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Issues: (i) Whether non-compliance with Section 61 of the GST Act read with Rule 99 vitiated the show-cause notice; (ii) Whether invocation of Section 74A(5)(ii) of the GST Act lacked jurisdictional foundation; (iii) Whether writ jurisdiction under Article 226 should be exercised to interdict the show-cause notice at the threshold.
Issue (i): Whether non-compliance with Section 61 of the GST Act read with Rule 99 vitiated the show-cause notice.
Analysis: Section 61 is a pre-adjudicatory mechanism confined to scrutiny of returns. Its procedure, including Rule 99, applies once scrutiny has in fact been initiated and discrepancies are noticed. Proceedings under Section 74A are independent and may be triggered by material obtained through scrutiny, audit, inspection, investigation or other credible independent verification. Here, the notice was founded on independent verification concerning allegedly bogus and non-existent sub-contractors, and not on a scrutiny of the petitioner's returns under Section 61.
Conclusion: Prior scrutiny under Section 61 and compliance with Rule 99 were not jurisdictional preconditions for the notice under Section 74A. The issue was decided against the assessee.
Issue (ii): Whether invocation of Section 74A(5)(ii) of the GST Act lacked jurisdictional foundation.
Analysis: The notice alleged that input tax credit had been availed through fake documents and invoices relating to fictitious entities and without actual underlying supplies. Such allegations prima facie disclose fraudulent availment of input tax credit and satisfy the foundational threshold for initiating action under Section 74A(5)(ii). The truth of those allegations, including the existence and functioning of the sub-contractors and actual execution of work, requires evidentiary adjudication by the statutory authority.
Conclusion: The notice disclosed sufficient jurisdictional facts for invocation of Section 74A(5)(ii). The issue was decided against the assessee.
Issue (iii): Whether writ jurisdiction under Article 226 should be exercised to interdict the show-cause notice at the threshold.
Analysis: A show-cause notice ordinarily does not warrant writ interference unless it is wholly without jurisdiction or falls within recognised exceptional circumstances. The asserted objections involve disputed facts and are available for determination in the statutory adjudication. No infringement of fundamental rights, breach of natural justice, want of jurisdiction, or surviving challenge to statutory validity was established.
Conclusion: No case for threshold interference under Article 226 was made out. The issue was decided against the assessee.
Final Conclusion: The challenge to the notice fails, while all factual and legal defences on the merits of the proposed tax demand remain available before the adjudicating authority.
Ratio Decidendi: Scrutiny of returns is not an invariable condition precedent to proceedings for determination of wrongly availed input tax credit where the proper officer acts on independent material that prima facie discloses fraud or fictitious supplies; disputed factual defences must ordinarily be addressed in statutory adjudication rather than writ jurisdiction.
Issues: (i) Whether the impugned findings rested on grounds beyond the show cause notice; (ii) Whether the authorised courier breached Regulations 13(i) and 13(j) of the Courier Imports and Exports (Clearance) Regulations, 2010; (iii) Whether penalties for attempted improper export and use of a false declaration could be imposed upon the courier for prohibited goods concealed in the export consignment.
Issue (i): Whether the impugned findings rested on grounds beyond the show cause notice.
Analysis: The show cause notice alleged only unauthorised outsourcing and deficient KYC verification by the appellant as an authorised courier. It neither alleged failure to obtain consignor authorisation nor treated the appellant as the consignor or exporter, and did not allege knowing use of a false declaration or conscious participation in the attempted export. Those were material factual and legal foundations of liability, not mere particulars or evidentiary inferences, and could not first be introduced in the adjudication order.
Conclusion: The findings based on consignor/exporter status, failure to obtain consignor authorisation, and knowing participation in the attempted export were beyond the show cause notice and were unsustainable, in favour of the assessee.
Issue (ii): Whether the authorised courier breached Regulations 13(i) and 13(j) of the Courier Imports and Exports (Clearance) Regulations, 2010.
Analysis: Regulation 13(i) requires verification through reliable, independent and authentic material; it does not itself require two identity documents. The genuine driving licence furnished proof of both identity and address, and absence of a second document did not establish a regulatory breach. Regulation 13(j) applies only where a regulatory function required or permitted under the Regulations is outsourced without written permission. Physical collection or pick-up of a consignment is not an assessment or clearance function of an authorised courier, and installation of software at an intermediary's premises did not establish outsourcing of a regulatory function.
