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    Asian shares mostly gain while oil prices keep rising
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    India OMCs to pay discounted rates to refiners amid fuel price freeze
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April 6, 2026
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Geopolitical uncertainty lifts Asian shares as rising oil prices and Strait of Hormuz fears dominate markets.
Asian shares mostly rose as investors monitored rising oil prices and uncertainty surrounding the Iran war and the Strait of Hormuz. Japanese and South Korean benchmarks advanced, while crude prices climbed on fears that the conflict could prolong global supply risks. Market sentiment remained dominated by geopolitical uncertainty and expectations of further developments from the United States.
April 5, 2026
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Director disqualification breach and company control led to suspended prison sentences, fresh bans and confiscation proceedings.
Director disqualification was imposed after unchallenged findings that a company had wrongfully claimed funds from HM Revenue and Customs in connection with a tax fraud scheme. Despite the ban on running, managing, promoting or otherwise being involved in UK-registered companies, the director continued to control two pharmaceutical-related companies, and a spouse was found to have aided and abetted the breach while acting as the formal director of one company. The article also notes suspended prison sentences, fresh disqualifications and confiscation proceedings under the Proceeds of Crime Act 2002.
April 5, 2026
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Inflation risks from crude oil and currency volatility may keep the repo rate unchanged in the April review.
The Reserve Bank of India is expected to keep the benchmark repo rate unchanged in its April monetary policy review, with economists attributing the likely pause to rising inflation risks from geopolitical tensions in West Asia, firm crude oil prices, and sharp currency volatility. The expected policy approach is cautious and watchful, with the monetary policy stance likely to remain neutral amid uncertain global conditions and closer monitoring of inflation data before any further action. Economists also expect the review to focus more on inflation management, with possible upward revision of inflation projections if elevated crude prices persist.
April 5, 2026
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Refinery transfer pricing discount squeezes standalone refiners as fuel price freeze keeps retail rates unchanged.
State-run oil marketing companies have fixed discounted refinery transfer prices for petrol, diesel, aviation turbine fuel and kerosene in response to a freeze on retail fuel prices and rising global crude oil costs. The revised pricing reduces refinery receipts below import-parity-linked costs and is expected to affect standalone refiners more sharply than integrated oil companies, because the latter can partly offset losses across refining and marketing operations.
April 4, 2026
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Pharmaceutical exports continue steady growth as India targets wider markets, stronger regulation and long-term expansion.
India's pharmaceutical exports continued to grow, with exports up to February exceeding USD 28 billion and rising 5.6 per cent year-on-year, led by formulations, biologicals, vaccines and AYUSH products. Industry representatives said the sector is likely to end the financial year broadly in line with the previous year, despite global pricing pressure and trade volatility, while future growth is expected through policy prioritisation, market diversification, foreign direct investment and improved regulatory efficiency.
April 4, 2026
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Supply chain disruption from West Asia crisis threatens Indian exports, imports, and pharma inputs as government diversifies sourcing.
The West Asia crisis is disrupting Indian imports and exports, with energy and regional trade flows under pressure. A prolonged conflict could also affect exports to other regions by altering supply chains and value chains, while the government seeks to minimise disruption and diversify imports. The pharma sector is facing impact from shortages of intermediates and solvents, and supply chain resilience is being prioritised.
April 4, 2026
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Maritime supply continuity keeps LPG inflows moving despite Strait of Hormuz disruption and regional shipping tensions.
Continued LPG inflows to India are reported despite disruption in the Strait of Hormuz, with an Indian-flagged tanker safely transiting the waterway and an Iranian LPG cargo reaching Mangalore for discharge. Maritime authorities are monitoring vessel movements, port operations and crew safety, while coordinating with ship owners, Indian missions and the Directorate General of Shipping. Several Indian-flagged vessels remain stranded on the western side of the strait, though seafarers are safe and port operations across India remain normal.
April 4, 2026
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Identity misuse in tax notices triggers fraud and forgery inquiry over alleged business run using Aadhaar and PAN details.
Identity misuse was alleged after a farmer received income tax and GST notices for dues linked to a firm allegedly operated in his name in Delhi. He said he had never travelled to Delhi or formed any business enterprise, and preliminary inquiry reportedly found that the firm used his Aadhaar and PAN details. A complaint was submitted to the district administration, which constituted a two-member team to investigate the suspected fraud and forgery involving misuse of identity documents and resulting tax demands.
April 4, 2026
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Pharmaceutical exports growth reflects strong global demand, diversified markets and compliance-led expansion despite pricing pressures.
India's pharmaceutical exports continued to expand despite global pricing pressure and trade volatility, with outbound shipments reaching over USD 28 billion up to February of the current financial year and recording growth of 5.6 per cent over the corresponding period in the previous year. Export growth was led by formulations, biologicals, vaccines and AYUSH products, while the sector's total export performance in the preceding financial year also showed strong year-on-year growth. Pharmexcil indicated that export expansion would depend on policy prioritisation, market diversification, increased foreign direct investment inflows and improved regulatory efficiency, with a medium-term export target of USD 65 billion by 2030.
April 4, 2026
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Crude import flexibility keeps India's fuel supply secure despite reports of Iranian cargo diversion.
