe Harbour shall file the Form No. 49 for the relevant tax year with respect to:

i. EIT as per Rule 88, and/or

ii. ESDT as per Rule 96, and/or

iii. EB as per Rule 99(d).

4. Is filing of Form No. 49 mandatory?

Ans: No. Filing of Form No. 49 is required only if an eligible assessee intends to opt for the Safe Harbour provisions.

5. What is the due date for filing Form No. 49?

Ans: While Form No. 49 is generally filed for a relevant tax year, for EIT of provision of information technology services, it can be filed for the relevant tax years up to 30th June of the financial year immediately succeeding the first tax year out of a period of five consecutive tax years. For other eligible transactions, the due date remains on or before the due date specified in section 263(1)(b). However, the return of income for the relevant tax year is to be furnished on or before the date of furnishing the form.

6. How can Form No. 49 be filed?

Ans: Form No. 49 can be filed electronically through the Income-tax e-filing portal using the assessee’s user ID and password.

7. Can Form No. 49 be filed offline?

Ans: No. Form No. 49 is an electronic form and can be filed only in online mode through the e-filing portal.

8. What are the main parts of Form No. 49?

Ans: Form No. 49 consists of the two main parts:

  • PART A: Particulars of the person (basic information).
  • PART B: Other Information consisting of five sub-items: Option for Safe Harbour, Tax Year(s), Eligible International Transaction (EIT), Eligible Specified Domestic Transaction (ESDT), and Eligible Business (EB).

9. Can an assessee fill more than one part of the form?

Ans: Depending upon eligibility, an assessee can opt for Safe Harbour for one or more of the following:

i. Eligible International Transaction (EIT),

ii. Eligible Specified Domestic Transaction (ESDT), and/or

iii. Eligible Business (EB).

The form is a smart form and only the relevant part(s) of the form will be displayed electronically, depending upon the option(s) selected by the applicant.

10. What are the eligible international transactions?

Ans: Eligible international transactions specified under rule 88 includes:

(a) provision of information technology services consisting of any one or more of the following:—

(i) provision of software development services;

(ii) provision of information technology enabled services;

(iii) provision of knowledge process outsourcing services;

(iv) provision of contract research and development services wholly or partly relating to software development with insignificant risk, to a non-resident associated enterprise;

(b) advance of intra-group loan;

(c) provision of corporate guarantee, where the amount guaranteed, —

(i) does not exceed one hundred crore rupees; or

(ii) exceeds one hundred crore rupees, and the credit rating of the associated enterprise, done by an agency registered with the Securities and Exchange Board of India, is of the adequate to highest safety;

(d) provision of contract research and development services wholly or partly relating to generic pharmaceutical drugs with insignificant risk, to a non-resident associated enterprise;

(e) manufacture and export of core auto components;

(f) manufacture and export of non-core auto components; or

(g) receipt of low value-adding intra-group services from one or more members of its group; or

(h) provision of the data centre services.

11. Can details of multiple associated enterprises (AEs) be reported in the form?

Ans: Yes. For each eligible transaction, details of one or more associated enterprises can be furnished by adding multiple rows in the relevant tables.

12. Is it mandatory to provide Taxpayer Identification Number (TIN) of the associated enterprise?

Ans: Yes. TIN of the associated enterprise (AE) in the country or territory of residence is a mandatory field. PAN of AE may be provided where available.

13. Are transactions with AEs located in no-tax or low-tax jurisdictions eligible for Safe Harbour?

Ans: No. If the associated enterprise is located in a country or territory notified as no-tax or low-tax jurisdiction or notified under section 176 of the Income-tax Act, 2025, Safe Harbour is not available for such transaction(s).

14. What additional details are required for EIT being ‘advance of intra-group loans’?

Ans: Additional details such as denomination of loan, amount, currency, interest rate, credit rating are required to be furnished. Also, if the loan is in foreign currency, whether the loan advanced to the AE including all loans to all AEs exceed Rs. 250 crore as on 31st March of the tax year to be indicated through ‘Yes’ or ‘No’.

