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    NPC Signs Agreement with Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEF&CC) to act as Environment Audit Designated Agency
    Rupee crashes 64 paise to settle at all-time low of 93.53 against US dollar
    EOU forms special team to track tender scams in Bihar
    Make life easier for taxpayers, use technology to check evasion: FM to IT officers
    UIDAI chief praises Andaman and Nicobar for top performance in Aadhaar updates
    Gujarat gearing up to be USD 1 trillion economy by 2030 under PM's guidance: CM Patel
    India's forex reserves drop USD 7 bn to USD 709.76 bn
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    MSRTC won't face fuel supply issue for next 2 months, but there is no plan B, says minister
    CBDT notifies rules for simplified income tax law, to be effective from April 1
    MRO services in India to grow to USD 5.7 billion by 2030
    IEA advocates work from home, reduced air travel to tackle oil shock
    Uttarakhand GST scam: Officials float firms, make dealings with dubious company to unearth evasion
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    'Sense of worry among exporters': Govt approves Rs 497 cr 'RELIEF' scheme amid West Asia disruptions
    NICDC to Anchor Implementation of BHAVYA Scheme for Development of 100 Industrial Parks
    Chakraborty was asked to reconsider resignation, elaborate on concerns, change language in letter: HDFC Bank CEO
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March 21, 2026
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Environment audit designated agency role assigned: NPC to manage auditor certification, registration and capacity building under new rules.
The Government designated the National Productivity Council as the Environment Audit Designated Agency under the Environment Audit Rules, 2025, assigning NPC responsibility to develop eligibility and screening criteria, conduct examinations and certification for Certified Environmental Auditors, specify registration criteria for Registered Environmental Auditors, maintain an online public register, and manage renewal, suspension, withdrawal or cancellation processes, monitoring and disciplinary measures, alongside establishing digital systems and capacity building programmes to administer the national environmental audit framework.
March 20, 2026
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Currency depreciation driven by persistent foreign outflows and rising oil prices, heightening reserve pressure and inflation risks.
Rupee depreciation accelerated due to persistent foreign portfolio outflows and surging crude oil prices, intensifying exchange rate pressure and inflationary risk. Geopolitical tensions disrupting energy supplies were cited as a key driver, while heavy foreign equity selling and a notable decline in foreign exchange reserves reinforced market stress and reserve management challenges for monetary authorities.
March 20, 2026
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Tender irregularities monitored by a dedicated EOU team investigating collusion, portal manipulation and related financial offences.
A specialised EOU team has been formed to monitor and investigate tender irregularities across government departments, targeting collusion, manipulation of departmental portals and bypassing of procurement safeguards, with particular attention to illegal mining schemes involving departmental officials. Concurrently, the EOU has advanced financial crime probes including an examination paper leak, an investigation into disproportionate assets with cross border property evidence, PMLA referrals to the enforcement agency for asset confiscation review, and inquiries into GST evasion and fraud in cooperatives, banks and post offices.
March 20, 2026
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Tax simplification: streamline compliance for honest taxpayers while using technology to detect willful evasion and reduce litigation.
Finance Minister directs tax authorities to make compliance easy for honest taxpayers while using technology to detect willful evasion under the streamlined Income Tax Act, 2025; calls for local-language awareness campaigns and administrative steps to reduce litigation by clarifying and consolidating statutory provisions.
March 20, 2026
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Aadhaar biometric updates strengthen identity verification; coordination and cybersecurity measures expand digital access safeguards nationwide
UIDAI commended Andaman and Nicobar for strong implementation of Aadhaar biometric updates and adult enrolment verification, while noting terrain and connectivity challenges that require coordination with local administration. UIDAI emphasised the Aadhaar mobile application for remote identity management and a cybersecurity bug bounty programme engaging vetted ethical hackers to secure public-facing applications, and urged timely biometric updates for children to prevent authentication problems in examinations and welfare schemes.
March 20, 2026
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Economic development goal: state pursues large-scale economy growth through industrial support, infrastructure upgrades and policy transparency.
Gujarat sets an economic development goal to become a large-scale economy by following central policy direction, with the state committing targeted support to industries through policy-driven facilitation, transparency, and updated regulatory measures. Operational measures emphasize infrastructure, water and electricity improvements, inclusive regional development beyond traditional industrial belts, expansion of the MSME sector, export-oriented sectoral strengths, investor attraction via the Vibrant Gujarat initiative, and a long-term roadmap toward national development milestones, with infrastructure upgrades and investment facilitation as core mechanisms.
March 20, 2026
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Foreign exchange reserves decline indicates central bank reserve composition shifts and affects external liquidity management policy.
The central bank reported a weekly decline in overall foreign exchange reserves driven mainly by a fall in foreign currency assets, alongside an increase in gold holdings and minor decreases in Special Drawing Rights and the reserve position with the international monetary institution, changes which alter reserve composition and dollar-denominated valuation.
March 20, 2026
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Currency depreciation pressures the rupee as fund outflows and rising oil amid geopolitical tensions create a negative bias.
The rupee fell to a record low of 93.71 against the dollar, primarily due to sustained foreign institutional investor outflows and rising global crude prices amid geopolitical tensions; higher energy costs were noted as risks to the trade deficit and inflation, while major central banks' rate-hold stances and recent net foreign equity sales were cited as contextual factors, with analysts forecasting a continued negative bias and a near-term trading range for the spot exchange rate.
March 20, 2026
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Fuel supply security ensured short term by priority allocations, but no contingency plan exists for prolonged disruption.
MSRTC's diesel supply is secured for the next two months by central priority allocations and Indian Oil Corporation deliveries, but the corporation has no contingency plan if supplies stop. The fleet of around 15,800 buses depends on diesel; electric buses are too few to substitute meaningfully. Competitive tendering has produced higher per litre discounts and projected annual procurement savings, while MSRTC continues to carry substantial accumulated operational losses and anticipates higher fuel costs with the planned induction of additional diesel buses.