India said there are no payment hurdles for Iranian crude imports and that refiners continue to secure oil from Iran and a wide range of global suppliers. It rejected reports of an Iranian cargo diversion as factually incorrect, stating that destination changes during transit are common in oil trade for commercial and operational reasons. The ministry said crude oil requirements remain fully secured for the coming months, and noted that an LPG vessel carrying Iranian LPG has berthed at Mangalore and is discharging cargo.
April 4, 2026
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Global export hub logistics for Lalitpur Pharma Park strengthened through port connectivity and freight corridor integration.
Uttar Pradesh State Industrial Development Authority and Jawaharlal Nehru Port Authority have entered into a memorandum of understanding to develop the proposed Lalitpur Pharma Park as a global export hub by linking the industrial cluster to international maritime trade routes. The cooperation contemplates use of the Dadri-Khurja rail link with the Western Dedicated Freight Corridor and Eastern Dedicated Freight Corridor to create a multi-modal rail network for movement of pharmaceutical goods to JNPA, supporting import of raw materials and export of finished pharmaceutical products.
April 4, 2026
Show AI Summary
Indian pharmaceutical exports maintain growth momentum as formulations, biologicals, vaccines and Ayush products lead performance.
Indian pharmaceutical exports maintained growth momentum despite global pricing pressures and trade volatilities, with shipments reaching over USD 28 billion up to February in FY26 and registering year-on-year growth of 5.6 per cent over the corresponding period in FY25. Export performance was led by formulations, biologicals, vaccines and Ayush products.
April 4, 2026
Show AI Summary
Payroll compliance mistakes demand accurate classification, timely deductions, and automated statutory checks to prevent audits and penalties.
Payroll compliance requires accurate employee classification, timely tax deduction, and correct statutory contribution management to avoid audits, penalties, and employee disputes. Common errors include misclassifying employees and contract workers, which can cause missed PF, ESI and TDS obligations, and incorrect or delayed TDS computation arising from failed declarations, salary changes, or tax regime switches. The compliance approach relies on onboarding checks, real-time recalculation, and automated deposit scheduling to reduce errors before they enter the payroll cycle.
April 4, 2026
Show AI Summary
Bribery allegations against a CGST officer trigger a CBI trap, arrest, and continuing investigation into corruption claims.
Bribery allegations led to a CBI trap and arrest of an Assistant Commissioner, CGST, Ratlam, after a private person or middleman allegedly demanded money for not initiating GST proceedings against the complainant's firm. The accused was caught red-handed while accepting a bribe through the middleman, with searches continuing at the accused's premises and investigation still in progress.
April 4, 2026
Show AI Summary
Mutual fund approval process for subscribing to eligible public issues under the Income-tax Act framework clarified.
Approval is sought by a mutual fund to subscribe to an eligible issue of public companies under Schedule XV(1)(z)(ii) of the Income-tax Act, 2025, through Form 190. The form must be filed three months before the issue of eligible capital with the prescribed details and documents, including mutual fund and management particulars, scheme details, SEBI and custodian records, audited financial statements, and approval documents relating to the public company's share issue.
April 4, 2026
Show AI Summary
Mutual fund approval for eligible public company issues depends on timely filing of Form 190.
A mutual fund must file Form 190 to seek approval for investment in the eligible issue of public companies under Schedule XV(1)(z)(ii) of the Income-tax Act, 2025. The form corresponds to the earlier Form 59A under the Income-tax Rules, 1962, and to the corresponding rule framework under the Income-tax Rules, 2026. The application is to be filed by the mutual fund itself, together with the documents specified in the form, three months before the issue of eligible capital. Approval for subscription is granted on the basis of the particulars furnished in Form 190.
April 4, 2026
Show AI Summary
Approval for issue of eligible capital under Schedule XV depends on Form 189 details, disclosures, and supporting documents.
Form 189 is the application for approval of issue of public companies under Schedule XV(1)(z)(i) of the Income-tax Act, 2025, and is filed by the public company three months before the issue of eligible capital. The form requires company particulars, management details, bankers and auditors, issue details, project details, and supporting documents such as incorporation certificate, audited financial statements, equity details, SEBI approval and any project report. Processed Form 189 leads to approval for issue of eligible capital on the basis of the details furnished.
April 4, 2026
Show AI Summary
Public company issue approval through Form 189 governs eligible capital issues and related deduction eligibility.
Form 189 is the prescribed application for approval of issue of public companies under Schedule XV(1)(z)(i) of the Income-tax Act, 2025. It is filed by the public company with supporting documents before the issue of eligible capital, and the approval is granted on the basis of the details furnished in the form. Individual contributions to the issue are stated to qualify for deduction under the Act.
April 4, 2026
Show AI Summary
Consolidated approval form standardises gratuity and superannuation fund compliance, replacing rule-based particulars with structured filing.
Introduction of consolidated Form 188 standardises the approval process for Gratuity Fund and Superannuation Fund applications under Part B of Schedule XI by replacing the earlier text-based particulars in Rule 95 and Rule 109. The form is filed by trustees or an authorised person only for initial approval, and it requires details of the employer, the fund, eligible employees, account maintenance, fund status, trustee verification, and supporting documents such as the trust deed, fund rules, and accounts where applicable.
April 4, 2026
Show AI Summary
Approval mechanism for gratuity and superannuation funds is standardised through Form 188 with structured compliance requirements.
Form 188 provides a standardised application mechanism for approval of Gratuity Funds and Superannuation Funds, replacing earlier rule-based procedural requirements. It is filed once by the trustees or an authorised person, with prescribed particulars and supporting documents such as the trust deed, fund rules, accounts, and balance sheet where applicable. The application is examined by the jurisdictional authority, which may seek clarifications and then grant approval, issue deficiency notice, or reject the application.

