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    India emerges as key petrol supplier to Russia as refinery attacks disrupt fuel supplies
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August 30, 2026
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Gasoline trade amid refinery disruptions relies on sanctioned fleets and dark ship-to-ship transfers, alongside continuing fuel export restrictions.
Russian refinery disruption has increased gasoline imports and made India a significant supplier of gasoline to Russia. Indian supplies were principally linked to the Vadinar refinery, and increased Indian purchases of Russian crude may mean exported gasoline was produced from Russian crude. Russia has retained a gasoline export ban while domestic production remains disrupted. India-origin cargoes imported during August were carried on sanctioned fleets and involved dark ship-to-ship transfers, including transfers conducted with automatic identification system signals switched off.
August 30, 2026
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Digital arrest fraud: judicial responses seek a distinct offence while preserving due process and proportionality in economic-crime enforcement.
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August 29, 2026
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Natural justice in licensing enforcement requires meaningful hearing and reasoned orders before cancellation or suspension of regulated operations.
Natural justice in regulatory licensing enforcement requires a meaningful hearing, proper legal analysis, and a reasoned decision before licence cancellation or suspension. Maharashtra FDA withdrew cancellation of drug-sale licences after criticism of the procedure adopted. Food-safety enforcement against restaurants was also reconsidered where the premises were substantially compliant, despite licences being issued to one entity and operations being conducted by another. A fresh notice, hearing on the contractual arrangement, and reasoned order were required before further licensing action.
August 29, 2026
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Food-safety licensing compliance supports reopening while contractual operation requires notice, hearing, and a reasoned regulatory decision.
Food-safety licence suspension of five eateries was reconsidered after a fresh inspection recorded 88 per cent compliance. The suspension had continued because a third-party operator ran the eateries while licences remained in the association's name, despite no identified legal prohibition. The Food and Drug Administration proposed a fresh notice, hearing, and reasoned order on the contractual arrangement, while current compliance permitted services to resume.
August 29, 2026
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Market access and regulatory cooperation advance agricultural, pharmaceutical, digital, and trade integration priorities across the bilateral economic partnership.
India-Argentina cooperation focused on expanding bilateral trade, reducing non-tariff barriers, facilitating investment, and strengthening market access. Sanitary and phytosanitary discussions progressed for Indian agricultural products, while pharmaceutical engagement covered regulatory upgrading and reduced entry barriers. Mining and lithium-sector engagement, digital services, space technology, telecommunications, artificial intelligence and digital infrastructure were identified as priority areas. The India-MERCOSUR Preferential Trade Agreement, Terms of Reference and digital certificates of origin were considered mechanisms for trade facilitation and economic integration. Business discussions addressed commercial partnerships across agriculture, minerals, energy, pharmaceuticals, healthcare, banking and telecommunications.
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Shared digital infrastructure for professional services aims to expand technology access, interoperability, capability development and secure adoption across firms.
MCA and IICA are developing a government-backed digital public good ecosystem for domestic professional services, particularly small and medium practices. The framework proposes curated technology access, learning and capability development, and knowledge and practice infrastructure. It is intended to improve access to technology and professional knowledge while complementing existing institutional and market-based systems. Consultations address interoperability, common standards, cybersecurity, affordable access, implementation, change management, openness, competition and technology adoption suited to differing levels of digital readiness.
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August 29, 2026
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IPO disclosure integrity triggers one-year market access bar for issuer and promoter-directors over fabricated quotation and misleading financial disclosures.
SEBI restrained Trafiksol ITS Technologies Ltd. and its promoter-directors from accessing or dealing in the securities market for one year and imposed monetary penalties over irregularities in its SME IPO. The action concerned overstated financial disclosures, inadequate disclosure of issue expenditure and a potential merchant-banker conflict, and proposed use of IPO proceeds based on a fabricated software-vendor quotation. The listing was deferred and IPO proceeds were placed in an interest-bearing escrow account. One promoter was directly involved in procuring the quotation, while the other failed to exercise due diligence.
August 29, 2026
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Securities market fraud involving fictitious transactions triggered market bans, disgorgement, fund restoration, and governance restrictions.
SEBI imposed securities-market restrictions, disgorgement directions and monetary penalties in relation to alleged accounting fraud involving fictitious sales, purchases, circular transactions and fraudulent ledger entries. The alleged inflation of financial results facilitated migration to the NSE main board and was followed by fraudulent preferential allotments, a bonus issue and a rights issue. Rights issue proceeds were found to have been diverted, requiring restoration with applicable interest. The company and its managing director received seven-year market prohibitions, with additional governance restrictions applying to the managing director.
August 28, 2026
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Insolvency debt settlements: political criticism alleges severe creditor haircuts favour influential corporate borrowers over ordinary debtors.
