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March 28, 2026
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Securitization trust income reporting through Form 72, with online filing, prescribed records, and pass-through taxation compliance.
Form 72 is the statement of income paid or credited by a securitization trust to its investors. It must be furnished to the Income-tax Department online by the person responsible for paying or crediting income on behalf of the trust, by 15 June of the financial year following the tax year in which the income was paid or credited. Filing requires the trust's books, audited financial statements, income details from securitised assets, investor particulars, distribution records, and the applicable registration certificate.
March 28, 2026
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Audit report compliance for offshore banking unit investment divisions governs exemption and concessional taxation claims under income tax rules.
Form 71 is the mandatory audit report for a registered investment division of an offshore banking unit where a specified fund seeks exemption under section 11 read with Schedule VI or concessional taxation under section 210(3) of the ITA 2025. It certifies fulfilment of the prescribed eligibility conditions, including separate books, audit by an accountant, relevant documentation, and filing by the specified date. The form is filed electronically with supporting records and, when validly furnished, supports the claim to exemption or concessional rates.
March 28, 2026
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Tax exemption compliance for specified funds depends on timely electronic filing of Form 71 and accountant verification.
Form 71 is the prescribed audit report for verification by an accountant in respect of the computation of exempt income of a specified fund attributable to the investment division of an offshore banking unit. It is linked to the claim of exemption or taxation at concessional rates for eligible income, and its filing is one of the conditions for admissibility of that claim. The form must be filed electronically on the income-tax e-filing portal and verified by the accountant either through digital signature or electronic verification code. It cannot be filed offline, and once validly submitted and acknowledged it cannot be edited.
March 28, 2026
Show AI Summary
Specified fund compliance for Form 70 governs exempt income reporting and concessional taxation claims for offshore banking units.
Form 70 is the prescribed e-form for a specified fund to furnish the annual statement of exempt income attributable to the investment division of an offshore banking unit under section 11 read with Schedule VI, together with income taxable at concessional rates under section 210(3) of the ITA 2025. Filing is mandatory for a specified fund seeking exemption or concessional taxation and must be made electronically on the e-filing portal by the due date, with supporting documents, verification by the Trustee or Principal Officer, and the audit report in Form 71 certifying separate accounts and audit of the eligible investment division.
March 28, 2026
Show AI Summary
Exempt income reporting through Form 70 requires electronic filing, verification, and timely compliance for specified fund benefits.
Form 70 is the annual statement for a specified fund to report exempt income and income taxable at concessional rates in relation to the investment division of an offshore banking unit. It must be verified by the Principal Officer or Managing Trustee and filed electronically on the Income-tax e-filing portal within the prescribed due date. Filing a valid form is a mandatory condition for claiming exemption or concessional taxation, and the form cannot be filed offline or edited after valid submission. A valid PAN of the fund and the verifier is required, along with prescribed supporting documents and mandatory attachments.
March 28, 2026
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Concessional taxation for specified funds depends on timely filing of Form 69 with income and unit-holder details.
Form 69 is the prescribed annual statement for a specified fund to report income attributable to units held by non-residents, other than a permanent establishment in India, for concessional taxation. The form is a mandatory compliance requirement and must be filed electronically on or before the due date, with trustee or principal officer verification. It includes fund particulars, registration details, and computations of income from securities and capital gains, supported by constituting documents, registration certificate, financial statements, securities statements, and unit-holder residency details.
March 28, 2026
Show AI Summary
Concessional taxation for specified funds requires electronic Form 69 filing, verification, and timely supporting disclosures.
Form 69 is the prescribed electronic statement for a specified fund claiming concessional taxation on income attributable to units held by a non-resident, other than a permanent establishment in India. A valid filing within the prescribed due date is a mandatory condition for the concessional rate benefit. The form must be verified by the Principal Officer or Managing Trustee, supported by the prescribed annexures and documents, and cannot be edited after submission and acknowledgment.
March 28, 2026
Show AI Summary
Exempt income reporting under Form 68 streamlined for specified funds with electronic filing and updated verification requirements.
Form 68 is the annual statement prescribed for specified funds seeking exemption under Section 11 read with Schedule VI of ITA 2025 in respect of income attributable to units held by a non-resident, other than a permanent establishment in India. It is filed electronically by the Principal Officer on or before the return due date, and captures particulars of the fund, income, exempt income, unit-holder details, and the working of income attributable to non-resident holders. The guidance note also describes the supporting documents and the simplified filing updates, including IFSCA registration, mandatory document upload, and verification in place of declaration.
March 28, 2026
Show AI Summary
Exempt income statement filing for specified funds requires verified online submission within the prescribed due date.
Form 68 is the prescribed electronic statement for claiming exemption of income of specified funds under section 11 read with Schedule VI [Table: Sl. Nos. 1 to 4] of the Income-tax Act, 2025, in respect of income attributable to units held by a non-resident other than a permanent establishment of such non-resident in India. The form must be verified by the Principal Officer or Managing Trustee, filed only through the Income-tax e-filing portal, and furnished on or before the applicable due date. Valid filing requires mandatory PAN details, specified annexures, and satisfaction of the statutory eligibility conditions.
March 28, 2026
Show AI Summary
Alternate Minimum Tax reporting gets a structured Form 67 update with CA certification, itemised computation, and digital filing.