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Form No. 49 - Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs)

March 27, 2026

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Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs)

Form No. 49 (Merged form of erstwhile Forms 3CEFA, 3CEFB and 3CEFC)

Application for opting for Safe Harbour under section 167 of the Income-tax Act, 2025

Name of form as per I.T. Rules, 1962

Forms 3CEFA, 3CEFB and 3CEFC

Name of form as per I.T. Rules, 2026

Form No. 49

Corresponding section of I.T. Act, 1961

92CB

Corresponding section of I.T. Act, 2025

167

Corresponding Rule of I.T. Rules, 1962

10TA to 10TIC

Corresponding Rule of I.T. Rules, 2026

86 to 102

1. What is Form No. 49?

Ans: Form No. 49 is a prescribed e-form to opt for Safe Harbour under section 167 of the Income-tax Act, 2025 read with rules 86 to 102 of the Income-tax Rules, 2026. The form is a merged and simplified version of the erstwhile Forms 3CEFA, 3CEFB and 3CEFC.

2. Why have Forms 3CEFA, 3CEFB and 3CEFC been merged into a single form?

Ans: The three forms have been merged to simplify compliance, reduce duplication, and enable a unified, system-driven (smart) e-form. The merged form allows an assessee to opt for Safe Harbour for eligible international transaction (EIT), eligible specified domestic transaction (ESDT) and/or eligible business (EB) through a single application.

