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March 26, 2026
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Rent deduction declaration under section 134 requires Form 31 for eligible resident individuals without house rent allowance.
Form 31 is the declaration required for claiming deduction under section 134 for rent paid for residential accommodation. It applies to a resident individual who does not receive house rent allowance and does not own residential property at the place of employment or residence. The form must be filed along with the return of income, and the deduction is available on the basis of details furnished in the form, subject to the annual ceiling of Rs. 60,000.
March 26, 2026
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Deduction for dependant with disability requires Form 30, supported by medical certification, filing details, and electronic verification.
Deduction for maintenance, medical treatment, training and rehabilitation of a dependant with disability is supported by Form 30, which must be filed by a resident individual claiming expenditure for a dependant with disability or payments under an approved scheme. The form is filed with the return of income, supported by the medical authority certificate, and requires completion of assessee details, patient and disability particulars, upload of the signed verification, and e-verification through DSC or Aadhaar.
March 26, 2026
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Disability-related tax deduction requires Form 30, medical certification, and timely filing with the return of income.
Deduction is available for maintenance, including medical treatment, training and rehabilitation, of a dependant who is a person with disability, and for payments made under a qualifying insurance or specified scheme. Form 30 is the prescribed statement for claiming the deduction and must be filed by a resident individual along with the return of income. The medical authority certificate must be uploaded online, and a fresh certificate is required when a temporary disability certificate expires.
March 26, 2026
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Carry forward and set-off of amalgamated losses depends on Form 29 production certification and verified compliance.
Form 29 is the prescribed certificate for an amalgamated company to evidence achievement and maintenance of the prescribed level of production in an undertaking received through amalgamation. It is filed with the return of income to support compliance with the conditions for carry forward and set-off of accumulated loss and unabsorbed depreciation of the amalgamating company. The form must be certified by the principal officer and verified by an accountant, and it requires confirmation that the prescribed production threshold has been achieved and maintained within the specified period.
March 26, 2026
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Freight disruption and export relief measures shape India's response to West Asia-linked logistics stress and production shortages.
West Asia-related disruption in shipping and logistics has led to steep increases in freight charges, container shortages, stranded cargo and shipment cancellations affecting exporters in eastern India. Perishable goods, engineering products, textiles and medicines are among the sectors most affected, while the LPG supply crunch has added to production difficulties and air cargo costs have risen because of route changes and cancellations. The text also refers to relief measures, including waiver-based port concessions, the RELIEF scheme for conflict-linked losses and reimbursement support for eligible MSME exporters.
March 26, 2026
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Production compliance certificate governs carry forward and set-off benefits for amalgamated companies under the income tax rules.
Form 29 is the mandatory certificate under Rule 60 for an amalgamated company claiming carry forward and set-off of accumulated losses and unabsorbed depreciation under Section 116(4)(b)(iii). It certifies achievement and maintenance of the prescribed production level in acquired industrial undertakings, requires electronic filing with the return of income, and may cover multiple amalgamating companies. The production condition is 50% of installed capacity within four years of amalgamation and maintenance up to five years, with possible governmental relaxation in suitable cases.
March 26, 2026
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Slump sale reporting requires accountant certification of net worth and capital gains through online Form 28 filing.
Accountant's report in Form No. 28 (Form No. 3CEA) is required for an assessee undertaking a slump sale to certify the computation of net worth and capital gains under the Income Tax Act, 2025. The form applies where an undertaking or division is transferred as a going concern for a lump-sum consideration without assigning individual values to assets and liabilities. It must be furnished online on the income tax e-filing portal on or before the due date for filing the assessee's income tax return.