Conclusion: Neither the use of one identity document nor outsourcing of physical pick-up established contravention of Regulations 13(i) or 13(j), in favour of the assessee.
Issue (iii): Whether penalties for attempted improper export and use of a false declaration could be imposed upon the courier for prohibited goods concealed in the export consignment.
Analysis: No cogent evidence established that the appellant knew of, participated in, or facilitated the misdeclaration or concealed pseudoephedrine hydrochloride. Filing a courier declaration based on the consignor's information, followed by discovery of ingeniously concealed prohibited goods, did not establish a knowing false declaration. The statutory ingredients of an act or omission rendering goods liable to confiscation under Section 114(i), and knowledge or intent under Section 114AA, were not proved.
Conclusion: Penalties under Sections 114(i) and 114AA of the Customs Act, 1962 were unsustainable, in favour of the assessee.
Final Conclusion: The alleged regulatory breaches and the evidentiary basis for penal liability failed; consequently, the penal action against the appellant could not survive.
Ratio Decidendi: An adjudication order cannot impose liability on material factual or legal grounds absent from the show cause notice, and penal liability of an authorised courier for concealed prohibited goods requires cogent proof of the applicable regulatory breach or knowing involvement.
Issues: (i) Whether release of the cash escrow under Regulation 15B(8) of the Buyback Regulations precludes an independent inquiry or finding of fraud under the PFUTP Regulations; (ii) Whether the fraud finding could be sustained without resolving material discrepancies in the historical trading data and SEBI's investigation reports.
Issue (i): Whether release of the cash escrow under Regulation 15B(8) of the Buyback Regulations precludes an independent inquiry or finding of fraud under the PFUTP Regulations.
Analysis: Regulation 14(3) requires deployment of a stipulated minimum amount for buyback, while Regulation 15B(8) prescribes the escrow-forfeiture consequences of non-compliance and enumerates exceptions to forfeiture. The escrow mechanism is confined to determining entitlement to release or forfeiture and neither defines fraud nor adjudicates its existence. Internal departmental notings are not binding determinations unless approved by the competent authority and communicated as a final order. Fraud under the PFUTP Regulations requires proof from reliable material on the balance of probabilities, assessed from the cumulative surrounding circumstances; it cannot rest on conjecture or suspicion alone.
Conclusion: Release of the escrow under Regulation 15B(8) does not bar an independent fraud inquiry or finding under the PFUTP Regulations. This issue is decided in favour of the appellant.
Issue (ii): Whether the fraud finding could be sustained without resolving material discrepancies in the historical trading data and SEBI's investigation reports.
Analysis: The alleged fraud was founded substantially on historical exchange trading data concerning available sell orders, prevailing prices and placement of buy orders. Material inconsistencies were identified between the investigation material and exchange data, and there was also an unresolved contradiction between the earlier investigation report recording no material price or volume impact from the corporate announcement and the later report alleging fraud. These factual discrepancies go to the evidentiary foundation of the fraud allegation. The statutory appellate forum has powers to obtain evidence, summon and examine relevant persons, and determine these factual matters.
Conclusion: The existing determination on fraud cannot be sustained without adjudicating the material evidentiary discrepancies; the fraud question must be freshly determined by the statutory appellate forum on the basis of accurate trading data and any corroborating circumstances. This issue is decided in favour of the appellant.
Final Conclusion: The escrow-forfeiture regime and the anti-fraud regime operate in separate fields, and a fraud finding must be founded on reliable evidence evaluated on the applicable standard of proof.
Ratio Decidendi: Satisfaction of conditions for release of a buyback escrow does not confer immunity from proceedings for fraudulent or unfair trade practices, which require an independent evidentiary determination on the balance of probabilities.
Issues: (i) Whether the NCLT, New Delhi Bench-II could exercise jurisdiction over a Section 95 application against a personal guarantor when the corporate debtor's CIRP was pending before the NCLT, Chandigarh Bench-II; (ii) Whether Rule 16(d) of the National Company Law Tribunal Rules, 2016 permits transfer of such proceedings between Benches in different territorial locations.
