Hello,
Lets say Job worker(Registered) has sold scrap or lets say retained. Principal asks to consider it payment towards job charges and pays remainder amount.
The issue is, for above situation, whether Principal is required to issue Tax Invoice for Scrap to Job worker?
Many experts believe Transaction Value = Monetary Consideration + Value of Scrap/by-products retained by Job worker. Then Principal should issue invoice for scrap/by products to Job worker. The Circular No. 38/12/2018 doesnt explicitly state that but we are expected to follow GST acts regarding invoicing and valuation.
So, what is the standard practice whether invoice should be given or not?
Thanks.
TaxTMI
Hello,
Thanks for responding.
In AAR (Kerala) :- 2019 (11) TMI 110 - AUTHORITY FOR ADVANCE RULING, KERALA it was upheld that registered job worker can sell scrap and would pay GST on any receipts. It is understood.
It doesnt talk about whether Principal is required to issue a Tax Invoice to job worker who sells the above scrap.
para no. 9.4 (iii) and (ii) talks about value, place of supply and Invoicing in context of manufactured goods, inputs, capital goods.
Sub - section (5) of Section 143 of the CGST Act provides that the waste and scrap generated during the job work may be supplied by the registered job worker directly from his place of business. The principles enunciated in para (ii) above would apply mutatis mutandis in this case.
By mutatis mutandis, it should probably mean time, value and place of supply of scrap as described in para (ii) (in context when job worker is unregistered or Principal decides to sell scrap).
If it meant Principal should first sell scrap to registered job worker then why is there need of 143(5) that mentions that registered job worker can directly sell scrap.
My take is Principal is not required to issue Invoice for scrap to registered job worker because JW works on and behalf of principal.
If job worker sells scrap on Principals account and no depression in job charges, Job worker can issue a financial credit note.
If Transaction value = Monetary + Value of scrap(barter) requires Invoicing of scrap from Principal to job worker, then doesnt it contradict 143(5)?
Is my understanding correct or is there any flaw with regards to this.
Thanks