March 26, 2026
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Slump sale reporting under income tax law requires mandatory accountant certification, online filing, and timely submission through Form 28.
Form No. 28 is the accountant's report required under section 77(4) of the Income-tax Act, 2025 for computation of capital gains in a slump sale. It applies where an undertaking or division is transferred as a going concern for lump-sum consideration without assigning separate values to assets and liabilities, and it is mandatory for certifying net worth and capital gains. The form must be filed once in a year on or before the due date for the income-tax return, only online, and cannot be edited after submission. A valid PAN is required.
March 26, 2026
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Capital gains attribution framework for specified entities filing Form 27 with valuation support and electronic certification.
Form 27 is filed by every specified entity to furnish details of the amount attributed to capital assets remaining with the entity where a specified person receives capital asset or stock-in-trade on dissolution or reconstitution. It supports computation under Rule 50 and must be certified on the basis of a registered valuer's report. The form is filed electronically with the return of income and includes particulars of the amount taxable, its attribution to remaining assets, and the valuer's details.
March 26, 2026
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Form No. 27 reporting requirement governs valuation-based attribution of income on dissolution or reconstitution of a specified entity.
Form No. 27 is a mandatory income-tax reporting form prescribed under Rule 50 for a specified entity where income becomes taxable under section 67(10) on dissolution or reconstitution and a specified person receives capital asset, stock-in-trade, or both. It operationalises the attribution of such taxable income to the capital assets remaining with the specified entity and must be furnished for each tax year in which the relevant event occurs. The form requires electronic filing with the return of income and valuation-based attribution supported by a registered valuer's report.
March 26, 2026
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Tax audit Form No. 26 standardises disclosures, audit reporting, and filing requirements under the new income tax framework.
Prescribed Form No. 26 is the audit report and statement of particulars under section 63 of the Income-tax Act, 2025 read with rule 47 of the Income-tax Rules, 2026. Parts A and B contain the substantive disclosures for tax audit compliance, including books of account, method of accounting, income, expenses, losses, depreciation, deductions, international taxation, TDS/TCS, indirect taxation and quantitative details. Part C applies where accounts are audited under another law, while Part D applies where they are not. The form is required for specified business and professional thresholds and certain presumptive taxation cases, and is furnished through a structured online filing process.
March 26, 2026
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Mandatory audit reporting under Form No. 26 introduces clause-wise disclosures, UDIN compliance, and schedule-based tax audit filing.
Form No. 26 is the mandatory audit report and statement of particulars for persons carrying on business or profession whose accounts are required to be audited under section 63. It applies from tax years commencing on or after 1 April 2026, is due one month before the return filing deadline, and must be signed by an Accountant with UDIN, and FRN where applicable. The form uses Part B clause-wise Yes/No reporting with trigger-based schedules, and Parts C and D for audit reporting depending on whether accounts are audited under another law.
March 26, 2026
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Daily case register requirements for medical professionals under tax rules, including maintenance, exceptions, and non-filing status.
Form No. 25 prescribes a daily case register for medical professionals under Rule 46 of the Income-tax Rules, 2026. It records the patient's name, nature of service, fees charged, and date of receipt of fees. The form is mandatory for persons engaged in the medical profession, subject to the stated gross-receipts exceptions, and is maintained in addition to books of account. It is not furnished to the Department and has no due date.
March 26, 2026
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Daily case register compliance for medical practitioners requires tabular records, electronic access safeguards, and preservation obligations.
