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    Form No. 27 – Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs)
    Guidance Note - Form 26
    Form No. 26 – Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs)
    Guidance Note - Form 25
    Form No. 25 – Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs)
    Guidance Note - Form 24
    CCI approves proposed acquisition of additional shareholding of Valuedrive Technologies Pvt Ltd by Setu AIF Trust, Konark Trust, and MMPL Trust
    CCI approves acquisition of certain shares in Shriram Finance by MUFG Bank Ltd.
    CCI approves acquisition of shareholding of Groww Asset Management by State Street Global Advisors, Inc.
    CCI approves merger of Chess Merger Sub, wholly owned subsidiary of Coursera Inc., with and into Udemy Inc.
    CCI approves subscription of certain equity share capital of Aditya Birla Renewables (ABReN/Target) by GIP EM Star Ltd.
    Govt asks RBI to maintain retail inflation at 4 pc till Mar 2031
    Oppn slams insolvency law over delays; BJP hits back, calls it 'Licence Raj' mindset
    Himachal cuts power tariff by one paisa per unit for all consumers
    Mahadev app: ED attaches Rs 1,700 cr worth assets including in Dubai's Burj Khalifa
    IBC led to recovery of over Rs 4 lakh cr from insolvent firms in last 10 years: Anurag Thakur
    Haryana electricity commission keeps power tariff unchanged for next financial year
    Form No. 24 – Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs)
    Guidance Note - Form 23
    FORM 23 — Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs)
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March 26, 2026
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Form No. 27 reporting requirement governs valuation-based attribution of income on dissolution or reconstitution of a specified entity.
Form No. 27 is a mandatory income-tax reporting form prescribed under Rule 50 for a specified entity where income becomes taxable under section 67(10) on dissolution or reconstitution and a specified person receives capital asset, stock-in-trade, or both. It operationalises the attribution of such taxable income to the capital assets remaining with the specified entity and must be furnished for each tax year in which the relevant event occurs. The form requires electronic filing with the return of income and valuation-based attribution supported by a registered valuer's report.
March 26, 2026
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Tax audit Form No. 26 standardises disclosures, audit reporting, and filing requirements under the new income tax framework.
Prescribed Form No. 26 is the audit report and statement of particulars under section 63 of the Income-tax Act, 2025 read with rule 47 of the Income-tax Rules, 2026. Parts A and B contain the substantive disclosures for tax audit compliance, including books of account, method of accounting, income, expenses, losses, depreciation, deductions, international taxation, TDS/TCS, indirect taxation and quantitative details. Part C applies where accounts are audited under another law, while Part D applies where they are not. The form is required for specified business and professional thresholds and certain presumptive taxation cases, and is furnished through a structured online filing process.
March 26, 2026
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Mandatory audit reporting under Form No. 26 introduces clause-wise disclosures, UDIN compliance, and schedule-based tax audit filing.
Form No. 26 is the mandatory audit report and statement of particulars for persons carrying on business or profession whose accounts are required to be audited under section 63. It applies from tax years commencing on or after 1 April 2026, is due one month before the return filing deadline, and must be signed by an Accountant with UDIN, and FRN where applicable. The form uses Part B clause-wise Yes/No reporting with trigger-based schedules, and Parts C and D for audit reporting depending on whether accounts are audited under another law.
March 26, 2026
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Daily case register requirements for medical professionals under tax rules, including maintenance, exceptions, and non-filing status.
Form No. 25 prescribes a daily case register for medical professionals under Rule 46 of the Income-tax Rules, 2026. It records the patient's name, nature of service, fees charged, and date of receipt of fees. The form is mandatory for persons engaged in the medical profession, subject to the stated gross-receipts exceptions, and is maintained in addition to books of account. It is not furnished to the Department and has no due date.
March 26, 2026
Show AI Summary
Daily case register compliance for medical practitioners requires tabular records, electronic access safeguards, and preservation obligations.
Form No. 25 is the prescribed daily case register for practitioners of any system of medicine under Rule 46 of the Income-tax Rules, 2026, subject to the prescribed gross receipt threshold and the position of newly set-up medical practices. It records patient and fee particulars in tabular form, is not furnished to the Income-tax Department, but must be maintained daily, produced before the Assessing Officer when called for, may be kept electronically with India-based access and backups, and must be preserved for seven tax years or until completion of reassessment proceedings.
March 26, 2026