15. What additional details are required for EIT being ‘provision of corporate guarantee’?

Ans: Additional details such rate of commission or fee charged and amount of corporate guarantee to be provided. Also, whether the amount guaranteed exceeds Rs. 100 crore to be indicated through ‘Yes’ or ‘No’.

16. When is credit rating mandatory for intra-group loans and corporate guarantees?

Ans: Credit rating is required in accordance with the circumstances specified under Rule 89(2). In case of corporate guarantees exceeding INR 100 crore, credit rating by a SEBI-registered agency is mandatory.

17. What additional details are required for EIT being ‘receipt of low value-adding intragroup services’?

Ans: Additional details such amount of EIT excluding mark-up, mark-up, amount of EIT including mark-up and details of certificate of accountant to be provided. Also, certificate of the accountant to be uploaded as Annexure.

18. Who is eligible assessee for Eligible Specified Domestic Transaction (ESDT)?

Ans: The “eligible assessee” means a person who has exercised a valid option for application of safe harbour rules in accordance with the provisions of Rule 97, and:

i. is a government companies engaged in generation, supply, transmission or distribution of electricity, or

ii. is a co-operative society engaged in procuring and marketing milk and milk products.

19. Who is eligible assessee for Eligible Business (EB)?

Ans: Eligible assessee for Eligible Business (EB) means:—

(i) a foreign company engaged in the business of diamond mining which has exercised an option for application of safe harbour rules in accordance with Rule 100; or

(ii) a foreign company who stores components in a warehouse in a custom bonded area for providing them to a contract manufacturer to be used for manufacturing of specified electronic goods.

20. What is eligible business for safe harbour rules?

Ans: Eligible Business (EB) means:—

(i) a business of selling raw diamonds in any notified special zone as referred under section 9(8)(c)(ii)(C); or

(ii) the business activity of storage of components in a warehouse in a custom bonded area for sale to a contract manufacturer to be used for manufacturing of specified electronic goods.

21. What are raw diamonds?

Ans: Raw diamonds mean diamonds that are, –

(i) uncut or unpolished;

(ii) unassorted;

(iii) unworked or simply sawn, cleaved or bruted;

(iv) not conflict diamonds as defined by the Kimberley Process;

(v) accompanied by Kimberley Process Certificate issued by the Kimberley Process

(vi) authority in the exporting country; and falling under Tariff Heading 7102 of the First Schedule to the Customs Tariff Act, 1975 (51 of 1975).

22. What are specified electronic goods?

Ans: Specified electronic goods mean:—

(i) mobile phones;

(ii) laptops, all-in-one personal computers and tablets;

(iii) servers and ultra small form factor (USSF);

(iv) sub-assemblies to the finished goods mentioned above; or

(v) hearables and wearables and accessories related to the finished goods mentioned above.

23. What happens if profits of the eligible business are less than the prescribed threshold?

Ans: If the profits and gains of the eligible business are less than the threshold mentioned in Rule 100, the assessee is not eligible for Safe Harbour.

24. What information/document is required for filing Form No. 49?

Ans: The following information/document is required for filing Form No. 49:

i. Documentation prescribed under section 171 of the Income-tax Act, 2025 and Rule 89 of the Income-tax Rules, 2026.

ii. Report from an accountant under section 172 of the Income-tax Act, 2025 and Rule 90 of the Income-tax Rules, 2026.

iii. Chartered Accountant’s certificate – If the eligible assessee has entered into any international transaction in respect of receipt of low value-adding intra-group services, the method of cost pooling, the exclusion of shareholder costs and duplicate costs from the cost pool and the reasonableness of the allocation keys used for allocation of costs to the assessee by the overseas associated enterprise is to be certified by an accountant.

iv. Credit rating of AE if an eligible assessee has advanced intra-group loans or provided corporate guarantee, wherever applicable.

25. How is Form No. 49 verified?

Ans: Form No. 49 is required to be e-verified using the prescribed modes such as Digital Signature Certificate (DSC) or Electronic Verification Code (EVC), as applicable.

***

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