CPI(M) criticised approval of a repayment plan involving Zee Group founder Subhash Chandra, asserting that repayment of Rs 6.5 crore against creditor claims of Rs 22,006.57 crore undermines fairness in insolvency debt settlement. It alleged severe creditor haircuts and bias favouring influential corporate borrowers. The party linked the settlement to an alleged pattern of large borrowers resolving liabilities at steep discounts, shifting the burden to taxpayers and small depositors while smaller borrowers face coercive recovery measures.
August 28, 2026
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Corporate governance requires company secretaries to promote ethical practices, transparency, responsibility and institutional accountability across economic ecosystems.
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Proceeds-of-crime tracing prompts freezing of deposits linked to structured disposal of foreign property in a bank-loan fraud investigation.
Money-laundering investigation into alleged bank-loan fraud involving DHFL has resulted in the freezing of bank deposits held by Al Jalore Trading FZE under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act. A United Kingdom property was allegedly disposed of through a purported loan arrangement that created an encumbrance to settle an Indian liability. Sale proceeds were credited to Al Jalore Trading FZE's Indian bank account rather than to the registered owner, indicating alleged dissipation of proceeds of crime through a structured foreign-property transaction.
August 28, 2026
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Defence export authorisation reform streamlines consultations, expands unified licences, and facilitates eligible exporters' access to international markets.
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IPO approval enables Jio Platforms to issue fresh equity shares, with proceeds earmarked for subsidiary debt repayment and corporate purposes.
SEBI's final observations enable Jio Platforms Ltd to proceed with an initial public offering comprising up to 27 crore newly issued equity shares. The transaction is structured as a fresh issue of shares. Offer proceeds are primarily allocated towards repayment or prepayment of outstanding borrowings of Reliance Jio Infocomm Ltd, Jio Platforms' material subsidiary, with the balance designated for general corporate purposes.
August 28, 2026
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Gold price volatility intensified as dollar strength, profit-booking, and customs-duty-cut reports pressured domestic bullion markets.
Domestic bullion prices declined for a third consecutive session as a stronger US dollar and sustained profit-booking after a recent rally weakened gold and silver. Gold fell sharply in the national capital and silver also declined in domestic trading, with the three-day movement reflecting ongoing price volatility in the bullion market. International spot gold remained marginally lower while investors awaited policy-related remarks concerning inflation and elevated yields.
August 28, 2026
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Direct benefit transfer strengthens welfare delivery through Jan Dhan accounts, digital payments, reduced intermediaries, and expanded financial inclusion.
Direct Benefit Transfer has transferred welfare benefits directly to beneficiaries, largely through Jan Dhan accounts, reducing intermediaries and supporting transparent delivery. The Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana provides unbanked adults basic accounts without minimum-balance or maintenance-charge requirements, along with RuPay debit cards, accident insurance coverage, and emergency overdraft access. Banking outlets, digital-payment infrastructure, and Bank Mitras extend formal financial services to women, rural and semi-urban communities, strengthening financial inclusion and participation in the formal economy.
August 28, 2026
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Foreign exchange reserves reached a record level, supported by increases in foreign currency assets and gold holdings.
India's foreign exchange reserves increased by USD 12.422 billion to an all-time high of USD 729.328 billion for the week ended 21 August. Foreign currency assets and gold reserves recorded the principal increases, while special drawing rights and the reserve position with the IMF also rose. Foreign currency asset valuation reflects movements in non-US currencies held in the reserves. FCNR(B) and concessional swap arrangements were introduced to attract additional foreign-exchange inflows.
August 28, 2026
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IPO regulatory approval enables Jio Platforms to advance preparations for its proposed fresh equity share public offering.
Jio Platforms Ltd. has obtained Sebi's final observations for its proposed initial public offering. This key regulatory stage enables further preparations for the public issue, subject to applicable regulatory requirements. The proposed offering comprises up to 27 crore fresh equity shares and is expected to account for approximately 2.9 per cent of the company's post-issue equity base.
August 28, 2026
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Financial inclusion through basic bank accounts expands banking access with no-balance accounts, debit cards, and emergency overdraft support.
Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana enables unbanked adults to open basic bank accounts without minimum-balance or maintenance-charge requirements. Accounts include a free RuPay debit card with accident insurance coverage and eligibility for an overdraft facility during emergencies. The scheme promotes digital transactions, financial security and participation in the formal economy, while extending banking access to rural and semi-urban communities and increasing women's financial inclusion.
August 28, 2026
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Flexible personal loan repayment enables eligible borrowers to select longer tenures, subject to eligibility, terms, verification, and repayment capacity.
Bajaj Finance personal loans offer eligible customers collateral-free borrowing with flexible repayment tenures of 12 to 108 months, subject to eligibility, applicable terms, verification and documentation. A longer tenure may reduce monthly EMIs by spreading repayment over more months, but can increase total interest payable. Borrowers should compare the interest rate, tenure, EMI, processing charges and other costs, while considering their income, existing commitments and repayment capacity. Loan Utsav 2026 provides limited-period rewards for eligible customers whose loans are successfully disbursed during the campaign period, subject to applicable terms.

