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    CCI approves merger of Chess Merger Sub, wholly owned subsidiary of Coursera Inc., with and into Udemy Inc.
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March 26, 2026
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Competition combination approval for Coursera and Udemy merger, creating sole control over Udemy through a subsidiary merger.
Competition Commission of India approved a proposed combination involving the merger of Chess Merger Sub, a wholly owned subsidiary of Coursera Inc., with and into Udemy Inc., with Udemy surviving as a wholly owned subsidiary of Coursera. The transaction results in Coursera acquiring sole control over Udemy, and the combined company is expected to have post-closing shareholding in which existing Coursera stockholders hold approximately 59% and existing Udemy stockholders approximately 41% on a fully diluted basis.
March 26, 2026
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Competition approval for renewable energy investment in Aditya Birla Renewables through equity subscription by GIP EM Star.
Competition Commission of India approved the subscription of certain equity share capital of Aditya Birla Renewables Limited by GIP EM Star Pte. Ltd. The acquirer is incorporated in Singapore and is ultimately linked to Global Infrastructure Management, LLC and BlackRock, Inc. The target, headquartered in Mumbai, is engaged in renewable energy power generation, including solar and wind power.
March 25, 2026
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Inflation targeting framework retained with a 4 per cent objective and a 2 per cent tolerance band for the next cycle.
The central government, in consultation with the Reserve Bank, has notified the inflation target for 1 April 2026 to 31 March 2031 at 4 per cent, with an upper tolerance level of 6 per cent and a lower tolerance level of 2 per cent. The framework continues to place the Monetary Policy Committee in charge of setting the policy rate needed to achieve the inflation objective within the prescribed band.
March 25, 2026
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Insolvency resolution delays under the bankruptcy code draw debate over tribunal capacity, creditor recoveries, and reform priorities.
Delay in insolvency resolution under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code remained the central issue in parliamentary discussion on the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (Amendment) Bill, 2025. Members referred to tribunal capacity constraints, overburdened case loads, delayed liquidation and resolution timelines, value deterioration, and low realisations to creditors as continuing problems in the insolvency ecosystem. The select committee report was noted as seeking to address these structural concerns through amendments aimed at improving the functioning of the insolvency and bankruptcy framework.
March 25, 2026
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Electricity tariff reduction cuts power charges by one paisa per unit across all consumer categories for FY27.
Electricity tariff for all consumer categories in Himachal Pradesh has been reduced by one paisa per unit for FY27, effective from 1 April 2026. The tariff order fixes the average cost of supply at Rs 6.75 per unit after truing up, resulting in a corresponding reduction in energy charges across consumer classes. The revised schedule sets category-wise tariffs for domestic, commercial, industrial, agricultural, railway, EV charging, irrigation, bulk supply, and street lighting consumers, while domestic subsidy is left to the state government decision and compensation mechanism.
March 25, 2026
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Money laundering attachment over Mahadev betting assets targets alleged proceeds of crime and overseas luxury properties.
Provisional attachment under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act was issued against immovable assets linked to the Mahadev Online Book betting operation, including luxury properties in Dubai, apartments in Burj Khalifa and two properties in Delhi. The attached assets were alleged to represent proceeds of crime generated from illegal online betting activities controlled through entities associated with the main promoter of the platform.
March 25, 2026
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Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code reform focuses on faster resolution, out-of-court settlements, and cross-border insolvency provisions.
The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code is described as a revival and resolution framework that has generated substantial recoveries through resolution of bankrupt companies and improved creditor-debtor discipline. The proposed amendment bill seeks to reduce the time taken for admission of insolvency resolution applications, speed up case clearance, support out-of-court resolution, and address cross-border insolvency and discretionary provisions.
March 25, 2026
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Power tariff unchanged as the commission prioritizes revenue neutrality, loss reduction, and efficiency in electricity distribution.
The Haryana Electricity Regulatory Commission kept power tariff unchanged for the 2026-27 financial year and treated the Annual Revenue Requirement of the distribution licensees as revenue-neutral despite a projected revenue gap. The order linked the decision to improved efficiency in revenue collection, receivables management, power procurement and loss reduction, while also fixing distribution loss levels and directing feeder-level monitoring to curb losses.
March 25, 2026
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Permanent Establishment audit reporting governs royalty and technical fees income for non-residents under the prescribed form.
Form No. 24 is a prescribed audit report for non-residents, foreign companies, and other non-resident entities deriving royalty or fees for technical services from India through a Permanent Establishment or fixed place of profession in India. It is certified by an Accountant and is mandatory where such income is effectively connected with the Indian Permanent Establishment or fixed place of profession. The form requires books of account, supporting documents, annexures, and electronic certification details, and is furnished annually before the return due date. Furnishing and acceptance of the form support assessment on a net income basis.
March 25, 2026
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Skill Development Project notification under income tax law links approval, audit compliance, and renewal conditions for eligible companies.
Form 23 is the CBDT notification form for an approved Skill Development Project under Section 47(1)(b) of the Income-tax Act, 2025 read with Rules 39 and 40. It is issued after Form 22 is examined and recommended by NCVET, and it specifies the approved Tax Year(s), project particulars, conditions, and validity for up to three Tax Years. The framework requires separate books, audit, prescribed reporting, compliance with notification conditions, and permits renewal or revocation depending on project performance and statutory compliance.
March 25, 2026
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Skill development project notification governs approval, tax-year limits, conditions, and compliance for income-tax benefits.
