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March 26, 2026
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SEZ reinvestment reserve reporting: Form 33 supports deduction claims for new plant and machinery purchases under section 144.
Form 33 is the prescribed statement for assessees claiming deduction under section 144 in respect of profits and gains derived by newly established units in SEZs. It is filed where amounts are withdrawn from the SEZ Reinvestment Reserve Account for purchase of new plant or machinery, and it must be verified by the proprietor, partner, or director. The form is to be filed along with the return of income, and the deduction is based on the particulars reported in the form.
March 26, 2026
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Audit report form requirements govern deduction claims under specified income-tax provisions, with section-wise disclosures and chartered accountant verification.
Form 32 is the prescribed audit-report form for assessees claiming deductions under the specified provisions of the Income-tax Act, 2025, and it must be verified by a Chartered Accountant. The form is filed by the due date applicable to the audit report and requires basic particulars, section-specific disclosure fields, supporting documents such as agreements, SEZ notifications, start-up certification, turnover and profit details, and capital expenditure details where relevant. Filing is completed by entering the applicable deduction particulars and electronic verification through the Chartered Accountant's DSC.
March 26, 2026
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Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code misuse allegations surface over creditor voting control and resolution process conduct in a fraud FIR.
Fraud allegations arose from an FIR filed on the basis of an Enforcement Directorate complaint linked to a money laundering probe. The complaint stated that Experion entities were examined in relation to the insolvency proceedings of Dignity Buildcon Private Limited and were said to have misused the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code during the Corporate Insolvency Resolution Process. It further alleged acquisition of debt and debentures to increase voting rights in the Committee of Creditors and pressure on the authorised representative of Alchemist Asset Reconstruction Company to vote for a resolution plan.
March 26, 2026
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Audit report requirements govern deductions for specified business, start-ups, SEZ units, and North-Eastern eligible businesses.
Form 32 is the audit report required for deductions under the specified provisions of the Income-tax Act, 2025, and must be verified by a Chartered Accountant. It applies to claims for specified business capital expenditure, industrial and infrastructure undertakings, SEZ development, eligible start-ups, housing projects, North-Eastern business units, and newly established SEZ units, and must be filed by the audit-report due date. The document also states the conditions for specified business capital expenditure, start-up eligibility and duration, and the qualifying North-Eastern businesses.
March 26, 2026
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Rent deduction declaration requires Form 31, with landlord details, rent evidence, and e-verification alongside the return.
Form 31 is the declaration to be furnished by an assessee claiming deduction under section 134 of the Income-tax Act, 2025 in respect of rent paid for residential accommodation. It applies to a resident individual who pays rent for furnished or unfurnished accommodation, does not receive house rent allowance, and does not own residential property at the place of employment or residence. The form is to be filed along with the return of income and requires rent details, landlord particulars, supporting documents, and e-verification through DSC or Aadhaar.
March 26, 2026
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Rent deduction declaration under section 134 requires Form 31 for eligible resident individuals without house rent allowance.
Form 31 is the declaration required for claiming deduction under section 134 for rent paid for residential accommodation. It applies to a resident individual who does not receive house rent allowance and does not own residential property at the place of employment or residence. The form must be filed along with the return of income, and the deduction is available on the basis of details furnished in the form, subject to the annual ceiling of Rs. 60,000.
March 26, 2026
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Deduction for dependant with disability requires Form 30, supported by medical certification, filing details, and electronic verification.