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Form No. 17 – Frequently Asked Questions (FAQ)

March 25, 2026

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Form No. 17 – Frequently Asked Questions (FAQ)

(Form of application under section 45(3)(b) and section 45(4)(b) of the Income-tax Act, 2025)

Name of form as per I.T. Rules, 1962

Form No. 3CF

Name of form as per I.T. Rules, 2026

Form No 17

Corresponding section of I.T. Act, 1961

35

Corresponding section of I.T. Act, 2025

45

Corresponding Rule of I.T. Rules, 1962

5C,5F

Corresponding Rule of I.T. Rules, 2026

32,35

1. What is Form No. 17?

Ans: Form No. 17 is an application form prescribed for seeking approval under:

  • Section 45(3)(b) of the Income-tax Act, 2025 (in case of a company), and
  • Section 45(4)(b) of the Income-tax Act, 2025 (in case of a research association/ university/ college/ other institution).

2. Who should file Form No. 17?

Ans: Form No. 17 should be filed by any of the following applicants seeking approval under the Income-tax Act, 2025:

  • a Company (for approval under section 45(3)(b)), or
  • a Research association/ University/ College/ Other institution (for approval under section 45(4)(b)).

3. Is Form No. 17 mandatory?

Ans: Form No. 17 is mandatory only if the applicant wants to obtain approval under section 45(3)(b) or section 45(4)(b) of the Income-tax Act, 2025.

4. When can Form No. 17 be filed?

Ans: Form No. 17 can be filed at any time during the financial year preceding the tax year from which the approval is sought. However, application for tax year 2026-27 can be made during that tax year.

5. Where should Form No. 17 be filed?

Ans: The application in Form No. 17 shall be made to the Income Tax authority in the manner prescribed under the Rules.

6. What is the mode of filing Form No. 17?

Ans: Form No. 17 must be furnished electronically.

7. Should Form No. 17 be filed using DSC or EVC?

Ans: Form No. 17 shall be furnished electronically:

  • under Digital Signature (DSC), if the return of income is required to be furnished under digital signature; or
  • through Electronic Verification Code (EVC) in other cases.

