Hello
An Indian vendor sells goods in Bill to ship to model as follows:
Order received from Singapore company to ship goods to a delhi based company.
vendor sends goods to Delhi based company and bill to singapore company.
Singapore company makes payment of the bill to Vendor.
Now, Singapore company bill to Delhi based company adding a little margin but without GST and Delhi company pays to singapore company based on this invoice.
Is this valid transaction as per GST law , if yes, is there any liability for Delhi company to pay GST under RCM basis.
Regards
TaxTMI