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Permanent establishment audit reporting for royalty and technical services income now uses a structured Chartered Accountant certification format.
Form No. 24 is a statutory audit report for non-residents and foreign companies earning royalty or fees for technical services from India through a permanent establishment or fixed place of profession in India. It requires a Chartered Accountant's certification of the correctness of income computation, verification of the PE or fixed place, maintenance of books of account, and deduction only of expenses attributable to the PE while computing income under section 59. The form is filed annually, contains structured particulars of the assessee, agreement, PE, books examined, and income computation, and is submitted through the e-filing portal with digital signature verification.
March 26, 2026
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Competition approval for additional shareholding acquisition in Valuedrive Technologies through an alternative investment and trust co-investment structure.
The Competition Commission of India approved the proposed acquisition of additional shareholding in Valuedrive Technologies Private Limited by Setu AIF Trust, Konark Trust and MMPL Trust. The transaction concerns acquisition of shares on a fully diluted basis through an alternative investment fund and private trust co-investment structure. Valuedrive Technologies Private Limited operates as an operating-cum-holding company for the Spinny Group and carries on an electronic platform business for used motor vehicles, together with related subsidiary activities.
March 26, 2026
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Competition law approval for acquisition of shares in a listed NBFC by a Japan-based banking institution.
Competition Commission of India approval was granted for the acquisition of certain shares in Shriram Finance Limited by MUFG Bank Ltd. The acquirer is a Japan-based banking institution wholly owned and controlled by Mitsubishi UFJ Financial Group, Inc., and carries on banking-related activities in India including corporate banking loans, deposit accounts, remittances, trade finance, bank guarantees and hedging. The target is a listed non-banking financial company registered with the Reserve Bank of India, classified as an Investment and Credit Company and an NBFC-Upper Layer, engaged in financing commercial goods and passenger vehicles, construction equipment, farm equipment, MSMEs, two-wheelers, gold and personal loans.
March 26, 2026
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Competition approval for acquisition of Groww Asset Management shareholding by State Street Global Advisors
Competition approval was granted for the proposed acquisition of shareholding in Groww Asset Management Limited by State Street Global Advisors, Inc. The target manages schemes of Groww Mutual Fund, including equity, hybrid, debt and exchange traded fund schemes. State Street operates under the State Street Investment Management brand as the asset management arm of State Street Corporation. The detailed order of the Commission would follow.
March 26, 2026
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Competition combination approval for Coursera and Udemy merger, creating sole control over Udemy through a subsidiary merger.
Competition Commission of India approved a proposed combination involving the merger of Chess Merger Sub, a wholly owned subsidiary of Coursera Inc., with and into Udemy Inc., with Udemy surviving as a wholly owned subsidiary of Coursera. The transaction results in Coursera acquiring sole control over Udemy, and the combined company is expected to have post-closing shareholding in which existing Coursera stockholders hold approximately 59% and existing Udemy stockholders approximately 41% on a fully diluted basis.
March 26, 2026
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Competition approval for renewable energy investment in Aditya Birla Renewables through equity subscription by GIP EM Star.
Competition Commission of India approved the subscription of certain equity share capital of Aditya Birla Renewables Limited by GIP EM Star Pte. Ltd. The acquirer is incorporated in Singapore and is ultimately linked to Global Infrastructure Management, LLC and BlackRock, Inc. The target, headquartered in Mumbai, is engaged in renewable energy power generation, including solar and wind power.
March 25, 2026
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Inflation targeting framework retained with a 4 per cent objective and a 2 per cent tolerance band for the next cycle.
The central government, in consultation with the Reserve Bank, has notified the inflation target for 1 April 2026 to 31 March 2031 at 4 per cent, with an upper tolerance level of 6 per cent and a lower tolerance level of 2 per cent. The framework continues to place the Monetary Policy Committee in charge of setting the policy rate needed to achieve the inflation objective within the prescribed band.
March 25, 2026
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Insolvency resolution delays under the bankruptcy code draw debate over tribunal capacity, creditor recoveries, and reform priorities.