Form No. 25 is the prescribed daily case register for practitioners of any system of medicine under Rule 46 of the Income-tax Rules, 2026, subject to the prescribed gross receipt threshold and the position of newly set-up medical practices. It records patient and fee particulars in tabular form, is not furnished to the Income-tax Department, but must be maintained daily, produced before the Assessing Officer when called for, may be kept electronically with India-based access and backups, and must be preserved for seven tax years or until completion of reassessment proceedings.
March 26, 2026
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Permanent establishment audit reporting for royalty and technical services income now uses a structured Chartered Accountant certification format.
Form No. 24 is a statutory audit report for non-residents and foreign companies earning royalty or fees for technical services from India through a permanent establishment or fixed place of profession in India. It requires a Chartered Accountant's certification of the correctness of income computation, verification of the PE or fixed place, maintenance of books of account, and deduction only of expenses attributable to the PE while computing income under section 59. The form is filed annually, contains structured particulars of the assessee, agreement, PE, books examined, and income computation, and is submitted through the e-filing portal with digital signature verification.
March 26, 2026
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Competition approval for additional shareholding acquisition in Valuedrive Technologies through an alternative investment and trust co-investment structure.
The Competition Commission of India approved the proposed acquisition of additional shareholding in Valuedrive Technologies Private Limited by Setu AIF Trust, Konark Trust and MMPL Trust. The transaction concerns acquisition of shares on a fully diluted basis through an alternative investment fund and private trust co-investment structure. Valuedrive Technologies Private Limited operates as an operating-cum-holding company for the Spinny Group and carries on an electronic platform business for used motor vehicles, together with related subsidiary activities.
March 26, 2026
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Competition law approval for acquisition of shares in a listed NBFC by a Japan-based banking institution.
Competition Commission of India approval was granted for the acquisition of certain shares in Shriram Finance Limited by MUFG Bank Ltd. The acquirer is a Japan-based banking institution wholly owned and controlled by Mitsubishi UFJ Financial Group, Inc., and carries on banking-related activities in India including corporate banking loans, deposit accounts, remittances, trade finance, bank guarantees and hedging. The target is a listed non-banking financial company registered with the Reserve Bank of India, classified as an Investment and Credit Company and an NBFC-Upper Layer, engaged in financing commercial goods and passenger vehicles, construction equipment, farm equipment, MSMEs, two-wheelers, gold and personal loans.
March 26, 2026
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Competition approval for acquisition of Groww Asset Management shareholding by State Street Global Advisors
Competition approval was granted for the proposed acquisition of shareholding in Groww Asset Management Limited by State Street Global Advisors, Inc. The target manages schemes of Groww Mutual Fund, including equity, hybrid, debt and exchange traded fund schemes. State Street operates under the State Street Investment Management brand as the asset management arm of State Street Corporation. The detailed order of the Commission would follow.
March 26, 2026
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Competition combination approval for Coursera and Udemy merger, creating sole control over Udemy through a subsidiary merger.
Competition Commission of India approved a proposed combination involving the merger of Chess Merger Sub, a wholly owned subsidiary of Coursera Inc., with and into Udemy Inc., with Udemy surviving as a wholly owned subsidiary of Coursera. The transaction results in Coursera acquiring sole control over Udemy, and the combined company is expected to have post-closing shareholding in which existing Coursera stockholders hold approximately 59% and existing Udemy stockholders approximately 41% on a fully diluted basis.
March 26, 2026
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Competition approval for renewable energy investment in Aditya Birla Renewables through equity subscription by GIP EM Star.
Competition Commission of India approved the subscription of certain equity share capital of Aditya Birla Renewables Limited by GIP EM Star Pte. Ltd. The acquirer is incorporated in Singapore and is ultimately linked to Global Infrastructure Management, LLC and BlackRock, Inc. The target, headquartered in Mumbai, is engaged in renewable energy power generation, including solar and wind power.