Issue (i): Whether the NCLT, New Delhi Bench-II could exercise jurisdiction over a Section 95 application against a personal guarantor when the corporate debtor's CIRP was pending before the NCLT, Chandigarh Bench-II.
Analysis: Section 60(2) of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016, operating notwithstanding Section 60(1), requires an insolvency or bankruptcy application concerning a personal guarantor to be filed before the same NCLT where the corporate debtor's CIRP or liquidation is pending. The provision mandates consolidation before one Adjudicating Authority to secure consistency and avoid parallel or conflicting proceedings.
Conclusion: In favour of the Appellant. The NCLT, New Delhi Bench-II lacked territorial and inherent jurisdiction over the Section 95 proceedings, which were coram non judice and non-est in law.
Issue (ii): Whether Rule 16(d) of the National Company Law Tribunal Rules, 2016 permits transfer of such proceedings between Benches in different territorial locations.
Analysis: Rule 16(d), read with Rule 2(7) of the National Company Law Tribunal Rules, 2016 and Section 60(2) of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016, empowers the President of the NCLT to transfer a case from one Bench to another when circumstances warrant. This power is not confined to transfers within the same territorial jurisdiction where transfer is required to give effect to the mandatory forum prescribed by Section 60(2).
Conclusion: In favour of the Appellant. The restrictive interpretation limiting Rule 16(d) to intra-territorial transfers was incorrect.
Final Conclusion: Proceedings against the personal guarantor must be instituted before the NCLT, Chandigarh Bench-II, being the Adjudicating Authority where the corporate debtor's CIRP was pending; the creditor remains at liberty to pursue proceedings before the competent forum in accordance with law.
Ratio Decidendi: Where the corporate debtor's CIRP or liquidation is pending before an NCLT, Section 60(2) of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 mandatorily fixes the forum for personal-guarantor insolvency proceedings at that same NCLT, and Rule 16(d) permits inter-Bench transfer to enforce that mandate.
Issues: Whether the direction requiring repayment of the amount released to the complainant under Section 148 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 was liable to be set aside because it was made by the trial court rather than the appellate court.
Analysis: The proviso to Section 148(3) mandates repayment, with stipulated interest, of an amount released to the complainant where the appellant is acquitted. The complainant had also undertaken before the appellate court to repay the amount subject to disposal of the appeal. Although the refund direction ought ordinarily to have been made by the appellate court, the subsequent deposit of the amount pursuant to court directions and the complainant's failure to comply promptly did not justify interference with the refund direction.
Conclusion: Upon acquittal of the accused, the complainant was bound to repay the released amount, and the refund direction was sustained against the petitioner.
Issues: (i) Whether the refund rejection was vitiated by a vague show cause notice and by the appellate authority relying on grounds outside that notice; (ii) Whether refund of unutilised input tax credit under Section 54(3) could be denied for alleged ineligibility of credit without a prior determination under Sections 73 or 74.
Issue (i): Whether the refund rejection was vitiated by a vague show cause notice and by the appellate authority relying on grounds outside that notice.
Analysis: The show cause notice merely stated that the refund involved wrong input tax credit and specified a consolidated amount, without identifying the invoices, nature, or basis of the alleged ineligibility. Such lack of particulars denied a meaningful opportunity to meet the case. The original order also lacked reasoned findings. The appellate order introduced the separate ground that the goods or services were not used in furtherance of business, although that ground was absent from the notice.
Conclusion: The notice and consequential proceedings were vitiated for breach of natural justice, and the appellate authority could not sustain rejection on grounds beyond the show cause notice. This issue is decided in favour of the assessee.
Issue (ii): Whether refund of unutilised input tax credit under Section 54(3) could be denied for alleged ineligibility of credit without a prior determination under Sections 73 or 74.
Analysis: Section 54(3) and Rule 89(5) govern refund of accumulated credit, whereas a determination that credit was wrongly availed or utilised must be made through proceedings under Sections 73 or 74. The applicable circular requires a notice and adjudication under Section 54 read with Sections 73 or 74 where refund is proposed to be rejected because the underlying credit is ineligible. In the absence of such proceedings, the eligibility of credit already availed could not be reopened while processing the refund claim.
Conclusion: A refund application under Section 54(3) cannot be rejected on the ground of ineligible input tax credit unless an order under Sections 73 or 74 has determined that the credit was wrongly availed or utilised. This issue is decided in favour of the assessee.