3. Who is required to file Form No. 49?

Ans: All eligible assessees as per Rule 87/95/99(c), intending to opt for Safe Harbour shall file the Form No. 49 for the relevant tax year with respect to:

i. EIT as per Rule 88, and/or

ii. ESDT as per Rule 96, and/or

iii. EB as per Rule 99(d).

4. Is filing of Form No. 49 mandatory?

Ans: No. Filing of Form No. 49 is required only if an eligible assessee intends to opt for the Safe Harbour provisions.

5. What is the due date for filing Form No. 49?

Ans: While Form No. 49 is generally filed for a relevant tax year, for EIT of provision of information technology services, it can be filed for the relevant tax years up to 30th June of the financial year immediately succeeding the first tax year out of a period of five consecutive tax years. For other eligible transactions, the due date remains on or before the due date specified in section 263(1)(b). However, the return of income for the relevant tax year is to be furnished on or before the date of furnishing the form.

6. How can Form No. 49 be filed?

Ans: Form No. 49 can be filed electronically through the Income-tax e-filing portal using the assessee’s user ID and password.

7. Can Form No. 49 be filed offline?

Ans: No. Form No. 49 is an electronic form and can be filed only in online mode through the e-filing portal.

8. What are the main parts of Form No. 49?

Ans: Form No. 49 consists of the two main parts:

  • PART A: Particulars of the person (basic information).
  • PART B: Other Information consisting of five sub-items: Option for Safe Harbour, Tax Year(s), Eligible International Transaction (EIT), Eligible Specified Domestic Transaction (ESDT), and Eligible Business (EB).

9. Can an assessee fill more than one part of the form?

Ans: Depending upon eligibility, an assessee can opt for Safe Harbour for one or more of the following:

i. Eligible International Transaction (EIT),

ii. Eligible Specified Domestic Transaction (ESDT), and/or

iii. Eligible Business (EB).

The form is a smart form and only the relevant part(s) of the form will be displayed electronically, depending upon the option(s) selected by the applicant.

10. What are the eligible international transactions?

Ans: Eligible international transactions specified under rule 88 includes:

(a) provision of information technology services consisting of any one or more of the following:—

(i) provision of software development services;

(ii) provision of information technology enabled services;

(iii) provision of knowledge process outsourcing services;

(iv) provision of contract research and development services wholly or partly relating to software development with insignificant risk, to a non-resident associated enterprise;

(b) advance of intra-group loan;

(c) provision of corporate guarantee, where the amount guaranteed, —

(i) does not exceed one hundred crore rupees; or

(ii) exceeds one hundred crore rupees, and the credit rating of the associated enterprise, done by an agency registered with the Securities and Exchange Board of India, is of the adequate to highest safety;

(d) provision of contract research and development services wholly or partly relating to generic pharmaceutical drugs with insignificant risk, to a non-resident associated enterprise;

(e) manufacture and export of core auto components;

(f) manufacture and export of non-core auto components; or

(g) receipt of low value-adding intra-group services from one or more members of its group; or

(h) provision of the data centre services.

11. Can details of multiple associated enterprises (AEs) be reported in the form?

Ans: Yes. For each eligible transaction, details of one or more associated enterprises can be furnished by adding multiple rows in the relevant tables.

12. Is it mandatory to provide Taxpayer Identification Number (TIN) of the associated enterprise?

Ans: Yes. TIN of the associated enterprise (AE) in the country or territory of residence is a mandatory field. PAN of AE may be provided where available.

13. Are transactions with AEs located in no-tax or low-tax jurisdictions eligible for Safe Harbour?

Ans: No. If the associated enterprise is located in a country or territory notified as no-tax or low-tax jurisdiction or notified under section 176 of the Income-tax Act, 2025, Safe Harbour is not available for such transaction(s).

14. What additional details are required for EIT being ‘advance of intra-group loans’?

Ans: Additional details such as denomination of loan, amount, currency, interest rate, credit rating are required to be furnished. Also, if the loan is in foreign currency, whether the loan advanced to the AE including all loans to all AEs exceed Rs. 250 crore as on 31st March of the tax year to be indicated through ‘Yes’ or ‘No’.