Deduction for maintenance, medical treatment, training and rehabilitation of a dependant with disability is supported by Form 30, which must be filed by a resident individual claiming expenditure for a dependant with disability or payments under an approved scheme. The form is filed with the return of income, supported by the medical authority certificate, and requires completion of assessee details, patient and disability particulars, upload of the signed verification, and e-verification through DSC or Aadhaar.
March 26, 2026
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Disability-related tax deduction requires Form 30, medical certification, and timely filing with the return of income.
Deduction is available for maintenance, including medical treatment, training and rehabilitation, of a dependant who is a person with disability, and for payments made under a qualifying insurance or specified scheme. Form 30 is the prescribed statement for claiming the deduction and must be filed by a resident individual along with the return of income. The medical authority certificate must be uploaded online, and a fresh certificate is required when a temporary disability certificate expires.
March 26, 2026
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Carry forward and set-off of amalgamated losses depends on Form 29 production certification and verified compliance.
Form 29 is the prescribed certificate for an amalgamated company to evidence achievement and maintenance of the prescribed level of production in an undertaking received through amalgamation. It is filed with the return of income to support compliance with the conditions for carry forward and set-off of accumulated loss and unabsorbed depreciation of the amalgamating company. The form must be certified by the principal officer and verified by an accountant, and it requires confirmation that the prescribed production threshold has been achieved and maintained within the specified period.
March 26, 2026
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Freight disruption and export relief measures shape India's response to West Asia-linked logistics stress and production shortages.
West Asia-related disruption in shipping and logistics has led to steep increases in freight charges, container shortages, stranded cargo and shipment cancellations affecting exporters in eastern India. Perishable goods, engineering products, textiles and medicines are among the sectors most affected, while the LPG supply crunch has added to production difficulties and air cargo costs have risen because of route changes and cancellations. The text also refers to relief measures, including waiver-based port concessions, the RELIEF scheme for conflict-linked losses and reimbursement support for eligible MSME exporters.
March 26, 2026
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Production compliance certificate governs carry forward and set-off benefits for amalgamated companies under the income tax rules.
Form 29 is the mandatory certificate under Rule 60 for an amalgamated company claiming carry forward and set-off of accumulated losses and unabsorbed depreciation under Section 116(4)(b)(iii). It certifies achievement and maintenance of the prescribed production level in acquired industrial undertakings, requires electronic filing with the return of income, and may cover multiple amalgamating companies. The production condition is 50% of installed capacity within four years of amalgamation and maintenance up to five years, with possible governmental relaxation in suitable cases.
March 26, 2026
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Slump sale reporting requires accountant certification of net worth and capital gains through online Form 28 filing.
Accountant's report in Form No. 28 (Form No. 3CEA) is required for an assessee undertaking a slump sale to certify the computation of net worth and capital gains under the Income Tax Act, 2025. The form applies where an undertaking or division is transferred as a going concern for a lump-sum consideration without assigning individual values to assets and liabilities. It must be furnished online on the income tax e-filing portal on or before the due date for filing the assessee's income tax return.
March 26, 2026
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Slump sale reporting under income tax law requires mandatory accountant certification, online filing, and timely submission through Form 28.
Form No. 28 is the accountant's report required under section 77(4) of the Income-tax Act, 2025 for computation of capital gains in a slump sale. It applies where an undertaking or division is transferred as a going concern for lump-sum consideration without assigning separate values to assets and liabilities, and it is mandatory for certifying net worth and capital gains. The form must be filed once in a year on or before the due date for the income-tax return, only online, and cannot be edited after submission. A valid PAN is required.
March 26, 2026
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Capital gains attribution framework for specified entities filing Form 27 with valuation support and electronic certification.
