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    Guidance Note - Form 26
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    CCI approves proposed acquisition of additional shareholding of Valuedrive Technologies Pvt Ltd by Setu AIF Trust, Konark Trust, and MMPL Trust
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March 26, 2026
Show AI Summary
Tax audit Form No. 26 standardises disclosures, audit reporting, and filing requirements under the new income tax framework.
Prescribed Form No. 26 is the audit report and statement of particulars under section 63 of the Income-tax Act, 2025 read with rule 47 of the Income-tax Rules, 2026. Parts A and B contain the substantive disclosures for tax audit compliance, including books of account, method of accounting, income, expenses, losses, depreciation, deductions, international taxation, TDS/TCS, indirect taxation and quantitative details. Part C applies where accounts are audited under another law, while Part D applies where they are not. The form is required for specified business and professional thresholds and certain presumptive taxation cases, and is furnished through a structured online filing process.
March 26, 2026
Show AI Summary
Mandatory audit reporting under Form No. 26 introduces clause-wise disclosures, UDIN compliance, and schedule-based tax audit filing.
Form No. 26 is the mandatory audit report and statement of particulars for persons carrying on business or profession whose accounts are required to be audited under section 63. It applies from tax years commencing on or after 1 April 2026, is due one month before the return filing deadline, and must be signed by an Accountant with UDIN, and FRN where applicable. The form uses Part B clause-wise Yes/No reporting with trigger-based schedules, and Parts C and D for audit reporting depending on whether accounts are audited under another law.
March 26, 2026
Show AI Summary
Daily case register requirements for medical professionals under tax rules, including maintenance, exceptions, and non-filing status.
Form No. 25 prescribes a daily case register for medical professionals under Rule 46 of the Income-tax Rules, 2026. It records the patient's name, nature of service, fees charged, and date of receipt of fees. The form is mandatory for persons engaged in the medical profession, subject to the stated gross-receipts exceptions, and is maintained in addition to books of account. It is not furnished to the Department and has no due date.
March 26, 2026
Show AI Summary
Daily case register compliance for medical practitioners requires tabular records, electronic access safeguards, and preservation obligations.
Form No. 25 is the prescribed daily case register for practitioners of any system of medicine under Rule 46 of the Income-tax Rules, 2026, subject to the prescribed gross receipt threshold and the position of newly set-up medical practices. It records patient and fee particulars in tabular form, is not furnished to the Income-tax Department, but must be maintained daily, produced before the Assessing Officer when called for, may be kept electronically with India-based access and backups, and must be preserved for seven tax years or until completion of reassessment proceedings.
March 26, 2026
Show AI Summary
Permanent establishment audit reporting for royalty and technical services income now uses a structured Chartered Accountant certification format.
Form No. 24 is a statutory audit report for non-residents and foreign companies earning royalty or fees for technical services from India through a permanent establishment or fixed place of profession in India. It requires a Chartered Accountant's certification of the correctness of income computation, verification of the PE or fixed place, maintenance of books of account, and deduction only of expenses attributable to the PE while computing income under section 59. The form is filed annually, contains structured particulars of the assessee, agreement, PE, books examined, and income computation, and is submitted through the e-filing portal with digital signature verification.
March 26, 2026
Show AI Summary
Competition approval for additional shareholding acquisition in Valuedrive Technologies through an alternative investment and trust co-investment structure.
The Competition Commission of India approved the proposed acquisition of additional shareholding in Valuedrive Technologies Private Limited by Setu AIF Trust, Konark Trust and MMPL Trust. The transaction concerns acquisition of shares on a fully diluted basis through an alternative investment fund and private trust co-investment structure. Valuedrive Technologies Private Limited operates as an operating-cum-holding company for the Spinny Group and carries on an electronic platform business for used motor vehicles, together with related subsidiary activities.
March 26, 2026
Show AI Summary