8. Who should verify Form No. 17?

Ans: Form No. 17 must be verified by the person who is authorised to verify the return of income under section 265 of the Income-tax Act, 2025 (as applicable to the applicant).

9. What information is required in Form No. 17?

Ans: Form No. 17 requires the applicant to provide details broadly under the following parts:

(A) Part A – Incorporation / Constitution details

Includes details such as:

  • applicant type (company/ research association/ university/ college/ other institution)
  • name, address, PAN, status, residential status
  • email ID and contact number
  • relevant section code
  • incorporation/registration details
  • registrations under DARPAN/ FCRA/ Income-tax Act, 2025 (if applicable)
  • past rejection details (if any)

(B) Part B – Key persons and operational details

Includes:

  • details of founders, trustees, directors, shareholders holding 5% or more, etc.
  • beneficial owners (where applicable)
  • research facilities managed/ owned/ controlled
  • research projects undertaken in last three Tax Years
  • return filing details for last three Tax Years
  • income and expenditure details for last three Tax Years

10. What is the “Code relevant to Section” in Form No. 17?

Ans: In Form No. 17, the applicant must select the appropriate code depending on the nature of the organisation and the applicable clause. The codes include:

  • Research association [section 45(3)(a)(i)]
  • University/College/Other institution [section 45(3)(a)(i)]
  • Research association [section 45(3)(a)(ii)]
  • University/College/Other institution [section 45(3)(a)(ii)]
  • Company [section 45(3)(b)]

11. What registrations must be disclosed in Form No. 17?

Ans: The applicant must disclose registrations (where applicable), including:

  • registration under section 332 of the Income-tax Act, 2025 (if registered)
  • approval under Schedule VII of the Income-tax Act, 2025 (if approved)
  • approval/recognition by DSIR (if applicable)
  • registration/approval under section 45 of the Income-tax Act, 2025 (if already registered)
  • registration under FCRA Act (if registered)
  • registration on DARPAN portal (mandatory where applicant receives or intends to receive any grant/assistance from Government)

12. Is DARPAN registration mandatory to be filled in Form No. 17?

Ans: DARPAN registration number must be mandatorily provided if the applicant receives or intends to receive any grant or assistance from the Central Government or State Government.

13. What should be done if the applicant’s past application under section 45 was rejected?

Ans: If any past application for approval under section 45(3)(b) or 45(4)(b) (or corresponding provisions) was rejected, the applicant should provide copy of the rejection order.

14. What details of key persons are required in Form No. 17?

Ans: Form No. 17 requires details of all key persons such as:

  • Author(s)/ Founder(s)/ Settlor(s)/ Trustee(s)
  • Members of society/ governing council
  • Director(s)
  • shareholders holding 5% or more shareholding
  • office bearer(s)

The details include name, relation, PAN, address, mobile number and email ID.

15. What if a key person is not an individual?

Ans: If any person listed as a key person is not an individual, the applicant must provide details of natural persons who are beneficial owners (5% or more) of such person as on the date of application.

16. What operational details are required to be provided?

Ans: The applicant must provide details of laboratory/ research facility/ university/ college/ other institution managed/ controlled/ administered/ owned by the applicant, including:

  • name and PAN
  • whether notified/order passed under section 45 (Yes/No)
  • year of establishment
  • nature of activity
  • address
  • whether owned by applicant
  • person-in-charge details

17. What research project details must be furnished?

Ans: The applicant must provide details of research projects undertaken during the last three Tax Years, including:

  • project name
  • duration (from and to dates)
  • current status (ongoing/completed)
  • date of initiation
  • project cost/ estimated project cost
  • amount paid to other R&D institution (if any)

18. What income and expenditure details are required?

Ans: Form No. 17 requires details such as:

  • nature of business income (if any) and whether incidental to objectives
  • whether separate books maintained
  • return of income filed for last three Tax Years
  • donations and grants received for last three Tax Years
  • expenditure on research and non-research for last three Tax Years
  • annual research expenditure details for last three Tax Years

19. Is the Annexure in Form No. 17 mandatory?

Ans: The Annexure is to be filled only if the association claims exemption as per Schedule III (Table Sl. No. 23).