Form 67 is a chartered accountant's report for certifying book profit, adjusted total income and Alternate Minimum Tax liability under the updated section 206 framework. It applies to non-corporate taxpayers subject to the AMT regime, is furnished annually with the return of income, and must be digitally signed. The revised form introduces itemised computation fields, category-based AMT rates, and system-enabled validation through the e-filing process.
March 28, 2026
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Alternate Minimum Tax compliance through Form 67 requires CA certification, electronic filing, and timely submission with the return.
Form 67 is prescribed for furnishing details relating to the computation of Adjusted Total Income and Alternate Minimum Tax (AMT) under section 206(2) of the Income-tax Act, 2025. It applies to persons other than companies, subject to stated exceptions, and is not required for certain specified taxpayers where adjusted total income does not exceed twenty lakh rupees. The form is used to determine AMT on adjusted total income, with tax payable at the higher of the regular tax or AMT, and it incorporates adjustments such as depreciation and other specified items.
March 28, 2026
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Minimum Alternate Tax reporting through Form 66 demands Chartered Accountant certification, digital filing, and return-linked book profit verification.
Companies liable to Minimum Alternate Tax must furnish Form 66, a Chartered Accountant-certified report on book profit and MAT computation, annually with the income tax return. The form is digitally signed, accepted by the company through the e-filing portal, and linked to the return for processing. It contains company particulars, profit adjustments, transition amount, final MAT computation, auditor certification, and supporting financial and tax documents.
March 27, 2026
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Access to unrelied ED documents denied at pre-cognisance stage in an ongoing money-laundering investigation.
Access to documents seized by the Enforcement Directorate but not relied upon in the chargesheet was refused at the pre-cognisance stage in an ongoing Prevention of Money Laundering Act matter. The court held that the accused had already been supplied with the prosecution complaint and relied-upon documents, and that disclosure of unrelied material was not required before cognisance when the investigation remained pending.
March 27, 2026
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Trade agreement framework balances market access with farmer safeguards, calibrated tariff concessions, and export opportunities across key sectors.
India and the United States have agreed on a framework for an interim trade agreement intended to expand reciprocal and mutually beneficial trade while protecting domestic sensitivities, particularly in agriculture and dairy. The framework contemplates improved market access, rules of origin, action on non-tariff barriers, and cooperation on standards, digital trade, economic security, technology, supply chain resilience, energy and manufacturing. Limited and calibrated tariff concessions have been offered on select agricultural products through quota-based mechanisms, phased concessions and partial duty reductions, with the quotas kept within existing import levels to avoid adverse impact on domestic farmers.
March 27, 2026
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Rupee weakness deepens as higher crude prices, dollar strength and foreign selling weigh on currency and reserves.
The rupee weakened sharply to a historic low against the US dollar amid sustained pressure from higher crude oil prices, a stronger greenback, foreign investor selling, and energy-led inflation concerns. India's foreign exchange reserves also declined during the reporting week, driven by a fall in gold reserves. The government indicated plans to mobilise substantial borrowing through dated securities in the April-September period, while noting a reduction in gross market borrowing after G-Sec switches.
March 27, 2026
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Government borrowing calendar set for dated securities, green bonds, retail bidding and flexible issuance management.
The Centre plans to raise gross market borrowings through dated securities in the first half of FY 2026-27 to finance the fiscal deficit, with borrowing spread across weekly auctions and multiple maturities. The borrowing calendar includes sovereign green bonds, non-competitive bidding for specified retail investors, and flexibility to modify issuance amounts, maturities, instruments and timing in consultation with the Reserve Bank of India, depending on funding needs and market conditions.
March 27, 2026
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Bilateral trade agreement negotiations advance as India and the US discuss WTO issues, tariffs, and next steps in talks.
India and the United States continued discussions on the next steps in the bilateral trade agreement negotiations, covering the WTO agenda, the India-US BTA, and ways to deepen bilateral economic cooperation and trade ties. A framework for the first phase has been finalised, but the legal text remains unsigned, and the chief negotiators' meeting was postponed because of changes in the US tariff architecture and the need to await the revised global tariff framework before the interim trade agreement is signed.
March 27, 2026
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Energy supply stability assured as government rules out lockdown, citing adequate fuel stocks and anti-hoarding measures.
The government ruled out any lockdown and said India has adequate stocks of petrol, diesel and LPG, with fuel retail operations continuing normally despite energy supply disruptions linked to the war in West Asia. Officials said rumours have caused panic buying, while alternative sourcing, higher domestic LPG production, excise duty cuts, export levies, export diversion directions and intensified anti-hoarding enforcement are being used to stabilise supplies and protect consumers.
March 27, 2026
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Excise duty cut on petrol and diesel aims to shield consumers from global fuel price volatility.
The Union Government reduced excise duty on petrol and diesel by Rs 10 per litre to prevent a retail price increase caused by rising global oil prices. The move was described as a people-centric measure intended to shield consumers from fuel price volatility and wider shortages linked to global instability.
March 27, 2026
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State borrowing costs harden as bond yields rise, forcing partial bids and higher returns in volatile fixed-income markets.
States' borrowing costs hardened in a State Development Loan auction as cut-off yields rose across long-term maturities, with several securities moving above 8 per cent. The increase tracked a broader rise in government bond yields amid global oil price pressures, inflationary concerns and weakness in the rupee, causing some states to accept only partial borrowing amounts or reject bids. The report notes that higher bond yields may keep borrowing costs elevated and increase volatility in fixed-income markets.