Competition law approval for acquisition of shares in a listed NBFC by a Japan-based banking institution.
Competition Commission of India approval was granted for the acquisition of certain shares in Shriram Finance Limited by MUFG Bank Ltd. The acquirer is a Japan-based banking institution wholly owned and controlled by Mitsubishi UFJ Financial Group, Inc., and carries on banking-related activities in India including corporate banking loans, deposit accounts, remittances, trade finance, bank guarantees and hedging. The target is a listed non-banking financial company registered with the Reserve Bank of India, classified as an Investment and Credit Company and an NBFC-Upper Layer, engaged in financing commercial goods and passenger vehicles, construction equipment, farm equipment, MSMEs, two-wheelers, gold and personal loans.
March 26, 2026
Show AI Summary
Competition approval for acquisition of Groww Asset Management shareholding by State Street Global Advisors
Competition approval was granted for the proposed acquisition of shareholding in Groww Asset Management Limited by State Street Global Advisors, Inc. The target manages schemes of Groww Mutual Fund, including equity, hybrid, debt and exchange traded fund schemes. State Street operates under the State Street Investment Management brand as the asset management arm of State Street Corporation. The detailed order of the Commission would follow.
March 26, 2026
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Competition combination approval for Coursera and Udemy merger, creating sole control over Udemy through a subsidiary merger.
Competition Commission of India approved a proposed combination involving the merger of Chess Merger Sub, a wholly owned subsidiary of Coursera Inc., with and into Udemy Inc., with Udemy surviving as a wholly owned subsidiary of Coursera. The transaction results in Coursera acquiring sole control over Udemy, and the combined company is expected to have post-closing shareholding in which existing Coursera stockholders hold approximately 59% and existing Udemy stockholders approximately 41% on a fully diluted basis.
March 26, 2026
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Competition approval for renewable energy investment in Aditya Birla Renewables through equity subscription by GIP EM Star.
Competition Commission of India approved the subscription of certain equity share capital of Aditya Birla Renewables Limited by GIP EM Star Pte. Ltd. The acquirer is incorporated in Singapore and is ultimately linked to Global Infrastructure Management, LLC and BlackRock, Inc. The target, headquartered in Mumbai, is engaged in renewable energy power generation, including solar and wind power.
March 25, 2026
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Inflation targeting framework retained with a 4 per cent objective and a 2 per cent tolerance band for the next cycle.
The central government, in consultation with the Reserve Bank, has notified the inflation target for 1 April 2026 to 31 March 2031 at 4 per cent, with an upper tolerance level of 6 per cent and a lower tolerance level of 2 per cent. The framework continues to place the Monetary Policy Committee in charge of setting the policy rate needed to achieve the inflation objective within the prescribed band.
March 25, 2026
Show AI Summary
Insolvency resolution delays under the bankruptcy code draw debate over tribunal capacity, creditor recoveries, and reform priorities.
Delay in insolvency resolution under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code remained the central issue in parliamentary discussion on the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (Amendment) Bill, 2025. Members referred to tribunal capacity constraints, overburdened case loads, delayed liquidation and resolution timelines, value deterioration, and low realisations to creditors as continuing problems in the insolvency ecosystem. The select committee report was noted as seeking to address these structural concerns through amendments aimed at improving the functioning of the insolvency and bankruptcy framework.
March 25, 2026
Show AI Summary
Electricity tariff reduction cuts power charges by one paisa per unit across all consumer categories for FY27.
Electricity tariff for all consumer categories in Himachal Pradesh has been reduced by one paisa per unit for FY27, effective from 1 April 2026. The tariff order fixes the average cost of supply at Rs 6.75 per unit after truing up, resulting in a corresponding reduction in energy charges across consumer classes. The revised schedule sets category-wise tariffs for domestic, commercial, industrial, agricultural, railway, EV charging, irrigation, bulk supply, and street lighting consumers, while domestic subsidy is left to the state government decision and compensation mechanism.
March 25, 2026
Show AI Summary