Delay in insolvency resolution under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code remained the central issue in parliamentary discussion on the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (Amendment) Bill, 2025. Members referred to tribunal capacity constraints, overburdened case loads, delayed liquidation and resolution timelines, value deterioration, and low realisations to creditors as continuing problems in the insolvency ecosystem. The select committee report was noted as seeking to address these structural concerns through amendments aimed at improving the functioning of the insolvency and bankruptcy framework.
March 25, 2026
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Electricity tariff reduction cuts power charges by one paisa per unit across all consumer categories for FY27.
Electricity tariff for all consumer categories in Himachal Pradesh has been reduced by one paisa per unit for FY27, effective from 1 April 2026. The tariff order fixes the average cost of supply at Rs 6.75 per unit after truing up, resulting in a corresponding reduction in energy charges across consumer classes. The revised schedule sets category-wise tariffs for domestic, commercial, industrial, agricultural, railway, EV charging, irrigation, bulk supply, and street lighting consumers, while domestic subsidy is left to the state government decision and compensation mechanism.
March 25, 2026
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Money laundering attachment over Mahadev betting assets targets alleged proceeds of crime and overseas luxury properties.
Provisional attachment under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act was issued against immovable assets linked to the Mahadev Online Book betting operation, including luxury properties in Dubai, apartments in Burj Khalifa and two properties in Delhi. The attached assets were alleged to represent proceeds of crime generated from illegal online betting activities controlled through entities associated with the main promoter of the platform.
March 25, 2026
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Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code reform focuses on faster resolution, out-of-court settlements, and cross-border insolvency provisions.
The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code is described as a revival and resolution framework that has generated substantial recoveries through resolution of bankrupt companies and improved creditor-debtor discipline. The proposed amendment bill seeks to reduce the time taken for admission of insolvency resolution applications, speed up case clearance, support out-of-court resolution, and address cross-border insolvency and discretionary provisions.
March 25, 2026
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Power tariff unchanged as the commission prioritizes revenue neutrality, loss reduction, and efficiency in electricity distribution.
The Haryana Electricity Regulatory Commission kept power tariff unchanged for the 2026-27 financial year and treated the Annual Revenue Requirement of the distribution licensees as revenue-neutral despite a projected revenue gap. The order linked the decision to improved efficiency in revenue collection, receivables management, power procurement and loss reduction, while also fixing distribution loss levels and directing feeder-level monitoring to curb losses.
March 25, 2026
Show AI Summary
Permanent Establishment audit reporting governs royalty and technical fees income for non-residents under the prescribed form.
Form No. 24 is a prescribed audit report for non-residents, foreign companies, and other non-resident entities deriving royalty or fees for technical services from India through a Permanent Establishment or fixed place of profession in India. It is certified by an Accountant and is mandatory where such income is effectively connected with the Indian Permanent Establishment or fixed place of profession. The form requires books of account, supporting documents, annexures, and electronic certification details, and is furnished annually before the return due date. Furnishing and acceptance of the form support assessment on a net income basis.
March 25, 2026
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Skill Development Project notification under income tax law links approval, audit compliance, and renewal conditions for eligible companies.
Form 23 is the CBDT notification form for an approved Skill Development Project under Section 47(1)(b) of the Income-tax Act, 2025 read with Rules 39 and 40. It is issued after Form 22 is examined and recommended by NCVET, and it specifies the approved Tax Year(s), project particulars, conditions, and validity for up to three Tax Years. The framework requires separate books, audit, prescribed reporting, compliance with notification conditions, and permits renewal or revocation depending on project performance and statutory compliance.
March 25, 2026
Show AI Summary
Skill development project notification governs approval, tax-year limits, conditions, and compliance for income-tax benefits.
Form 23 is the income-tax notification form for an approved skill development project under Section 47(1)(b) of the Income-tax Act, 2025, issued after approval under Rule 39. It notifies the project in the Official Gazette, specifies the approved tax years, and sets the terms, duration, and expenditure limits. The notification is issued by the Central Board of Direct Taxes on recommendation of NCVET, and contains the company's particulars, project details, training institute details, approved tax years, estimated expenditure, and attached conditions.