March 20, 2026
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House Rent Allowance rules revised to expand higher-city relief and require landlord-tenant disclosure for exemption claims.
The notification establishes Income-tax Rules effective April 1 to implement the simplified Income-tax Act, preserving a refined House Rent Allowance framework with higher-city treatment and mandatory landlord-tenant disclosure for HRA claims; it tightens capital gains, non-resident taxation and stock-exchange rules, prescribes inclusion of pre-conversion holding time for converted securities when determining holding period, and imposes expanded auditor and corporate verification duties alongside over one hundred and fifty official forms.
March 20, 2026
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MRO sector expansion driven by fleet and airport growth, enabled by trade and investment reforms supporting domestic aerospace capacity.
Projected expansion of India's MRO market to 5.7 billion USD by 2030 is driven by fleet and airport capacity growth and enabled by policy reforms such as ratification of the Cape Town Convention, liberalised foreign direct investment, and reductions in GST and customs duties on aviation components. Special economic zones, greenfield airport projects and offset driven reinvestment support manufacturing and leasing, while accelerated logistics, skilled personnel and higher value engine and component overhaul capabilities remain essential to realise the forecast.
March 20, 2026
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Demand reduction measures recommended to ease oil shock, prioritise targeted consumer relief and transport demand management.
The IEA recommends immediate demand side measures-remote work, lower highway speeds, reduced business air travel, expanded public transport, LPG use restriction for non essentials, and improved driving and industrial fuel efficiency-to cut oil and refined product consumption. It advises targeted fiscal relief for vulnerable consumers due to limited fiscal space, highlights coordinated strategic stock releases as a supply response, and stresses restoring Strait of Hormuz transit as essential for stabilising markets while prioritising demand reduction to ease macroeconomic pressures.
March 19, 2026
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Undercover GST investigation exposes supplier using closed firms to suppress sales, prompting seizure and ledger blockage.
Uttarakhand GST officials covertly floated and staffed firms to engage a supplier suspected of evading GST by misusing closed-entity names and suppressing sales; documents on sales, purchases, stock movement and financial transactions were seized during a search and seizure, recoveries were deposited to the GST exchequer and ledgers blocked pending forensic analysis.
March 19, 2026
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Validity of import permits affirmed; documented wildlife imports under valid permits cannot be later invalidated.
The court accepted the Special Investigation Team's finding that no violations were found under domestic statutes or the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species, and noted the CITES Secretariat also found no missing documentation or evidence of commercial importation. Emphasising finality of authorised administrative acts, the court held that imports made under valid permits with requisite documentation cannot be subsequently treated as prohibited merely because objections are raised later, and dismissed the duplicative petition.
March 19, 2026
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Corporate governance concerns after a chairman's ethics based resignation prompt interim leadership and regulator engagement.
An abrupt resignation by the part time non executive chairman citing differences over values and ethics-without specific allegations-triggered board engagement, a Nomination and Remuneration Committee disclosure, appointment of an interim chairman, and regulatory consultation; the bank and regulator publicly reported no material governance concerns while market confidence reacted to the leadership change.
March 19, 2026
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Export relief scheme RELIEF extends obligations and subsidises freight/insurance to ease conflict linked logistics disruptions for exporters.
The RELIEF scheme, implemented by ECGC under the Export Promotion Mission with a dedicated financial outlay, provides targeted, time bound measures for exporters affected by West Asia conflict related logistics disruptions. It includes automatic extension of export obligations for Advance Authorisations and EPCG authorisations without penalty, facilitation of ECGC coverage for forthcoming consignments, and partial reimbursement of extraordinary freight and insurance costs for MSMEs lacking ECGC cover. The scheme applies to consignments destined for or transhipped through specified Gulf and West Asia markets and is subject to dashboard monitoring and periodic review by the EPM Steering Committee.
March 19, 2026
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Plug-and-play industrial parks to streamline permits and infrastructure, accelerating establishment of manufacturing ecosystems and investment readiness nationwide.
NICDC will implement the BHAVYA scheme to develop 100 plug-and-play industrial parks with pre-approved land, ready infrastructure, integrated services and streamlined approval mechanisms including single-window systems, aligned to multimodal connectivity and infrastructure planning (including underground utilities) to ensure investment-ready industrial ecosystems.
March 19, 2026
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Ethics concerns prompted board inquiry and regulator engagement, leading to interim chair appointment to preserve governance continuity.
The chairman's resignation citing ethical misalignment prompted the board to seek specific instances and request withdrawal of certain language; unable to secure clarity, the Nomination and Remuneration Committee engaged the banking regulator, which appointed an interim chair to ensure governance continuity. Management maintained there were no substantive issues warranting resignation, described an overseas investigation as closed with accountability fixed, and directed the NRC to address executive reappointment and chairman selection under standard succession processes.
March 19, 2026
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Aadhaar update timelines: call for time bound processing and stronger grievance redressal to reduce RTI and litigation.
Delays and lack of clarity in processing Aadhaar demographic update requests, notably date of birth corrections, led the Commission to urge UIDAI to adopt clear timelines and time bound disposal procedures and to strengthen grievance redressal and public awareness so citizens need not resort to RTI or court petitions.
March 19, 2026
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Export relief scheme RELIEF supports exporters with enhanced insurance cover and reimbursements amid West Asia logistics disruptions.
RELIEF is a time bound Export Promotion Mission intervention designating ECGC Ltd. as the nodal implementing agency to provide enhanced risk coverage for ECGC insured consignments during the disruption period, supported ECGC cover for forthcoming shipments over a defined three month window, and a partial reimbursement mechanism for eligible non insured MSME exporters to offset extraordinary freight and insurance surcharges, subject to documentary verification and notified ceilings; implementation is funded from an approved EPM outlay and monitored via dashboard and periodic steering committee review.