Form 23 is the income-tax notification form for an approved skill development project under Section 47(1)(b) of the Income-tax Act, 2025, issued after approval under Rule 39. It notifies the project in the Official Gazette, specifies the approved tax years, and sets the terms, duration, and expenditure limits. The notification is issued by the Central Board of Direct Taxes on recommendation of NCVET, and contains the company's particulars, project details, training institute details, approved tax years, estimated expenditure, and attached conditions.
March 25, 2026
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Skill Development Project approval under income tax rules requires Form 22 filing, structured disclosures, and electronic verification.
Form 22 is the prescribed Income-tax application by which an eligible company seeks approval of a Skill Development Project under Section 47(1)(b) of the Income-tax Act, 2025 read with Rule 39. The form is filed with the National Council for Vocational Education and Training for recommendation to the Central Board of Direct Taxes, and it must be submitted electronically using DSC or EVC before commencement of the project. It requires disclosure of company particulars, project particulars, training institute details, prior notifications or revocations, return of income data, penalties, outstanding tax demands, expenditure projections, and supporting annexures.
March 25, 2026
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Free trade agreements and voluntary CSR are highlighted as tools for quality-led growth and inclusive development.
India's expanded free trade agreements are presented as a means of securing preferential market access for goods and services, with reduced or zero duty benefits linked to stronger export competitiveness. Indian industry, farmers, MSMEs, fishermen and artisans are urged to use these opportunities through a sustained focus on quality, higher standards and improved production and service capability. The statement also presents voluntary corporate social responsibility beyond statutory minima as an example of tangible social commitment.
March 25, 2026
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Multilateral trading system priorities shape India's agenda on WTO reform, food security, digital trade, and development concerns.
The WTO Ministerial Conference agenda covers WTO reform, the e-commerce work programme and moratorium, investment facilitation for development, fisheries subsidies, and agriculture-related issues. India's priorities include a development-centric multilateral trading system, a permanent solution on Public Stockholding for food security, effective Special and Differential Treatment, and a fully functional, automatic, and binding dispute settlement mechanism. India also supports policy space in digital trade, balanced fisheries subsidy disciplines, and investment facilitation for developing countries.
March 25, 2026
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Startup ecosystem partnership expands incorporation support, mentorship and financial tools for early-stage founders through a dedicated platform.
DPIIT entered into a strategic partnership with a leading fintech platform through a Memorandum of Understanding to strengthen India's startup ecosystem by supporting startups, innovators and entrepreneurs with financial tools, founder enablement programmes and ecosystem assistance. The collaboration is directed towards helping early- and growth-stage startups scale through digital payment solutions, financial infrastructure, incorporation support, mentorship and structured guidance for formalising and expanding operations. A dedicated platform, Startup Sahayak, has been launched to provide end-to-end assistance for early-stage founders, including company incorporation, access to schemes and guidance on funding opportunities.
March 25, 2026
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Cooperative sector survey training strengthens data quality and prepares nationwide collection on economic contribution and employment generation.
The Rapid Survey of Functional Cooperatives is being prepared through an all-India training workshop to equip master trainers with conceptual clarity, survey methodology, technical know-how, and uniform understanding of survey concepts. The survey will be conducted nationwide from April 2026 using the National Cooperative Database as the sampling frame and a web-based data collection system to generate sector-wise estimates of economic contribution and employment generation.
March 25, 2026
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Infrastructure project monitoring through PAIMANA tracks ongoing Central Sector projects, sector-wise progress, and new additions across Ministries.
Central Sector infrastructure projects worth Rs.150 crore and above are monitored through the PAIMANA portal, which standardises infrastructure tracking, auto-updates project data from Ministries and Departments, and supports timely review and data-driven decision-making. As of February 2026, the portal records 1,948 ongoing projects across 17 Central Ministries and Departments, with a revised cost of Rs.41.98 lakh crore and cumulative expenditure of Rs.19.71 lakh crore. The portfolio covers multiple sectors, led by Transport & Logistics and Energy, and includes new additions and commissioned projects during February 2026.
March 25, 2026
Show AI Summary
Skill development project approval through Form 22 requires online filing, verified disclosures, and compliance with prescribed conditions.
Form 22 is the prescribed income-tax application for an eligible company seeking approval of a skill development project under Section 47(1)(b) of the Income-tax Act, 2025, read with Rule 39. The form is filed before commencement of the project through the e-filing portal and requires disclosure of the project structure, training institute particulars, proposed expenditure, supporting documents, and compliance details. It is verified by DSC or EVC, and defects must be rectified within the prescribed time or the application may be treated as invalid.
March 25, 2026
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Agricultural extension project notification under Form 21 requires approval, compliance, renewal, and revocation safeguards.
Form 21 is the notification instrument issued by the Central Board of Direct Taxes for an approved Agricultural Extension Project under Section 47(1)(a) of the Income-tax Act, 2025 read with Rule 37. It is issued after examination of Form 20, records the project particulars, approved tax years, expected expenditure, and notification conditions, and is authenticated by signature and Official Gazette publication. The notification remains valid for up to three Tax Years, is subject to compliance and renewal requirements, and may be revoked for cessation, non-genuine activities, or breach of approval conditions.
March 25, 2026
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Facilitative tax and customs reform measures in the Finance Bill 2026 aim to ease compliance, support MSMEs, and promote trade.
The Finance Bill 2026 is described as a set of facilitative tax and customs measures centred on trust-based tax administration, ease of living, MSME support, trade facilitation and customs reform. The measures highlighted include lower tax collected at source on certain foreign remittances and overseas tour packages, customs duty exemption on critical drugs, duty-free import treatment for medicines and personal use articles, permission to file updated income-tax returns after reassessment proceedings begin, and a foreign asset disclosure scheme for small taxpayers. The Bill also seeks to reduce compliance burden and dispute potential through customs rationalisation and facilitation-first enforcement.

