Dear Experts,
I would like to discuss on Service Tax applicability under below given scenario:
Suppose, a service provider (say ‘A’) who as ‘pure agent’ has arranged ‘legal consultancy service‘ from Advocate (say ‘B’) for actual receiver of service (say ‘C’). Here, ‘B’ has raised invoice on ‘A’ who in turn has raised an invoice on ‘C’ with actual cost basis and no profit element. The description on invoice appears as ‘reimbursement of legal consultancy service’. Now, the question is who will have to pay service tax.
Here no doubt ‘legal consultancy service’ is covered under reverse charge mechanism. Primarily 'A' has availed or arranged service from 'B' for 'C'. Hence 'A' is just acting as 'Pure Agent' and ultimate receiver of service is 'C'. Hence in my view 'C' is suppose to pay service tax.
Request you all to share your views in this regard.
Thanks.