Form 27 is filed by every specified entity to furnish details of the amount attributed to capital assets remaining with the entity where a specified person receives capital asset or stock-in-trade on dissolution or reconstitution. It supports computation under Rule 50 and must be certified on the basis of a registered valuer's report. The form is filed electronically with the return of income and includes particulars of the amount taxable, its attribution to remaining assets, and the valuer's details.
March 26, 2026
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Form No. 27 reporting requirement governs valuation-based attribution of income on dissolution or reconstitution of a specified entity.
Form No. 27 is a mandatory income-tax reporting form prescribed under Rule 50 for a specified entity where income becomes taxable under section 67(10) on dissolution or reconstitution and a specified person receives capital asset, stock-in-trade, or both. It operationalises the attribution of such taxable income to the capital assets remaining with the specified entity and must be furnished for each tax year in which the relevant event occurs. The form requires electronic filing with the return of income and valuation-based attribution supported by a registered valuer's report.
March 26, 2026
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Tax audit Form No. 26 standardises disclosures, audit reporting, and filing requirements under the new income tax framework.
Prescribed Form No. 26 is the audit report and statement of particulars under section 63 of the Income-tax Act, 2025 read with rule 47 of the Income-tax Rules, 2026. Parts A and B contain the substantive disclosures for tax audit compliance, including books of account, method of accounting, income, expenses, losses, depreciation, deductions, international taxation, TDS/TCS, indirect taxation and quantitative details. Part C applies where accounts are audited under another law, while Part D applies where they are not. The form is required for specified business and professional thresholds and certain presumptive taxation cases, and is furnished through a structured online filing process.
March 26, 2026
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Mandatory audit reporting under Form No. 26 introduces clause-wise disclosures, UDIN compliance, and schedule-based tax audit filing.
Form No. 26 is the mandatory audit report and statement of particulars for persons carrying on business or profession whose accounts are required to be audited under section 63. It applies from tax years commencing on or after 1 April 2026, is due one month before the return filing deadline, and must be signed by an Accountant with UDIN, and FRN where applicable. The form uses Part B clause-wise Yes/No reporting with trigger-based schedules, and Parts C and D for audit reporting depending on whether accounts are audited under another law.
March 26, 2026
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Daily case register requirements for medical professionals under tax rules, including maintenance, exceptions, and non-filing status.
Form No. 25 prescribes a daily case register for medical professionals under Rule 46 of the Income-tax Rules, 2026. It records the patient's name, nature of service, fees charged, and date of receipt of fees. The form is mandatory for persons engaged in the medical profession, subject to the stated gross-receipts exceptions, and is maintained in addition to books of account. It is not furnished to the Department and has no due date.
March 26, 2026
Show AI Summary
Daily case register compliance for medical practitioners requires tabular records, electronic access safeguards, and preservation obligations.
Form No. 25 is the prescribed daily case register for practitioners of any system of medicine under Rule 46 of the Income-tax Rules, 2026, subject to the prescribed gross receipt threshold and the position of newly set-up medical practices. It records patient and fee particulars in tabular form, is not furnished to the Income-tax Department, but must be maintained daily, produced before the Assessing Officer when called for, may be kept electronically with India-based access and backups, and must be preserved for seven tax years or until completion of reassessment proceedings.
March 26, 2026
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Permanent establishment audit reporting for royalty and technical services income now uses a structured Chartered Accountant certification format.
Form No. 24 is a statutory audit report for non-residents and foreign companies earning royalty or fees for technical services from India through a permanent establishment or fixed place of profession in India. It requires a Chartered Accountant's certification of the correctness of income computation, verification of the PE or fixed place, maintenance of books of account, and deduction only of expenses attributable to the PE while computing income under section 59. The form is filed annually, contains structured particulars of the assessee, agreement, PE, books examined, and income computation, and is submitted through the e-filing portal with digital signature verification.

