It is my understanding that RCM needs to be paid/settled using hard money, cash, and not paid/adjusted using CENVAT Credit.
But what are the implications in a situation/scenario where it has already been paid/adjusted using CENVAT Credit.
Thank you in advance,
Ankush.
Reverse Charge Mechanism requires payment in cash; using input tax credit for RCM attracts interest and penalty. RCM liabilities must be discharged in cash and not by utilisation of CENVAT/ITC; wrongful use of credit to pay RCM constitutes misuse of input tax credit, attracts interest and penalty, and requires deposit of the tax in cash to regularise the position, with prompt intimation to the tax department potentially leading to leniency where a bona fide mistake is shown. (AI Summary)