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Form No. 24 – Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs)

March 25, 2026

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Form No. 24 – Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs)

Form of Audit Report under Section 59(4) of the Income-tax Act, 2025.

Name of Form as per I.T. Rules, 1962 Form

3

CE Name of Form as per I.T. Rules, 2026

Form No. 24

Corresponding Section of I.T. Act, 1961

44DA

Corresponding section of I.T. Act, 2025

59

Corresponding Rule of I.T. Rules, 1962

Rule 6GA

Corresponding Rules of I.T. Rules, 2026

Rule 43

1. What is Form No. 24?

Ans:- Form No. 24 is a prescribed audit report required to be furnished under Rule 43 read with Section 59(4) of the Income-tax Act, 2025. It is applicable to non-residents or foreign companies earning income by way of royalty or fees for technical services (FTS) from India through a Permanent Establishment (PE) or a fixed place of profession situated in India.

2. Who should file Form No. 24?

Ans:- Form No. 24 is required to be furnished by:

  • Non-resident individuals
  • Foreign companies
  • Any other non-resident entities

who earn royalty or fees for technical services from India and where such income is effectively connected with a Permanent Establishment or fixed place of profession in India. The form is certified by an Accountant as defined in section 515(3)(b) of the Income-tax Act, 2025.

3. Is Form No. 24 compulsory?

Ans:- Yes. Furnishing of Form No. 24 is mandatory where income by way of royalty or fees for technical services is taxable under Section 59 through a Permanent Establishment or fixed place of profession in India.

4. When does the requirement of furnishing Form No. 24 arise?

Ans:- The requirement arises when a non-resident assessee or foreign company earns royalty or fees for technical services from India under an agreement with the Government of India or an Indian concern, and such income is effectively connected with a Permanent Establishment or fixed place of profession in India.

