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March 26, 2026
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Mandatory audit reporting under Form No. 26 introduces clause-wise disclosures, UDIN compliance, and schedule-based tax audit filing.
Form No. 26 is the mandatory audit report and statement of particulars for persons carrying on business or profession whose accounts are required to be audited under section 63. It applies from tax years commencing on or after 1 April 2026, is due one month before the return filing deadline, and must be signed by an Accountant with UDIN, and FRN where applicable. The form uses Part B clause-wise Yes/No reporting with trigger-based schedules, and Parts C and D for audit reporting depending on whether accounts are audited under another law.
March 26, 2026
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Daily case register requirements for medical professionals under tax rules, including maintenance, exceptions, and non-filing status.
Form No. 25 prescribes a daily case register for medical professionals under Rule 46 of the Income-tax Rules, 2026. It records the patient's name, nature of service, fees charged, and date of receipt of fees. The form is mandatory for persons engaged in the medical profession, subject to the stated gross-receipts exceptions, and is maintained in addition to books of account. It is not furnished to the Department and has no due date.
March 26, 2026
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Daily case register compliance for medical practitioners requires tabular records, electronic access safeguards, and preservation obligations.
Form No. 25 is the prescribed daily case register for practitioners of any system of medicine under Rule 46 of the Income-tax Rules, 2026, subject to the prescribed gross receipt threshold and the position of newly set-up medical practices. It records patient and fee particulars in tabular form, is not furnished to the Income-tax Department, but must be maintained daily, produced before the Assessing Officer when called for, may be kept electronically with India-based access and backups, and must be preserved for seven tax years or until completion of reassessment proceedings.
March 26, 2026
Show AI Summary
Permanent establishment audit reporting for royalty and technical services income now uses a structured Chartered Accountant certification format.
Form No. 24 is a statutory audit report for non-residents and foreign companies earning royalty or fees for technical services from India through a permanent establishment or fixed place of profession in India. It requires a Chartered Accountant's certification of the correctness of income computation, verification of the PE or fixed place, maintenance of books of account, and deduction only of expenses attributable to the PE while computing income under section 59. The form is filed annually, contains structured particulars of the assessee, agreement, PE, books examined, and income computation, and is submitted through the e-filing portal with digital signature verification.
March 26, 2026
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Competition approval for additional shareholding acquisition in Valuedrive Technologies through an alternative investment and trust co-investment structure.
The Competition Commission of India approved the proposed acquisition of additional shareholding in Valuedrive Technologies Private Limited by Setu AIF Trust, Konark Trust and MMPL Trust. The transaction concerns acquisition of shares on a fully diluted basis through an alternative investment fund and private trust co-investment structure. Valuedrive Technologies Private Limited operates as an operating-cum-holding company for the Spinny Group and carries on an electronic platform business for used motor vehicles, together with related subsidiary activities.
March 26, 2026
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Competition law approval for acquisition of shares in a listed NBFC by a Japan-based banking institution.
Competition Commission of India approval was granted for the acquisition of certain shares in Shriram Finance Limited by MUFG Bank Ltd. The acquirer is a Japan-based banking institution wholly owned and controlled by Mitsubishi UFJ Financial Group, Inc., and carries on banking-related activities in India including corporate banking loans, deposit accounts, remittances, trade finance, bank guarantees and hedging. The target is a listed non-banking financial company registered with the Reserve Bank of India, classified as an Investment and Credit Company and an NBFC-Upper Layer, engaged in financing commercial goods and passenger vehicles, construction equipment, farm equipment, MSMEs, two-wheelers, gold and personal loans.
March 26, 2026
Show AI Summary
Competition approval for acquisition of Groww Asset Management shareholding by State Street Global Advisors
Competition approval was granted for the proposed acquisition of shareholding in Groww Asset Management Limited by State Street Global Advisors, Inc. The target manages schemes of Groww Mutual Fund, including equity, hybrid, debt and exchange traded fund schemes. State Street operates under the State Street Investment Management brand as the asset management arm of State Street Corporation. The detailed order of the Commission would follow.
March 26, 2026
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Competition combination approval for Coursera and Udemy merger, creating sole control over Udemy through a subsidiary merger.
Competition Commission of India approved a proposed combination involving the merger of Chess Merger Sub, a wholly owned subsidiary of Coursera Inc., with and into Udemy Inc., with Udemy surviving as a wholly owned subsidiary of Coursera. The transaction results in Coursera acquiring sole control over Udemy, and the combined company is expected to have post-closing shareholding in which existing Coursera stockholders hold approximately 59% and existing Udemy stockholders approximately 41% on a fully diluted basis.
March 26, 2026
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Competition approval for renewable energy investment in Aditya Birla Renewables through equity subscription by GIP EM Star.
Competition Commission of India approved the subscription of certain equity share capital of Aditya Birla Renewables Limited by GIP EM Star Pte. Ltd. The acquirer is incorporated in Singapore and is ultimately linked to Global Infrastructure Management, LLC and BlackRock, Inc. The target, headquartered in Mumbai, is engaged in renewable energy power generation, including solar and wind power.
March 25, 2026
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Inflation targeting framework retained with a 4 per cent objective and a 2 per cent tolerance band for the next cycle.
The central government, in consultation with the Reserve Bank, has notified the inflation target for 1 April 2026 to 31 March 2031 at 4 per cent, with an upper tolerance level of 6 per cent and a lower tolerance level of 2 per cent. The framework continues to place the Monetary Policy Committee in charge of setting the policy rate needed to achieve the inflation objective within the prescribed band.
March 25, 2026