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Form 6 - Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs)

March 25, 2026

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Form 6 - Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs)

Form of Application under Section 44(6)/51(7) of the Income-tax Act, 2025

Name of Form as per I.T. Rules, 1962

3AE

Name of Form as per I.T. Rules, 2026

6

Corresponding section of I.T. Act, 1961

35D(4), 35E(6)

Corresponding section of I.T. Act, 2025

44(6), 51(7)

Corresponding Rule of I.T. Rules, 1962

6AB

Corresponding Rule of I.T. Rules, 2026

28

1. What is FORM 6?

Ans: Form 6 is an audit report required to be furnished by an eligible assessee claiming deductions under Section 44 (preliminary and project-related expenditure) or Section 51 (mineral prospecting and development expenditure) of the Income-tax Act, 2025. The Form is required to be certified by an accountant and submitted electronically

2. What is the purpose of FORM 6?

Ans: The purpose of Form 6 is to:

  • Certify qualifying expenditure eligible for deduction under Section 44 or Section 51
  • Ensure audit-based verification of eligible expenditure
  • Enable system-based validation of deductions claimed
  • Improve accuracy, transparency, and revenue protection
  • Provide a statutory audit trail for capital and mineral-related claims

3. Who is required to file FORM 6?

Ans: Any assessee other than a company or a co-operative society claiming deduction under:

  • Section 44 — Preliminary / project-related expenditure, OR
  • Section 51 — Mineral prospecting / development expenditure

must furnish Form 6, duly certified by an accountant.

4. Who is authorised to certify FORM 6?

Ans: Form 6 must be certified by an accountant as defined under Section 515(3)(b) of the Income-tax Act, 2025, i.e., a Chartered Accountant in practice (with some exceptions).

5. What is the due date for filing FORM 6?

Ans: Form 6 must be filed at least one month prior to the due date for furnishing the return of income for the relevant Tax Year under Section 263(1) of the Income-tax Act, 2025.

6. What is the frequency of filing FORM 6?

Ans: Form 6 is required to be filed once for first Tax Year in which a deduction under Section 44 or Section 51 is claimed.

7. What information is required in FORM 6?

Ans: Form 6 contains:

(a) Audit Report Section

  • Examination of financial statements
  • True and fair view declaration
  • Accountant details, UDIN, and Firm Registration Number (FRN)

(b) Section A — Deduction under Section 44

  • Business commencement details
  • Project / unit extension details
  • Qualifying expenditure (feasibility, project report, market survey, engineering services)
  • Legal charges
  • Project cost and eligible deduction computation

(c ) Section B — Deduction under Section 51

  • Mineral / group details
  • Commercial production Tax Year
  • Year-wise qualifying expenditure
  • Audit date and expenditure amount

8. What documents are required for filing FORM 6?

Ans: • Audited financial statements

  • Project / feasibility / engineering reports
  • Bills and invoices for qualifying expenditure
  • Asset and project cost records
  • Mineral prospecting and development records (if applicable)
  • Supporting working papers for audit verification

9. What is the process flow for filing FORM 6?

Ans: • Assessee compiles financial statements and expenditure records

  •  Assessee appoints the Accountant on the e-Filing portal for Form 6.
  • Accountant certifies the Form 6
  • Accountant uploads Form 6 via their CA login.
  • Assessee reviews the uploaded Form under the ‘Pending Actions’ worklist.
  • Assessee accepts and verifies the Form using DSC/EVC to complete the filing.
  • Electronic acknowledgement is generated upon successful verification by the Assessee.
  • UDIN has to be generated and updated on the filing portal by the CA

10. Is UDIN mandatory in FORM 6?

Ans: Yes. Unique Document Identification Number (UDIN) is mandatory and must be generated by the certifying accountant and quoted in Form 6.

11. Is Digital Signature Certificate (DSC) required for filing FORM 6?

Ans: Yes. Form 6 must be verified and submitted using DSC of the authorised signatory / accountant.

12. Can FORM 6 be filed offline?

Ans: No. Form 6 can only be filed electronically through the Income-tax e-Filing Portal.

13. What happens if FORM 6 is not filed?

Ans: Failure to furnish Form 6 may result in:

  • Disallowance of deduction under Section 44 / Section 51
  • Additional scrutiny or verification
  • Possible penal consequences under applicable provisions

14. How does FORM 6 improve compliance?

Ans: Form 6 strengthens compliance by:

  • Introducing audit-backed verification
  • Enhancing data accuracy and traceability
  • Enabling system analytics and risk assessment
  • Reducing incorrect or inflated deduction claims

15. Is FORM 5 linked with FORM 6?

Ans: Yes. Form 6 requires confirmation of whether Form 5 has been filed under Rule 27 if applicable.

16. What are key benefits of FORM 6?

Ans: • Improved audit discipline

  • Better deduction governance
  • Stronger revenue safeguards
  • Alignment with digital and faceless compliance framework

Overall Summary

Ans: Form 6 represents audit-certified deduction reporting under the Income-tax Act, 2025, enhancing credibility, transparency, and data integrity, while ensuring a structured and technology-driven compliance process.

Topics

Acts Income Tax