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Form 41 – Frequently Asked Questions

March 26, 2026

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Form 41 – Frequently Asked Questions

Information to be provided under section 159(8) of the Act

Name of form as per I.T. Rules, 1962

Form 10F

Name of form as per I.T. Rules, 2026

41

Corresponding section of I.T. Act, 1961

90(5) and 90A(5)

Corresponding section of I.T. Act, 2025

159(8)

Corresponding Rule of I.T. Rules, 1962

21AB

Corresponding Rule of I.T. Rules, 2026

75

1: What is Form 41?

Ans: Form 41 is a self-declaration required under 159(8) of the Income-tax Act, 2025. It enables non-resident taxpayers to claim benefits under the Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement (DTAA) between India and their country of residence.

2: Who should file Form 41?

Ans: Non-resident individuals, companies, or other entities

(a) receiving income from India and seeking to avail of DTAA benefits on taxation of income in India

(b) that do not have a Permanent Account Number (PAN) in India or not required to file Income Tax Return in India but whose payment is subject to TDS in India and wish to avail lower or nil withholding tax rates under the applicable DTAA.

3: Is Form 41 mandatory?

Ans: Yes, Form 41 is mandatory for non-resident to claim DTAA benefits.

4: What is the time limit for filing Form 41?

Ans: There is no specific time-period for filing Form 41. The form is required to be furnished whenever treaty benefits are claimed. Thus, when issue of TDS deductions on payments from India arises, the form would be required. Where the DTAA benefit is claimed in ITR filed, the Form is required for processing the benefit claim.

5: How many times can Form 41 be filed in a year?

Ans: Form 41 must be filed annually (once per tax year) by non- resident when the non-resident is seeking to claim benefits under DTAA.

6: What documents are required to file Form 41?

Ans: Following documents are required for filing Form 41:

  • Tax Residency Certificate (TRC): Issued by the tax authority of the country of residence, confirming the taxpayer's residency status. It must be valid for the relevant financial year in India. This is to be uploaded along with Form 41.
  • TIN: Tax Identification Number allotted in the country of residence to the taxpayer.

7: Can I edit Form 41 after submission?

Ans: No. Once Form 41 is submitted and acknowledgment is generated, it cannot be edited. Ensure all details are correct before submission.

8: Do I need to attach proof of tax payment?

Ans: No. Form 41 does not require submission of any proof of tax payment

9: While filling personal details, can I leave Aadhaar or mobile number blank?

Ans:

  • Aadhaar is no longer required in the personal details.
  • Mobile number ensures faster communication and verification; it is recommended to provide it.

10: What if I do not have a PAN?

Ans: Form 41 can be submitted without a PAN also as those not required to obtain PAN or file return of income in view of DTAA exemption on taxation in India, are also required to file Form 41.

11: Can Form 41 be filed offline?

Ans: No. Form 41 can only be submitted online through the Income Tax e-Filing portal.

12. What is the process flow of filing Form 41?

Ans: The process flow is as under:-

1) Registration: Non-residents must register on the Income Tax e-filing portal. If they do not have a PAN, they can register under the new category for non-residents without PAN.

2) Form 41 Submission: After registration, taxpayer must login to the efiling portal and submit Form 41 electronically.

3) Verification: The form can be verified using an Electronic Verification Code generated through pre-validated bank account or demat account, through net banking or ATM (bank specific) or a Digital Signature Certificate (DSC), depending on the taxpayer's profile. For non-residents registering without PAN, OTP is sent to phone number and email for verification.

13: Why is Form 41 important?

Ans: Filing Form 41 enables non-resident taxpayers to claim benefits under the Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement (DTAA) between India and their country of residence. In the absence of a valid electronically filed Form 41 (along with TRC and other documents), the DTAA benefit is not available. This means that

(a) the Indian payer must deduct TDS at the rate applicable and

(b) the income claimed exempt in ITR is to be taxed at applicable Indian tax rates.

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