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    NPC Signs Agreement with Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEF&CC) to act as Environment Audit Designated Agency
    Rupee crashes 64 paise to settle at all-time low of 93.53 against US dollar
    EOU forms special team to track tender scams in Bihar
    Make life easier for taxpayers, use technology to check evasion: FM to IT officers
    UIDAI chief praises Andaman and Nicobar for top performance in Aadhaar updates
    Gujarat gearing up to be USD 1 trillion economy by 2030 under PM's guidance: CM Patel
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    CBDT notifies rules for simplified income tax law, to be effective from April 1
    MRO services in India to grow to USD 5.7 billion by 2030
    IEA advocates work from home, reduced air travel to tackle oil shock
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    'Sense of worry among exporters': Govt approves Rs 497 cr 'RELIEF' scheme amid West Asia disruptions
    NICDC to Anchor Implementation of BHAVYA Scheme for Development of 100 Industrial Parks
    Chakraborty was asked to reconsider resignation, elaborate on concerns, change language in letter: HDFC Bank CEO
    CIC flags Aadhaar update delays, asks UIDAI to fix timelines
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March 21, 2026
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Environment audit designated agency role assigned: NPC to manage auditor certification, registration and capacity building under new rules.
The Government designated the National Productivity Council as the Environment Audit Designated Agency under the Environment Audit Rules, 2025, assigning NPC responsibility to develop eligibility and screening criteria, conduct examinations and certification for Certified Environmental Auditors, specify registration criteria for Registered Environmental Auditors, maintain an online public register, and manage renewal, suspension, withdrawal or cancellation processes, monitoring and disciplinary measures, alongside establishing digital systems and capacity building programmes to administer the national environmental audit framework.
March 20, 2026
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Currency depreciation driven by persistent foreign outflows and rising oil prices, heightening reserve pressure and inflation risks.
Rupee depreciation accelerated due to persistent foreign portfolio outflows and surging crude oil prices, intensifying exchange rate pressure and inflationary risk. Geopolitical tensions disrupting energy supplies were cited as a key driver, while heavy foreign equity selling and a notable decline in foreign exchange reserves reinforced market stress and reserve management challenges for monetary authorities.
March 20, 2026
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Tender irregularities monitored by a dedicated EOU team investigating collusion, portal manipulation and related financial offences.
A specialised EOU team has been formed to monitor and investigate tender irregularities across government departments, targeting collusion, manipulation of departmental portals and bypassing of procurement safeguards, with particular attention to illegal mining schemes involving departmental officials. Concurrently, the EOU has advanced financial crime probes including an examination paper leak, an investigation into disproportionate assets with cross border property evidence, PMLA referrals to the enforcement agency for asset confiscation review, and inquiries into GST evasion and fraud in cooperatives, banks and post offices.
March 20, 2026
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Tax simplification: streamline compliance for honest taxpayers while using technology to detect willful evasion and reduce litigation.
Finance Minister directs tax authorities to make compliance easy for honest taxpayers while using technology to detect willful evasion under the streamlined Income Tax Act, 2025; calls for local-language awareness campaigns and administrative steps to reduce litigation by clarifying and consolidating statutory provisions.
March 20, 2026
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Aadhaar biometric updates strengthen identity verification; coordination and cybersecurity measures expand digital access safeguards nationwide
UIDAI commended Andaman and Nicobar for strong implementation of Aadhaar biometric updates and adult enrolment verification, while noting terrain and connectivity challenges that require coordination with local administration. UIDAI emphasised the Aadhaar mobile application for remote identity management and a cybersecurity bug bounty programme engaging vetted ethical hackers to secure public-facing applications, and urged timely biometric updates for children to prevent authentication problems in examinations and welfare schemes.
March 20, 2026
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Economic development goal: state pursues large-scale economy growth through industrial support, infrastructure upgrades and policy transparency.