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Insolvency resolution delays under the bankruptcy code draw debate over tribunal capacity, creditor recoveries, and reform priorities.
Delay in insolvency resolution under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code remained the central issue in parliamentary discussion on the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (Amendment) Bill, 2025. Members referred to tribunal capacity constraints, overburdened case loads, delayed liquidation and resolution timelines, value deterioration, and low realisations to creditors as continuing problems in the insolvency ecosystem. The select committee report was noted as seeking to address these structural concerns through amendments aimed at improving the functioning of the insolvency and bankruptcy framework.
March 25, 2026
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Electricity tariff reduction cuts power charges by one paisa per unit across all consumer categories for FY27.
Electricity tariff for all consumer categories in Himachal Pradesh has been reduced by one paisa per unit for FY27, effective from 1 April 2026. The tariff order fixes the average cost of supply at Rs 6.75 per unit after truing up, resulting in a corresponding reduction in energy charges across consumer classes. The revised schedule sets category-wise tariffs for domestic, commercial, industrial, agricultural, railway, EV charging, irrigation, bulk supply, and street lighting consumers, while domestic subsidy is left to the state government decision and compensation mechanism.
March 25, 2026
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Money laundering attachment over Mahadev betting assets targets alleged proceeds of crime and overseas luxury properties.
Provisional attachment under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act was issued against immovable assets linked to the Mahadev Online Book betting operation, including luxury properties in Dubai, apartments in Burj Khalifa and two properties in Delhi. The attached assets were alleged to represent proceeds of crime generated from illegal online betting activities controlled through entities associated with the main promoter of the platform.
March 25, 2026
Show AI Summary
Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code reform focuses on faster resolution, out-of-court settlements, and cross-border insolvency provisions.
The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code is described as a revival and resolution framework that has generated substantial recoveries through resolution of bankrupt companies and improved creditor-debtor discipline. The proposed amendment bill seeks to reduce the time taken for admission of insolvency resolution applications, speed up case clearance, support out-of-court resolution, and address cross-border insolvency and discretionary provisions.
March 25, 2026
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Power tariff unchanged as the commission prioritizes revenue neutrality, loss reduction, and efficiency in electricity distribution.
The Haryana Electricity Regulatory Commission kept power tariff unchanged for the 2026-27 financial year and treated the Annual Revenue Requirement of the distribution licensees as revenue-neutral despite a projected revenue gap. The order linked the decision to improved efficiency in revenue collection, receivables management, power procurement and loss reduction, while also fixing distribution loss levels and directing feeder-level monitoring to curb losses.
March 25, 2026
Show AI Summary
Permanent Establishment audit reporting governs royalty and technical fees income for non-residents under the prescribed form.
Form No. 24 is a prescribed audit report for non-residents, foreign companies, and other non-resident entities deriving royalty or fees for technical services from India through a Permanent Establishment or fixed place of profession in India. It is certified by an Accountant and is mandatory where such income is effectively connected with the Indian Permanent Establishment or fixed place of profession. The form requires books of account, supporting documents, annexures, and electronic certification details, and is furnished annually before the return due date. Furnishing and acceptance of the form support assessment on a net income basis.
March 25, 2026
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Skill Development Project notification under income tax law links approval, audit compliance, and renewal conditions for eligible companies.
Form 23 is the CBDT notification form for an approved Skill Development Project under Section 47(1)(b) of the Income-tax Act, 2025 read with Rules 39 and 40. It is issued after Form 22 is examined and recommended by NCVET, and it specifies the approved Tax Year(s), project particulars, conditions, and validity for up to three Tax Years. The framework requires separate books, audit, prescribed reporting, compliance with notification conditions, and permits renewal or revocation depending on project performance and statutory compliance.
March 25, 2026
Show AI Summary
Skill development project notification governs approval, tax-year limits, conditions, and compliance for income-tax benefits.
Form 23 is the income-tax notification form for an approved skill development project under Section 47(1)(b) of the Income-tax Act, 2025, issued after approval under Rule 39. It notifies the project in the Official Gazette, specifies the approved tax years, and sets the terms, duration, and expenditure limits. The notification is issued by the Central Board of Direct Taxes on recommendation of NCVET, and contains the company's particulars, project details, training institute details, approved tax years, estimated expenditure, and attached conditions.
March 25, 2026
Show AI Summary
Skill Development Project approval under income tax rules requires Form 22 filing, structured disclosures, and electronic verification.
Form 22 is the prescribed Income-tax application by which an eligible company seeks approval of a Skill Development Project under Section 47(1)(b) of the Income-tax Act, 2025 read with Rule 39. The form is filed with the National Council for Vocational Education and Training for recommendation to the Central Board of Direct Taxes, and it must be submitted electronically using DSC or EVC before commencement of the project. It requires disclosure of company particulars, project particulars, training institute details, prior notifications or revocations, return of income data, penalties, outstanding tax demands, expenditure projections, and supporting annexures.
March 25, 2026
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Free trade agreements and voluntary CSR are highlighted as tools for quality-led growth and inclusive development.
India's expanded free trade agreements are presented as a means of securing preferential market access for goods and services, with reduced or zero duty benefits linked to stronger export competitiveness. Indian industry, farmers, MSMEs, fishermen and artisans are urged to use these opportunities through a sustained focus on quality, higher standards and improved production and service capability. The statement also presents voluntary corporate social responsibility beyond statutory minima as an example of tangible social commitment.