Money laundering attachment over Mahadev betting assets targets alleged proceeds of crime and overseas luxury properties.
Provisional attachment under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act was issued against immovable assets linked to the Mahadev Online Book betting operation, including luxury properties in Dubai, apartments in Burj Khalifa and two properties in Delhi. The attached assets were alleged to represent proceeds of crime generated from illegal online betting activities controlled through entities associated with the main promoter of the platform.
March 25, 2026
Show AI Summary
Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code reform focuses on faster resolution, out-of-court settlements, and cross-border insolvency provisions.
The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code is described as a revival and resolution framework that has generated substantial recoveries through resolution of bankrupt companies and improved creditor-debtor discipline. The proposed amendment bill seeks to reduce the time taken for admission of insolvency resolution applications, speed up case clearance, support out-of-court resolution, and address cross-border insolvency and discretionary provisions.
March 25, 2026
Show AI Summary
Power tariff unchanged as the commission prioritizes revenue neutrality, loss reduction, and efficiency in electricity distribution.
The Haryana Electricity Regulatory Commission kept power tariff unchanged for the 2026-27 financial year and treated the Annual Revenue Requirement of the distribution licensees as revenue-neutral despite a projected revenue gap. The order linked the decision to improved efficiency in revenue collection, receivables management, power procurement and loss reduction, while also fixing distribution loss levels and directing feeder-level monitoring to curb losses.
March 25, 2026
Show AI Summary
Permanent Establishment audit reporting governs royalty and technical fees income for non-residents under the prescribed form.
Form No. 24 is a prescribed audit report for non-residents, foreign companies, and other non-resident entities deriving royalty or fees for technical services from India through a Permanent Establishment or fixed place of profession in India. It is certified by an Accountant and is mandatory where such income is effectively connected with the Indian Permanent Establishment or fixed place of profession. The form requires books of account, supporting documents, annexures, and electronic certification details, and is furnished annually before the return due date. Furnishing and acceptance of the form support assessment on a net income basis.
March 25, 2026
Show AI Summary
Skill Development Project notification under income tax law links approval, audit compliance, and renewal conditions for eligible companies.
Form 23 is the CBDT notification form for an approved Skill Development Project under Section 47(1)(b) of the Income-tax Act, 2025 read with Rules 39 and 40. It is issued after Form 22 is examined and recommended by NCVET, and it specifies the approved Tax Year(s), project particulars, conditions, and validity for up to three Tax Years. The framework requires separate books, audit, prescribed reporting, compliance with notification conditions, and permits renewal or revocation depending on project performance and statutory compliance.
March 25, 2026
Show AI Summary
Skill development project notification governs approval, tax-year limits, conditions, and compliance for income-tax benefits.
Form 23 is the income-tax notification form for an approved skill development project under Section 47(1)(b) of the Income-tax Act, 2025, issued after approval under Rule 39. It notifies the project in the Official Gazette, specifies the approved tax years, and sets the terms, duration, and expenditure limits. The notification is issued by the Central Board of Direct Taxes on recommendation of NCVET, and contains the company's particulars, project details, training institute details, approved tax years, estimated expenditure, and attached conditions.
March 25, 2026
Show AI Summary
Skill Development Project approval under income tax rules requires Form 22 filing, structured disclosures, and electronic verification.
Form 22 is the prescribed Income-tax application by which an eligible company seeks approval of a Skill Development Project under Section 47(1)(b) of the Income-tax Act, 2025 read with Rule 39. The form is filed with the National Council for Vocational Education and Training for recommendation to the Central Board of Direct Taxes, and it must be submitted electronically using DSC or EVC before commencement of the project. It requires disclosure of company particulars, project particulars, training institute details, prior notifications or revocations, return of income data, penalties, outstanding tax demands, expenditure projections, and supporting annexures.