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Form No. 24 – Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs)

March 25, 2026

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Form No. 24 – Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs)

Form of Audit Report under Section 59(4) of the Income-tax Act, 2025.

Name of Form as per I.T. Rules, 1962 Form

3

CE Name of Form as per I.T. Rules, 2026

Form No. 24

Corresponding Section of I.T. Act, 1961

44DA

Corresponding section of I.T. Act, 2025

59

Corresponding Rule of I.T. Rules, 1962

Rule 6GA

Corresponding Rules of I.T. Rules, 2026

Rule 43

1. What is Form No. 24?

Ans:- Form No. 24 is a prescribed audit report required to be furnished under Rule 43 read with Section 59(4) of the Income-tax Act, 2025. It is applicable to non-residents or foreign companies earning income by way of royalty or fees for technical services (FTS) from India through a Permanent Establishment (PE) or a fixed place of profession situated in India.

2. Who should file Form No. 24?

Ans:- Form No. 24 is required to be furnished by:

  • Non-resident individuals
  • Foreign companies
  • Any other non-resident entities

who earn royalty or fees for technical services from India and where such income is effectively connected with a Permanent Establishment or fixed place of profession in India. The form is certified by an Accountant as defined in section 515(3)(b) of the Income-tax Act, 2025.

3. Is Form No. 24 compulsory?

Ans:- Yes. Furnishing of Form No. 24 is mandatory where income by way of royalty or fees for technical services is taxable under Section 59 through a Permanent Establishment or fixed place of profession in India.

