Hello Experts,
If a person residing in India charges Consultancy Fees (in USD) from a company in USA, in which he is a director, is it considered to be export of service? There is no employment agreement with such company but there is a consultancy agreement.
I want to know this, so as to decide whether to take benefit of zero rated supply.
Definition u/s 2(6) of IGST act has 5 condition for export of service, one of the 5 conditions is -
'the supplier and recipient of service should not be merely establishments of a distinct person'
Kindly reply considering this condition as other 4 conditions given u/s 2(6) are satisfied by me.
Thank you!


TaxTMI