15. What additional details are required for EIT being ‘provision of corporate guarantee’?

Ans: Additional details such rate of commission or fee charged and amount of corporate guarantee to be provided. Also, whether the amount guaranteed exceeds Rs. 100 crore to be indicated through ‘Yes’ or ‘No’.

16. When is credit rating mandatory for intra-group loans and corporate guarantees?

Ans: Credit rating is required in accordance with the circumstances specified under Rule 89(2). In case of corporate guarantees exceeding INR 100 crore, credit rating by a SEBI-registered agency is mandatory.

17. What additional details are required for EIT being ‘receipt of low value-adding intragroup services’?

Ans: Additional details such amount of EIT excluding mark-up, mark-up, amount of EIT including mark-up and details of certificate of accountant to be provided. Also, certificate of the accountant to be uploaded as Annexure.

18. Who is eligible assessee for Eligible Specified Domestic Transaction (ESDT)?

Ans: The “eligible assessee” means a person who has exercised a valid option for application of safe harbour rules in accordance with the provisions of Rule 97, and:

i. is a government companies engaged in generation, supply, transmission or distribution of electricity, or

ii. is a co-operative society engaged in procuring and marketing milk and milk products.

19. Who is eligible assessee for Eligible Business (EB)?

Ans: Eligible assessee for Eligible Business (EB) means:—

(i) a foreign company engaged in the business of diamond mining which has exercised an option for application of safe harbour rules in accordance with Rule 100; or

(ii) a foreign company who stores components in a warehouse in a custom bonded area for providing them to a contract manufacturer to be used for manufacturing of specified electronic goods.

20. What is eligible business for safe harbour rules?

Ans: Eligible Business (EB) means:—

(i) a business of selling raw diamonds in any notified special zone as referred under section 9(8)(c)(ii)(C); or

(ii) the business activity of storage of components in a warehouse in a custom bonded area for sale to a contract manufacturer to be used for manufacturing of specified electronic goods.

21. What are raw diamonds?

Ans: Raw diamonds mean diamonds that are, –

(i) uncut or unpolished;

(ii) unassorted;

(iii) unworked or simply sawn, cleaved or bruted;

(iv) not conflict diamonds as defined by the Kimberley Process;

(v) accompanied by Kimberley Process Certificate issued by the Kimberley Process

(vi) authority in the exporting country; and falling under Tariff Heading 7102 of the First Schedule to the Customs Tariff Act, 1975 (51 of 1975).

22. What are specified electronic goods?

Ans: Specified electronic goods mean:—

(i) mobile phones;

(ii) laptops, all-in-one personal computers and tablets;

(iii) servers and ultra small form factor (USSF);

(iv) sub-assemblies to the finished goods mentioned above; or

(v) hearables and wearables and accessories related to the finished goods mentioned above.

23. What happens if profits of the eligible business are less than the prescribed threshold?

Ans: If the profits and gains of the eligible business are less than the threshold mentioned in Rule 100, the assessee is not eligible for Safe Harbour.

24. What information/document is required for filing Form No. 49?

Ans: The following information/document is required for filing Form No. 49:

i. Documentation prescribed under section 171 of the Income-tax Act, 2025 and Rule 89 of the Income-tax Rules, 2026.

ii. Report from an accountant under section 172 of the Income-tax Act, 2025 and Rule 90 of the Income-tax Rules, 2026.

iii. Chartered Accountant’s certificate – If the eligible assessee has entered into any international transaction in respect of receipt of low value-adding intra-group services, the method of cost pooling, the exclusion of shareholder costs and duplicate costs from the cost pool and the reasonableness of the allocation keys used for allocation of costs to the assessee by the overseas associated enterprise is to be certified by an accountant.

iv. Credit rating of AE if an eligible assessee has advanced intra-group loans or provided corporate guarantee, wherever applicable.

25. How is Form No. 49 verified?

Ans: Form No. 49 is required to be e-verified using the prescribed modes such as Digital Signature Certificate (DSC) or Electronic Verification Code (EVC), as applicable.

***

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Acts Income Tax