Gujarat sets an economic development goal to become a large-scale economy by following central policy direction, with the state committing targeted support to industries through policy-driven facilitation, transparency, and updated regulatory measures. Operational measures emphasize infrastructure, water and electricity improvements, inclusive regional development beyond traditional industrial belts, expansion of the MSME sector, export-oriented sectoral strengths, investor attraction via the Vibrant Gujarat initiative, and a long-term roadmap toward national development milestones, with infrastructure upgrades and investment facilitation as core mechanisms.
March 20, 2026
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Foreign exchange reserves decline indicates central bank reserve composition shifts and affects external liquidity management policy.
The central bank reported a weekly decline in overall foreign exchange reserves driven mainly by a fall in foreign currency assets, alongside an increase in gold holdings and minor decreases in Special Drawing Rights and the reserve position with the international monetary institution, changes which alter reserve composition and dollar-denominated valuation.
March 20, 2026
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Currency depreciation pressures the rupee as fund outflows and rising oil amid geopolitical tensions create a negative bias.
The rupee fell to a record low of 93.71 against the dollar, primarily due to sustained foreign institutional investor outflows and rising global crude prices amid geopolitical tensions; higher energy costs were noted as risks to the trade deficit and inflation, while major central banks' rate-hold stances and recent net foreign equity sales were cited as contextual factors, with analysts forecasting a continued negative bias and a near-term trading range for the spot exchange rate.
March 20, 2026
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Fuel supply security ensured short term by priority allocations, but no contingency plan exists for prolonged disruption.
MSRTC's diesel supply is secured for the next two months by central priority allocations and Indian Oil Corporation deliveries, but the corporation has no contingency plan if supplies stop. The fleet of around 15,800 buses depends on diesel; electric buses are too few to substitute meaningfully. Competitive tendering has produced higher per litre discounts and projected annual procurement savings, while MSRTC continues to carry substantial accumulated operational losses and anticipates higher fuel costs with the planned induction of additional diesel buses.
March 20, 2026
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House Rent Allowance rules revised to expand higher-city relief and require landlord-tenant disclosure for exemption claims.
The notification establishes Income-tax Rules effective April 1 to implement the simplified Income-tax Act, preserving a refined House Rent Allowance framework with higher-city treatment and mandatory landlord-tenant disclosure for HRA claims; it tightens capital gains, non-resident taxation and stock-exchange rules, prescribes inclusion of pre-conversion holding time for converted securities when determining holding period, and imposes expanded auditor and corporate verification duties alongside over one hundred and fifty official forms.
March 20, 2026
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MRO sector expansion driven by fleet and airport growth, enabled by trade and investment reforms supporting domestic aerospace capacity.
Projected expansion of India's MRO market to 5.7 billion USD by 2030 is driven by fleet and airport capacity growth and enabled by policy reforms such as ratification of the Cape Town Convention, liberalised foreign direct investment, and reductions in GST and customs duties on aviation components. Special economic zones, greenfield airport projects and offset driven reinvestment support manufacturing and leasing, while accelerated logistics, skilled personnel and higher value engine and component overhaul capabilities remain essential to realise the forecast.
March 20, 2026
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Demand reduction measures recommended to ease oil shock, prioritise targeted consumer relief and transport demand management.
The IEA recommends immediate demand side measures-remote work, lower highway speeds, reduced business air travel, expanded public transport, LPG use restriction for non essentials, and improved driving and industrial fuel efficiency-to cut oil and refined product consumption. It advises targeted fiscal relief for vulnerable consumers due to limited fiscal space, highlights coordinated strategic stock releases as a supply response, and stresses restoring Strait of Hormuz transit as essential for stabilising markets while prioritising demand reduction to ease macroeconomic pressures.
March 19, 2026
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Undercover GST investigation exposes supplier using closed firms to suppress sales, prompting seizure and ledger blockage.