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Guidance Note - Form 23

March 25, 2026

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Guidance Note on Form 23

Form 23 is an Income-tax notification form issued for an approved Skill Development Project under Section 47(1)(b) of the Income-tax Act, 2025, in accordance with Rule 39 and Rule 40. This Form is issued by the Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT) to formally notify an approved skill development project in the Official Gazette.

Purpose of Form 23

The primary purpose of Form 23 is to:

  • Notify an approved Skill Development Project under Section 47(1)(b) of the Income-tax Act, 2025.
  • Specify the Tax Year(s) for which the project is approved.
  • Record key project particulars, including title, purpose, training institute details, duration, and approved expenditure.
  • Lay down terms and conditions subject to which the project remains notified.
  • Enable tax benefits linked to approved skill development projects.

Issuance Requirements

  • Who issues Form 23: Form 23 is issued by the CBDT, after an eligible company’s application in Form 22 is examined and recommended by the National Council for Vocational Education and Training (NCVET) under Rule 39.
  • When Form 23 is issued: Form 23 is issued when:
  • The project satisfies conditions under Rule 39 and Rule 40, and
  • The Board approves notification under Section 47(1)(b) of the Income-tax Act, 2025.
  • The notification is valid for a period not exceeding three Tax Years.

How Form 23 is authenticated

Form 23 is authenticated through:

  • Signature of the authorized CBDT officer, and
  • Publication in the Official Gazette.

Information Contained in Form 23

The Form contains the following key details:

  • Particulars of the Company
  • Name
  • PAN
  • Address
  • Reference number of application
  • Date of application
  • Details of the Skill Development Project
  • Title of the project
  • Purpose of the project
  • Name and address of the training institute
  • Date of commencement
  • Duration in months
  • Approved Tax Year(s)
  • Total expected expenditure (excluding land/building)
  • Conditions subject to which the project is notified

Frequency and Validity Period

  • Frequency: Form 23 is not filed by the assessee. It is issued once per approved project, or upon renewal of notification.
  • Validity Period: Notification under Form 23 is valid for up to three Tax Years, unless extended or revoked.

Compliance Obligations After Notification

After issuance of Form 23, the eligible company must:

  • Maintain separate books of account for the project
  • Get project accounts audited by an accountant under Rule 40
  • Furnish audited statements and audit report on or before the due date under Section 263(1) of the Income-tax Act, 2025
  • Ensure expenses claimed are wholly and exclusively for the notified project
  • Comply with all notification conditions
  • Ensure project activities remain genuine and in accordance with law

Renewal of Notification

If satisfied with project performance, the Board may extend notification for a further period not exceeding three Tax Years, in consultation with NCVET, as per Rule 39.

Revocation of Notification

Notification under Form 23 may be revoked if:

  • The company or training institute ceases activities
  • Project activities are not genuine
  • Separate books of account are not maintained
  • Audit or reporting requirements are not complied with
  • Conditions of notification are violated
  • Statutory provisions under Rule 39 or Rule 40 are breached

Revocation is carried out after giving the assessee an opportunity of being heard.

Communication of Notification

A copy of Form 23 is communicated to:

  • The applicant
  • The training institute
  • NCVET
  • Jurisdictional Commissioner of Income-tax

UDIN, FRN and DSC Requirements

  • UDIN (Unique Document Identification Number): Where a Chartered Accountant certifies or audits project accounts, a UDIN must be generated and quoted in the audit or certification.
  • FRN (Firm Registration Number): If certification or audit is issued by an audit firm, the Firm Registration Number (FRN) must be mentioned.
  • DSC (Digital Signature Certificate): A valid DSC is required where related filings, audit reports, or submissions are made electronically.

Key Points to Note

  • Form 23 is a notification form, not an application form.
  • It is issued only after approval of Form 22.
  • Notification applies only for specified Tax Year(s).
  • Only eligible companies under Rule 40 qualify.
  • Projects must be carried out in recognized training institutes.
  • Expenditure must exclude cost of land and building and any expenditure on the project that is reimbursed or reimbursable to the assessee by any person, whether directly or indirectly.
  • “Tax Year” terminology replaces earlier year references.
  • Continuous compliance is required to avoid revocation.

Outcome Details

  • Project Recognition: Form 23 grants formal Government recognition to an approved Skill Development Project.
  • Continuation or Cancellation:
  • Compliant projects may be renewed
  • Non-compliant projects may face revocation of notification

Challenges and Solutions

The revised Form 23 framework supports improved governance through:

  • Standardized project disclosures
  • Transparent approval conditions
  • Audit-backed accountability
  • Digital monitoring and verification
  • Structured linkage between approval (Form 22) and notification (Form 23)

Common Changes Across Forms

  • Assessment / Previous Year replaced with Tax Year
  • Updated statutory references to the Income-tax Act, 2025
  • Enhanced audit, UDIN, FRN, and DSC integration
  • Improved digital compliance and structured reporting  

Topics

Acts Income Tax