20. What enclosures/documents are required to be attached with Form No. 17?

Ans: The following documents/details may be required as enclosures (as applicable):

  • self-certified copy of instrument of creation (if constituted under an instrument)
  • self-certified copy of creation/establishment document (if not constituted under an instrument)
  • self-certified copy of registration documents (RoC/ firms & societies/ trusts etc.)
  • self-certified copy of FCRA registration (if applicable)
  • self-certified copy of existing notification/ order granting approval under section 45 (if any)
  • comprehensive note on research activities (or NIL declaration if none)
  • audited annual accounts for last three Tax Years (or NIL declaration for each year)
  • donors list for last three Tax Years (or NIL declaration)
  • patent/copyright/ trademark details (if any)

21. What are the key conditions applicable after approval is granted?

Ans: The approval granted is subject to conditions such as:

  • maintaining books of account / separate books of account for sums received for research
  • getting books audited and furnishing audit report by due date under section 263(1)
  • maintaining statement of donations received and amount applied for research
  • furnishing statement of research work done by due date under section 263(1)
  • ensuring activities remain genuine and as per conditions of approval

22. What is the due date for furnishing audit report and related statements after approval?

Ans: The audit report and required statements must be furnished by the due date of furnishing the return of income under section 263(1) of the Income-tax Act, 2025.

23. Can the approval granted under section 45 be withdrawn?

Ans: Yes. The prescribed authority may withdraw the approval granted under section 45(3)(b) or 45(4)(b) if it is satisfied that the applicant:

  • has ceased activities, or
  • activities are not genuine, or
  • activities are not being carried out in accordance with conditions/rules.

24. Will the applicant get an opportunity of being heard before rejection/withdrawal?

Ans: Yes. No order treating the application as invalid, rejecting the application, or withdrawing the approval shall be passed without giving a reasonable opportunity of being heard.

25. What is the processing timeline for Form No. 17?

Ans: The processing steps include:

  • deficiency letter may be served if defect/ document missing (within one month)
  • applicant must remove deficiency within 30 days from the end of the month in which the deficiency letter is served.
  • if complete, inquiry and recommendation by jurisdictional authority within 3 months
  • approval notification or rejection order to be issued within one year from the end of the month in which Form No. 17 is filed

26. How to ensure Form No. 17 is successfully submitted (DSC/ EVC steps)?

Ans: While submitting Form No. 17 electronically:

  • select the appropriate verification mode (DSC or EVC) as applicable
  • complete verification as per the authorised person under section 265
  • ensure acknowledgment is generated after successful submission

27. What is UDIN and when is it required in relation to Form No. 17?

Ans: UDIN (Unique Document Identification Number) is required for documents/certificates issued by an accountant (where applicable) as defined in the section 515(3)(b) of the Act. Where Form No. 17 requires audit report or certification by an accountant (such as statements certified by auditor), UDIN should be generated and mentioned as per professional requirements for validity and traceability.

28. Is Form No. 17 to be submitted physically also?

Ans: The form is to be furnished electronically. Additionally, the applicant is required to send a copy of the application in Form No. 17 to Member (IT), CBDT along with the acknowledgment receipt as evidence of having furnished the application form in duplicate in the office of the jurisdictional Commissioner/ Director.

29. What is the significance of Form No. 17 approval?

Ans: Approval under section 45(3)(b) or 45(4)(b) enables the applicant entity to be recognised for the purposes of the Income-tax Act, 2025, and supports eligibility of donors/payments as per the applicable provisions linked with such approval.

30. What common mistakes should be avoided while filing Form No. 17?

Ans: Applicants should avoid:

  • incorrect “Code relevant to Section” selection
  • incomplete registration details (DARPAN/ FCRA/Income-tax Act, 2025 approvals)
  • missing enclosures (instrument, audited accounts, donor lists, NIL declarations where required)
  • mismatch in key person details and beneficial ownership disclosures
  • not completing DSC/ EVC verification properly

Topics

Acts Income Tax