Even though I was reading above posts in last few days, I am not getting convinced with my colleagues asking payment strictly through cash because of their reasoning/s behind such adviceas well as with my other colleagues who are suggesting payment through ITC due to changed legal provisions w.e.f. 01.10.2022.
In other words, I am not convinced with any of these views.
Kindly allow me to explain my conundrum and I request all of you to share your thoughts thereon (Please treat this as pure academic discussion and nothing more):
A. The view which suggests payment strictly through cash (against ITC wrongly availed though not utilised) seems influenced by the fact that there is never any underlying supply and ITC so availed was unlawful / illegal. In other words, this view implies that if there was any other reason for ITC reversal (For example: a blocked credit u/s 17 (5) wrongly availed, which gets detected by Dept. during investigation) can be reversed through ITC. But, I do NOT find any “direct / explicit” legal provision backing such differentiation.In other words, "reasons behind wrongly availed ITC" (i.e. on account of non-fulfilment of conditions u/s 16 or due to blockage u/s 17 (5)) may NOT be determining factor to decide if payment there-against needs to be paid in cash or through utilising ITC balance available.
A1. Furthermore, if subject amount can NOT be called as ‘ITC’ (as there was no underlying supply & same is case of fake invoicing which is main thrust of your arguments / reasoning), there is no question of its recovery using provisions of Section 73 & 74. And if there is no such recovery possible (as credit wrongly availed or utilised), then, only recourse available to Dept. is using Section 122 (i.e. penalty) & Section 132 (i.e. punishment).
A1.1 Again, here, there can NOT be any reversal of ITC (i.e. payment of taxes against ITC wrongly availed) per se OR demand demand interest u/s 50 or penalty u/s 73 or 74.
I request my fellow professional colleagues to throw more light on this please.
B. The view which suggests payment can be made through ITC (against ITC wrongly availed though not utilised) ignores the following legal position:
i). Issues which are highlighted by in Para A1 & A1.1 above equally applies for this view. Besides, please also note the followings:
ii) Section 49 (4) reads as follows: The amount available in the electronic credit ledger may be used for making any payment towards output tax under this Act or under the Integrated Goods and Services Tax Act in such manner and subject to such conditions 6[and restrictions] and within such time as may be prescribed.
iii) Output tax in relation to a taxable person (i.e. a person who is registered or liable to be registered under section 22 or section 24 of the CGST Act) is defined in clause (82) of section 2 of the CGST Act as the tax chargeable on taxable supply of goods or services or both but excludes tax payable on reverse charge mechanism.
iv) Combined reading of above means that the 'Output tax' does NOT mean "ITC wrongly availed".
v) Sub-section (4) & (5) of Section 42 is worth noting, in the context of the discussion:
"(5) The amount in respect of which any discrepancy is communicated under sub-section (3) and which is not rectified by the supplier in his valid return for the month in which discrepancy is communicated shall be added to the output tax liability of the recipient, in such manner as may be prescribed, in his return for the month succeeding the month in which the discrepancy is communicated.
(6) The amount claimed as input tax credit that is found to be in excess on account of duplication of claims shall be added to the output tax liability of the recipient in his return for the month in which the duplication is communicated."
It is worth noting that that above-said Section 42 is omitted vide Finance Act, 2022w.e.f. 01-10-2022.
vi) Serial No. 6 & 7 under Para 2 of Circular 172/04/2022-GST specifically talks about 'Output liability' and, same has NEVER dealt with 'ITC Reversal' per se.
vii) Amended Section 39 (9) w.e.f. 01.10.2022 read as follows:
11[Where] any registered person after furnishing a return under sub-section (1) or sub-section (2) or sub-section (3) or sub-section (4) or sub-section (5) discovers any omission or incorrect particulars therein, other than as a result of scrutiny, audit, inspection or enforcement activity by the tax authorities, he shall rectify such omission or incorrect particulars 5[in such form and manner as may be perscribed], subject to payment of interest under this Act:
Provided that no such rectification of any omission or incorrect particulars shall be allowed after 12[the thirtieth day of November] following 6[the end of the financial year to which such details pertain], or the actual date of furnishing of relevant annual return, whichever is earlier."
viii) Thus, if Dept. detects wrongly availed ITC, then, said Section 39 (9) does NOT even permit correction thereof in subsequent monthly returns (i.e. even if time limit prescribed therein is still available). And issue under discussion here - requiring reversal / payment against wrongly availed ITC - is arising out of investigation carried by Dept.
ix) Prior to 01.10.2022, Section 38 (5) was reading as follows:
(5) Any registered person, who has furnished the details under sub-section (2) for any tax period and which have remained unmatched under section 42 or section 43, shall, upon discovery of any error or omission therein, rectify such error or omission in the tax period during which such error or omission is noticed in such manner as may be prescribed, and shall pay the tax and interest, if any, in case there is a short payment of tax on account of such error or omission, in the return to be furnished for such tax period:
Provided that no rectification of error or omission in respect of the details furnished under sub-section (2) shall be allowed after furnishing of the return under section 39 for the month of September following the end of the financial year to which such details pertain, or furnishing of the relevant annual return, whichever is earlier."
x) Summarising above, I am finding it difficult to accept the view that reversal is possible through / by utilising the balance available in ITC in the scenario under discussion here post 01.10.2022.
I request my fellow professional colleagues to throw more light on this please.
P.S. As said at the start, it is again requested to please treat all this as pure academic discussion/s and nothing more.