Uttarakhand GST officials covertly floated and staffed firms to engage a supplier suspected of evading GST by misusing closed-entity names and suppressing sales; documents on sales, purchases, stock movement and financial transactions were seized during a search and seizure, recoveries were deposited to the GST exchequer and ledgers blocked pending forensic analysis.
March 19, 2026
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Validity of import permits affirmed; documented wildlife imports under valid permits cannot be later invalidated.
The court accepted the Special Investigation Team's finding that no violations were found under domestic statutes or the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species, and noted the CITES Secretariat also found no missing documentation or evidence of commercial importation. Emphasising finality of authorised administrative acts, the court held that imports made under valid permits with requisite documentation cannot be subsequently treated as prohibited merely because objections are raised later, and dismissed the duplicative petition.
March 19, 2026
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Corporate governance concerns after a chairman's ethics based resignation prompt interim leadership and regulator engagement.
An abrupt resignation by the part time non executive chairman citing differences over values and ethics-without specific allegations-triggered board engagement, a Nomination and Remuneration Committee disclosure, appointment of an interim chairman, and regulatory consultation; the bank and regulator publicly reported no material governance concerns while market confidence reacted to the leadership change.
March 19, 2026
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Export relief scheme RELIEF extends obligations and subsidises freight/insurance to ease conflict linked logistics disruptions for exporters.
The RELIEF scheme, implemented by ECGC under the Export Promotion Mission with a dedicated financial outlay, provides targeted, time bound measures for exporters affected by West Asia conflict related logistics disruptions. It includes automatic extension of export obligations for Advance Authorisations and EPCG authorisations without penalty, facilitation of ECGC coverage for forthcoming consignments, and partial reimbursement of extraordinary freight and insurance costs for MSMEs lacking ECGC cover. The scheme applies to consignments destined for or transhipped through specified Gulf and West Asia markets and is subject to dashboard monitoring and periodic review by the EPM Steering Committee.
March 19, 2026
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Plug-and-play industrial parks to streamline permits and infrastructure, accelerating establishment of manufacturing ecosystems and investment readiness nationwide.
NICDC will implement the BHAVYA scheme to develop 100 plug-and-play industrial parks with pre-approved land, ready infrastructure, integrated services and streamlined approval mechanisms including single-window systems, aligned to multimodal connectivity and infrastructure planning (including underground utilities) to ensure investment-ready industrial ecosystems.
March 19, 2026
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Ethics concerns prompted board inquiry and regulator engagement, leading to interim chair appointment to preserve governance continuity.
The chairman's resignation citing ethical misalignment prompted the board to seek specific instances and request withdrawal of certain language; unable to secure clarity, the Nomination and Remuneration Committee engaged the banking regulator, which appointed an interim chair to ensure governance continuity. Management maintained there were no substantive issues warranting resignation, described an overseas investigation as closed with accountability fixed, and directed the NRC to address executive reappointment and chairman selection under standard succession processes.
March 19, 2026
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Aadhaar update timelines: call for time bound processing and stronger grievance redressal to reduce RTI and litigation.
Delays and lack of clarity in processing Aadhaar demographic update requests, notably date of birth corrections, led the Commission to urge UIDAI to adopt clear timelines and time bound disposal procedures and to strengthen grievance redressal and public awareness so citizens need not resort to RTI or court petitions.
March 19, 2026
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Export relief scheme RELIEF supports exporters with enhanced insurance cover and reimbursements amid West Asia logistics disruptions.
RELIEF is a time bound Export Promotion Mission intervention designating ECGC Ltd. as the nodal implementing agency to provide enhanced risk coverage for ECGC insured consignments during the disruption period, supported ECGC cover for forthcoming shipments over a defined three month window, and a partial reimbursement mechanism for eligible non insured MSME exporters to offset extraordinary freight and insurance surcharges, subject to documentary verification and notified ceilings; implementation is funded from an approved EPM outlay and monitored via dashboard and periodic steering committee review.