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Corp. Laws / SEBI / IBC

SBI-led secured lenders move SC for claims from Rs 5,100 cr deposited by Sterling Biotech

March 18, 2026

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New Delhi, Mar 18 (PTI) A consortium of secured lenders including banks of Sterling Biotech Ltd of promoters Chetan and Nitin Sandesara has moved the Supreme Court for disbursal of their claim amounts from Rs 5,100 crore deposited in the apex court registry while highlighting their total outstanding against the Group companies was at Rs 19,283.77 crore.

A bench of Justices J K Maheshwari and A S Chandurkar, which on Monday took on record the joint application filed by the consortium led by the State Bank of India and while asking it to be served to Solicitor General Tushar Mehta, listed the matter for further hearing on March 23.

The banks placed on record a consolidated computation of claims across multiple Group entities and setting out the methodology adopted for the distribution of the amount.

"The applicants are the Secured Lenders of M/s. Sterling Biotech Ltd. and its Group Companies and are jointly filing the present application seeking directions for disbursal of their respective claim amounts, which stand deposited with the Registry of this court by the petitioners, in terms of the order/directions dated November 19, 2025 passed by this court," it said.

The application stated that the claims relate to exposures across 10 companies of the Sterling group, including Sterling Biotech Ltd, Sterling Oil Resources Ltd, Sterling SEZ Ltd and other domestic and overseas entities.

The lenders further stated that the claims were consolidated following a series of joint meetings, where a uniform formula was agreed upon for calculating total dues and apportioning the deposited amount.

"That joint meetings were held between the secured lender banks regarding the distribution of the claims. On January 29, 2026, in the meeting held between the secured lender banks of the group companies, it was decided to finalise the manner of submitting claims and the process of distribution of the amount of Rs 5,100 crore to the respective Secured Lender Banks on a proportionate basis in reference to the amount due to them…," it said.

According to the application, the lenders decided to aggregate all domestic and foreign currency exposures, convert foreign loans into rupees at a fixed exchange rate of Rs 63 per US dollar — reflecting the average rate in 2015 when most accounts turned non-performing — and apply a uniform interest rate of nine per cent per annum from the date of NPA, with annual rests.

Amounts already recovered through insolvency proceedings were adjusted before arriving at the final outstanding figure.

The banks further told the court that after applying this methodology, the total admitted dues across all accounts were computed at Rs 19,283.77 crore, and the Rs 5,100 crore deposited pursuant to the court's earlier order is proposed to be distributed proportionately based on each lender's share in the total dues.

Giving an example, the application stated that if the total dues of all the accounts of group companies are Rs 10,000 crore with all the banks and one company has Rs 1,000 crore dues, then this company will get a 10 per cent share in Rs 5,100 crore.

The application includes a detailed chart of individual bank exposures and their corresponding share in the distribution pool.

According to the figures placed before the court, the SBI has claimed Rs 2,664.72 crore and is set to receive Rs 695.03 crore, while UCO Bank has claimed Rs 2,980.10 crore and is to receive Rs 777.28 crore.

Further, Union Bank of India's dues of Rs 2,499.64 crore correspond to a proposed recovery of Rs 651.97 crore, and Bank of India's claim of Rs 2,235.65 crore translates to Rs 583.11 crore from the deposit.

Among other lenders, Punjab National Bank has claimed Rs 1,988.04 crore and is to receive Rs 518.53 crore, Indian Bank Rs 1,750.40 crore with a proposed share of Rs 456.55 crore, and Bank of Baroda Rs 1,581.98 crore with a corresponding allocation of Rs 482.92 crore. Indian Overseas Bank, which has computed its dues at Rs 1,257.36 crore, is set to receive Rs 327.95 crore. A similar formula was adopted for smaller exposure of funds by banks.

The banks told the bench, "It is reiterated that the aforesaid process and the methodology of distribution and the respective share of each secured lender bank have been arrived at with the consensus of the secured lenders. All the Secured lenders of SBL Group of Companies as mentioned… have accepted the said share." The application, however, states that a few lenders are yet to formally confirm their acceptance, although their dues have been computed on the same basis.

The consortium has sought the court's approval to disburse the Rs 5,100 crore in accordance with this agreed formula, with payments to be made to the respective bank accounts as detailed in the application.

On November 19 last year, the top court accepted a settlement proposal under which the Sandesara brothers agreed to deposit Rs 5,100 crore as a full and final settlement of claims arising from these proceedings.

The amount was subsequently deposited in the court registry in December 2025, following which the court gave effect to its earlier order for quashing of proceedings.

The legal dispute arose from a batch of petitions filed by the Sandesara brothers seeking quashing of multiple proceedings, including FIRs registered by the CBI, ED, cases registered under the Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, the Companies Act and the Black Money Act. PTI MNL SJK MNL KSS KSS

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