4. When does the requirement of furnishing Form No. 24 arise?

Ans:- The requirement arises when a non-resident assessee or foreign company earns royalty or fees for technical services from India under an agreement with the Government of India or an Indian concern, and such income is effectively connected with a Permanent Establishment or fixed place of profession in India.

5. What documents / information are required to prepare Form No. 24?

Ans:- The Chartered Accountant will require:

a. Complete books of account and records relating to the business of the Permanent Establishment (PE) or fixed place of profession in India for the relevant tax year.

b. Accurate computation of income earned by way of royalty or fees for technical services (FTS), ensuring such income is effectively connected with the Indian PE.

c. Documentation supporting the claim for expenditure (excluding those not allowable under Section 59) that is strictly attributable to the PE or fixed place of profession.

d. A copy of the agreement with the Government of India or the Indian concern under which the royalty or FTS is earned (Annexure A-2).

e. A detailed note on the intangible property (know-how, copyrights, patents, etc.) used, or the specific contract for which the fees are payable (Annexure A-3).

f. A descriptive note outlining the activities of the PE or the fixed place of profession in India (Annexure A-4).

g. Details of any change in the method of accounting employed compared to the previous year and its effect on profit or loss (Annexure A-1).

h. The Accountant’s Membership Number, Firm Registration Number, and a generated Unique Document Identification Number (UDIN) for the electronic certification.

6. What is the due date for furnishing Form No. 24?

Ans:- Form No. 24 is required to be furnished annually, at least one month prior to the due date for furnishing the return of income under Section 263(1) of the Income-tax Act, 2025.

7. What is the effect of furnishing Form No. 24?

Ans:- Furnishing of Form No. 24 enables computation of royalty or fees for technical services on a net income basis after allowing only such expenses as are attributable to the Permanent Establishment or fixed place of profession in India.

8. What is the structure of Form No. 24?

Ans:- Form No. 24 consists of:

- Main Audit Report: The core certification under Section 59 of the Income-tax Act, 2025, where the accountant certifies the amount of royalty or fees for technical services (FTS) and its effective connection with the Permanent Establishment (PE) or fixed place of profession in India.

- Annexure – Part A: This section captures the General Particulars of the Assessee, including their name, address, Permanent Account Number (PAN), and the relevant tax year.

- Annexure – Part B: This section contains the Statement of Particulars relating to income by way of royalty or fees for technical services, detailing the books of account, method of accounting, details of the payer, and head-wise expenditure attributable to the PE.

- Specific Annexures (A-1 to A-4): Depending on the responses in Part B, additional detailed notes must be attached, such as the copy of the agreement (Annexure A-2), notes on intangible property (Annexure A-3), and notes on the specific activities of the PE (Annexure A-4).

9. What is the process flow of filing Form No. 24?

Ans:- The process flow includes:

a. The process starts with identifying whether the non-resident or foreign company has a Permanent Establishment (PE) or a fixed place of profession in India during the tax year.

b. All income earned via royalty or fees for technical services (FTS) effectively connected to the PE must be compiled, along with expenditures strictly attributable to the PE.

c. The assessee must engage an "Accountant" as defined in Section 515(3)(b) to audit these accounts and verify the correctness of the income computation.

d. The accountant prepares the audit report and mandatory annexures, including Annexure A-2 (Agreement copy), Annexure A3 (Note on intangibles/contracts), and Annexure A-4 (Note on PE activities).

e. The accountant logs into the e-filing portal to fill out the form, ensuring the inclusion of their Membership Number, Firm Registration Number, and a generated Unique Document Identification Number (UDIN).

f. The accountant must digitally sign the form using their Digital Signature Certificate (DSC) to upload it.

g. After the Accountant uploads the form, it appears in the taxpayer’s worklist; the process is only complete once the assessee logs in and "Accepts" the form.

10. What is the outcome after furnishing Form No. 24?

Ans:- Upon furnishing and acceptance of Form No. 24, the income by way of royalty or fees for technical services is assessed under Section 59 on a net basis, forming part of the assessment record.

11. Why is Form No. 24 important?

Ans:- Form No. 24 is a statutory audit certificate that ensures correct attribution of income and expenses and verifies that income is effectively connected to the Permanent Establishment or fixed place of profession in India. It prevents excess deduction of expenses and ensures correct taxation of royalty or fees for technical services earned by non-residents.  

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