5. What documents / information are required to prepare Form No. 24?

Ans:- The Chartered Accountant will require:

a. Complete books of account and records relating to the business of the Permanent Establishment (PE) or fixed place of profession in India for the relevant tax year.

b. Accurate computation of income earned by way of royalty or fees for technical services (FTS), ensuring such income is effectively connected with the Indian PE.

c. Documentation supporting the claim for expenditure (excluding those not allowable under Section 59) that is strictly attributable to the PE or fixed place of profession.

d. A copy of the agreement with the Government of India or the Indian concern under which the royalty or FTS is earned (Annexure A-2).

e. A detailed note on the intangible property (know-how, copyrights, patents, etc.) used, or the specific contract for which the fees are payable (Annexure A-3).

f. A descriptive note outlining the activities of the PE or the fixed place of profession in India (Annexure A-4).

g. Details of any change in the method of accounting employed compared to the previous year and its effect on profit or loss (Annexure A-1).

h. The Accountant’s Membership Number, Firm Registration Number, and a generated Unique Document Identification Number (UDIN) for the electronic certification.

6. What is the due date for furnishing Form No. 24?

Ans:- Form No. 24 is required to be furnished annually, at least one month prior to the due date for furnishing the return of income under Section 263(1) of the Income-tax Act, 2025.

7. What is the effect of furnishing Form No. 24?

Ans:- Furnishing of Form No. 24 enables computation of royalty or fees for technical services on a net income basis after allowing only such expenses as are attributable to the Permanent Establishment or fixed place of profession in India.

8. What is the structure of Form No. 24?

Ans:- Form No. 24 consists of:

- Main Audit Report: The core certification under Section 59 of the Income-tax Act, 2025, where the accountant certifies the amount of royalty or fees for technical services (FTS) and its effective connection with the Permanent Establishment (PE) or fixed place of profession in India.

- Annexure – Part A: This section captures the General Particulars of the Assessee, including their name, address, Permanent Account Number (PAN), and the relevant tax year.

- Annexure – Part B: This section contains the Statement of Particulars relating to income by way of royalty or fees for technical services, detailing the books of account, method of accounting, details of the payer, and head-wise expenditure attributable to the PE.

- Specific Annexures (A-1 to A-4): Depending on the responses in Part B, additional detailed notes must be attached, such as the copy of the agreement (Annexure A-2), notes on intangible property (Annexure A-3), and notes on the specific activities of the PE (Annexure A-4).

9. What is the process flow of filing Form No. 24?

Ans:- The process flow includes:

a. The process starts with identifying whether the non-resident or foreign company has a Permanent Establishment (PE) or a fixed place of profession in India during the tax year.

b. All income earned via royalty or fees for technical services (FTS) effectively connected to the PE must be compiled, along with expenditures strictly attributable to the PE.

c. The assessee must engage an "Accountant" as defined in Section 515(3)(b) to audit these accounts and verify the correctness of the income computation.

d. The accountant prepares the audit report and mandatory annexures, including Annexure A-2 (Agreement copy), Annexure A3 (Note on intangibles/contracts), and Annexure A-4 (Note on PE activities).

e. The accountant logs into the e-filing portal to fill out the form, ensuring the inclusion of their Membership Number, Firm Registration Number, and a generated Unique Document Identification Number (UDIN).

f. The accountant must digitally sign the form using their Digital Signature Certificate (DSC) to upload it.

g. After the Accountant uploads the form, it appears in the taxpayer’s worklist; the process is only complete once the assessee logs in and "Accepts" the form.

10. What is the outcome after furnishing Form No. 24?

Ans:- Upon furnishing and acceptance of Form No. 24, the income by way of royalty or fees for technical services is assessed under Section 59 on a net basis, forming part of the assessment record.

11. Why is Form No. 24 important?

Ans:- Form No. 24 is a statutory audit certificate that ensures correct attribution of income and expenses and verifies that income is effectively connected to the Permanent Establishment or fixed place of profession in India. It prevents excess deduction of expenses and ensures correct taxation of royalty or fees for technical services earned by non-residents.  

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