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Guidance Note - Form 24

March 26, 2026

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Form No. 24 [corresponding to erstwhile Form 3CE] – Audit Report for Non-Residents / Foreign Companies earning income by way of Royalty or Fees for Technical Services (FTS) through a Permanent Establishment (PE) or Fixed Place of Profession in India

Purpose:

Form No. 24 is a statutory audit report prescribed under Rule 43 of the Income-tax Rules, 2026.

It is required to be furnished by a non-resident assessee or foreign company that earns royalty or fees for technical services (FTS) from India and carries on business through a Permanent Establishment (PE) or fixed place of profession in India.

Form No. 24 provides an independent Chartered Accountant’s certificate confirming the correctness of such income computation.

The form verifies that:

  • The assessee has a PE or fixed place of profession in India during the relevant tax year.
  • The assessee has maintained books of account in respect of Indian operations.
  • Only expenses attributable to the PE have been deducted while computing income under section 59.
  • The computation of income from royalty/FTS and profits attributable to PE is correct.

Who Should File:

Form No. 24 must be filed by:

  • Non-resident individuals
  • Foreign companies
  • Any other non-resident entity

who:

  • Earn royalty or fees for technical services (FTS) from India under an agreement with the government or an Indian concern, and
  • The royalty/FTS is effective connected with a Permanent Establishment (PE) or fixed place of profession in India,

The form is furnished by a Chartered Accountant.

Frequency & Due Dates:

Form No. 24 is furnished annually one month prior to the due date for furnishing the return of income under Section 263(1).

Structure of Form No. 24:

Form No. 24 constitutes the following key components:

  • Basic details: Name, address, PAN, Details of the agreement under which royalty/FTS is received, Details of the Permanent Establishment / fixed place of profession
  • Verification of PE and Books of Account: Confirmation that the assessee has a PE or fixed place of profession in India, whether separate books of account are maintained for the PE, books of account examined during audit (with a tabular list)
  • Income Computation under Section 59: Amount of royalty/FTS received, Expenses attributable to PE, disallowance of expenses

What are the documents required to file the Form No. 24?

Following documents may be required for filing Form No. 24:

  1. Books of account of the PE or fixed place of profession
  2. Agreement(s) relating to royalty or FTS
  3. Invoices, work orders, project reports
  4. Details of global and India-specific expense allocation, including head office expenditure

What is the process flow of filing Form No. 24?

The process flow includes following steps

  1. Identification of PE / fixed place and obligation under Section 59
  2. Maintenance and audit of books of account of the PE
  3. Compilation of income and expense statements attributable to India
  4. Examination by Chartered Accountant
  5. Preparation and submission of Form No. 24 (e-Form) on the e-filing portal
  6. DSC-based verification by the CA
  7. Acceptance by the non-resident assessee
  8. Form becomes part of the assessment record enabling computation under Section 59

Outcome of Processed Form No. 24:

Enables computation of royalty/FTS on net income basis, rather than gross basis

Brief note on broad or qualitative changes proposed:

Key updates include the following

  • The entire form has been made into a smart form, tabulating data to make extraction easier.
  • Books of account examined – A few books of account have been provided in a tabular format so that the accountant need only tick the books examined. A field for adding any other books has been given.
  • Details on maintenance of books of account have been expanded to include accounting software, storage, and compliance with provisions of Rule 6F (also proposed to be amended) relating to copies of books of account to be updated regularly in case books are maintained in storage outside India
  • Change in definition of accountant entitled to sign the audit report – The Form originally allowed three types of people to sign the report:
    • A CA as defined in the Chartered Accountant’s Act, 1949
    • A person entitled to be appointed as an Auditor u/s 226(2) of the Companies Act, 1956
    • A person entitled to audit the accounts by virtue of any other law [for those assessees whose accounts were audited under any other law]

The new Act defines accountant in section 515(3)(b) as a CA defined in the Chartered Accountant’s Act, 1949, subject to certain exclusions, like related parties of the assessee or a CA that has been dismissed from government service or convicted of an offence, etc. Since these are reasonable exclusions, the same definition has been included in the proposed Form.

With respect to the second category, the Companies Act, 2013 does not include a corresponding provision of section 226(2) of Companies Act, 1956. Hence, this clause has been removed as redundant.

  • Details like membership number, firm registration number, and UDIN have been incorporated in the Form to be filled in mandatorily.

Challenges and Solutions:

Earlier, Form No. 24 majorly had free textboxes to enter details like expenditure, details of payer, etc. By tabulating the data, compliance as well as extraction and validation is expected to be simplified.

Common Changes made across Forms:

  1. To make Forms system-friendly and enable e-filing and uploading, certain anomalies found due to grouping of Name, Designation, Address, PAN and Aadhaar number have been separated into different boxes.
  2. Assessment / Financial / Previous year or years have been replaced with Tax year or years, wherever appearing in the Form/Annexure.
  3. Sections, Clauses and Schedules changes as per the Income-tax Act, 2025.
  4. Currency symbol “Rs.” has been replaced with “₹”.

Topics

Acts Income Tax