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PMLA / Black Money

I-PAC raids: SC quizzes Bengal govt, says ED officers also have fundamental rights

March 24, 2026

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New Delhi, Mar 24 (PTI) The Supreme Court on Tuesday quizzed the West Bengal government over its objection to the maintainability of the Enforcement Directorate's plea on the alleged obstruction by Chief Minister Mamata Banerjee during a raid, asking about the fundamental rights of ED officers.

The top court remarked that some officers of the ED have filed petitions in their individual capacity seeking to know whether they cease to be citizens of India merely because they are officers of the agency.

The West Bengal government has questioned the maintainability of the ED's plea which alleged obstruction by Banerjee and other state authorities during its January 8 search of the office of political consultancy firm Indian Political Action Committee's (I-PAC) in Kolkata. The search was in connection with a money-laundering probe.

A bench of Justices Prashant Kumar Mishra and N V Anjaria was told by senior advocate Kapil Sibal, appearing for Banerjee, that a person who moves the court under Article 32 of the Constitution has to specifically set out which fundamental right of his has been violated.

"Please concentrate on the fundamental rights of the officers of the ED with whom the offence has been committed. If you only concentrate on ED, ED, ED and forget the second petition which is preferred by the individual officers who were the victims of that offence, you may miss the point and you will be in difficulty," Justice Mishra observed.

Sibal argued that the person (Deputy Director Robin Bansal) who filed the writ petition has not claimed a violation of any fundamental right.

"Not only that, assuming he has a fundamental right, then the petition must state which fundamental right has been violated," he said adding that in this particular case the ED is not even a person.

Sibal said any obstruction in the performance of a statutory duty is not a violation of a fundamental right.

"If someone obstructs a police officer, he can't file a petition under Article 32. He also can't file a 226 petition. There will be a prosecution launched for the obstruction of violating his right to discharge his functions," Sibal said.

At this juncture, Justice Mishra remarked, "If the CM barges into an ED investigation and commits an offence, your idea of remedy for the ED is to go to the state government which is headed by the CM and inform them about it and seek remedy?" Responding to the question, Sibal said, "Your lordships are assuming that the chief minister has committed an offence." "If ED is investigating under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act and some other offence has come to the notice of the officers, then the concerned agency, in this case the state government, should be informed as per Section 66 of PMLA," Sibal said.

Justice Mishra then said, "We are not assuming anything. That is the allegation.

"Do not mistake us. Every allegation is based on some facts, if there are no facts, there is no need to be investigated. That is what they are praying for, for CBI to investigate." Questioning the maintainability of the ED's plea over alleged obstruction by Chief Minister Banerjee during a raid, Sibal said a deputy director mentioned in the cause title was not present while the raids were being conducted.

Senior advocate Kalyan Banerjee, also appearing for the chief minister, argued that the state has to give consent for a CBI investigation and the constitutional court has the power in other cases.

The hearing remained inconclusive and will continue on April 14.

On January 15, the top court said the West Bengal chief minister's alleged obstruction in the ED's probe is "very serious" and agreed to examine if a state's law-enforcing agencies can interfere with any central agency's investigation into any serious offence as it stayed FIRs against the ED officials who raided I-PAC.

The ED has alleged interference and obstruction by the state government, including by Banerjee, in its probe and search operation at the I-PAC office and the premises of its director, Pratik Jain, in connection with an alleged coal-pilferage scam.

The top court, while staying the FIRs filed in West Bengal against the ED officials, had also directed the state police to protect the CCTV footage of the raids.

It had issued notices to Banerjee, the West Bengal government, former state DGP Rajeev Kumar and top cops on the ED's petitions seeking a CBI probe against them for allegedly obstructing its raids. PTI PKS PKS KSS KSS

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