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FORM 23 — Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs)

March 25, 2026

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FORM 23 — Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs)

Notification format for Skill Development Project under Section 47(1)(b) of the Income-tax Act, 2025

Name of Form as per I.T. Rules, 1962

3CR

Name of Form as per I.T. Rules, 2026

23

Corresponding section of I.T. Act, 1961

35CCD

Corresponding section of I.T. Act, 2025

47(1)(b)

Corresponding Rule of I.T. Rules, 1962

6AAF

Corresponding Rule of I.T. Rules, 2026

39

1. What is Form 23?

Ans: Form 23 is an Income tax notification form issued for an approved skill development project under Section 47(1)(b) of the Income-tax Act, 2025, pursuant to approval granted under Rule 39.

2. What is the purpose of Form 23?

Ans: The primary purpose of Form 23 is to:

  • Notify an approved skill development project in the Official Gazette.
  • Specify the Tax Year(s) for which the project is approved.
  • Lay down the terms, conditions, duration, and expenditure limits applicable to the project.
  • Enable tax benefits linked to approved skill development projects under Section 47(1)(b).

3. Who issues Form 23?

Ans: Form 23 is issued by the Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT) after receipt of recommendation from the National Council for Vocational Education and Training (NCVET) and satisfaction that the project meets conditions prescribed under Rule 39.

4. When is Form 23 issued?

Ans: Form 23 is issued after Form 22 is examined and approved, and the project qualifies for notification under Section 47(1)(b) of the Income-tax Act, 2025.

5. What details are contained in Form 23?

Ans: Form 23 contains:

  • Name, address, and PAN of the company.
  • Reference number and date of application.
  • Title and purpose of the skill development project.
  • Details of the training institute.
  • Date of commencement and duration of the project.
  • Approved Tax Year(s).
  • Estimated total project expenditure (excluding land/building).
  • Specific conditions imposed on the project.

6. Which skill development projects are eligible to be notified under Form 23?

Ans: A project is eligible if:

  • It is undertaken by an eligible company.
  • It is implemented in a separate facility in a training institute.
  • It complies with Rule 39 and Rule 40.
  • It meets statutory conditions under Section 47(1)(b) of the Income-tax Act, 2025.

7. For how long is a skill development project notified under Form 23?

Ans: The project may be notified for a period not exceeding three Tax Years, as specified in the notification.

8. Can the notification under Form 23 be extended?

Ans: Yes. The Board may notify the project for a further period in consultation with NCVET, subject to satisfactory compliance.

9. What happens after Form 23 is issued?

Ans: After issuance:

  • The notification is communicated to:
  • The applicant
  • The training institute
  • NCVET
  • The jurisdictional Commissioner of Income-tax
  • The company must comply with conditions under Rule 40.

10. Can Form 23 be revised or withdrawn?

Ans: No. Once Form 23 is issued and notified, it cannot be revised or withdrawn, except through revocation proceedings under Rule 39.

11. Under what circumstances can a Form 23 notification be revoked?

Ans: Notification may be revoked if:

  • The company or training institute ceases activities.
  • Project activities are not genuine.
  • Separate books of account are not maintained.
  • Audit requirements under Rule 40 are not complied with.
  • Conditions of notification are violated.

12. What compliance obligations apply after Form 23 is issued?

Ans: The company must:

  • Maintain separate books of account for the project.
  • Get accounts audited by an accountant.
  • Furnish audited project statements on or before the due date under Section 263(1).
  • Ensure expenses claimed qualify under Section 47(1)(b).

13. Is any information in Form 23 auto-filled?

Ans: Yes. Some fields may be auto-populated based on Form 22 and departmental records.

14. How is Form 23 authenticated and verified?

Ans: Form 23 is authenticated through:

  • Authorized CBDT officer’s signature.
  • Official issuance under Section 47(1)(b).

15. When are UDIN and FRN applicable in relation to Form 23?

Ans:

  • UDIN (Unique Document Identification Number): Where an audit or certification of an Accountant as defined in the Section 515(3)(b) of the Act is required under Rule 40, a UDIN must be generated and quoted.
  • FRN (Firm Registration Number): If audit or certification is issued by an audit firm, the Firm Registration Number (FRN) must be disclosed.
  • DSC (Digital Signature Certificate): A valid DSC is required for electronic submission of related audit reports or compliance filings.

16. What are common reasons for cancellation of Form 23 notification?

Ans:

  • Non-maintenance of separate books.
  • Failure to submit audit report.
  • Non-genuine project activities.
  • Violation of notification conditions.
  • Failure to exclude reimbursed or reimbursable expenditure from the project cost.
  • Non-compliance with Rule 39 / Rule 40.

17. What is the objective of Form 23 under the Income-tax Act, 2025?

Ans: Form 23 ensures:

  • Formal Government notification of approved skill development projects.
  • Transparent disclosure of project scope, duration, and financial limits.
  • Effective monitoring, audit, and accountability.
  • Standardized implementation of Section 47(1)(b) under the Income-tax Act, 2025.

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