Final Conclusion: The denial of refund lacked both a valid foundational notice and the requisite statutory determination of credit ineligibility.
Ratio Decidendi: Where tax credit has not been disallowed through the statutory recovery mechanism, its eligibility cannot be adjudicated collaterally in refund proceedings, and a refund rejection must remain within the grounds disclosed in a specific show cause notice.
Issues: Whether the Revenue's appeal challenging the deletion of interest demand was maintainable where the disputed interest was below the prescribed monetary threshold for appeals before the GSTAT.
Analysis: Circular No. 207/1/2024-GST, issued under Sections 120 and 168 of the Central Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017, fixes a threshold of Rs. 20 lakh for departmental appeals before the GSTAT. For an interest-only dispute, the amount of disputed interest is the relevant amount. The disputed interest was Rs. 7,35,714, and the matter did not fall within any stated exclusion from the monetary-limit policy.
Conclusion: The Revenue's appeal was not maintainable, as the disputed interest was below the applicable monetary threshold; the issue was decided in favour of the assessee.
Issues: Whether the first appellate authority may refer a GST appeal back to the original adjudicating authority for verification of documents and consequential redetermination of demand under Section 107(11) of the CGST/KGST Acts, 2017.
Analysis: Section 107(11) permits the appellate authority, after such further inquiry as it considers necessary, only to confirm, modify, or annul the order under appeal, and expressly prohibits referral of the case back to the adjudicating authority. The appellate authority must itself obtain and verify the necessary documents, determine the points in issue, and render a reasoned merits decision in accordance with Section 107(12) and principles of natural justice. A direction to the original authority to verify evidence and delete or reconfirm demand upon such verification amounts to an impermissible remand and exceeds appellate jurisdiction.
Conclusion: The issue is answered in favour of Revenue. The direction referring the unresolved demand for verification by the original adjudicating authority is void and unsustainable; the first appellate authority must undertake the verification and decide the appeal on its own merits.
Issues: (i) Whether the appellate authority may remand a matter to the original adjudicating authority for verification of documents and consequential deletion of demand under Section 107 of the CGST/KGST Acts, 2017; (ii) Whether an appellate order directing such verification without finally confirming, modifying or annulling the demand is legally sustainable.
Issue (i): Whether the appellate authority may remand a matter to the original adjudicating authority for verification of documents and consequential deletion of demand under Section 107 of the CGST/KGST Acts, 2017.
Analysis: Section 107(11) permits the appellate authority to make further inquiry and thereafter confirm, modify or annul the appealed order, while expressly prohibiting reference of the case back to the original adjudicating authority. The authority may call for and verify records and documents itself, but cannot delegate that adjudicatory exercise to the original authority.
Conclusion: The appellate authority has no power to remand the matter to the original adjudicating authority for verification of evidence or determination of the demand. The issue is decided in favour of the Revenue.
Issue (ii): Whether an appellate order directing such verification without finally confirming, modifying or annulling the demand is legally sustainable.
Analysis: Section 107(12) requires a written appellate order stating the points for determination, decision and reasons. An order directing the original authority to verify documents and delete demand if appropriate neither reaches a final adjudication nor adopts any of the statutorily permitted courses under Section 107(11). Such direction grants an impermissible second opportunity to the original authority.
Conclusion: The direction referring the matter to the original adjudicating authority is void, illegal and beyond jurisdiction. The issue is decided in favour of the Revenue.
Final Conclusion: The first appellate authority must conduct any necessary inquiry itself and adjudicate the appeal on merits by a reasoned order within the statutory alternatives of confirmation, modification or annulment.
Ratio Decidendi: Where a statute authorises an appellate authority to conduct further inquiry but expressly bars referral to the original adjudicating authority, the appellate authority must itself finally decide the appeal and cannot remand it for verification or fresh adjudication.
Issues: (i) Whether the Department's appeal against the Order-in-Original was barred by limitation or otherwise not maintainable? (ii) Whether the appellant satisfied the substantive requirements of Notification No. 102/2007-Cus. for refund of Rs.5,02,579/-, notwithstanding the generic description of the goods in the sale invoices and the sales effected through consignment agents?
Issue (i): Whether the Department's appeal against the Order-in-Original was barred by limitation or otherwise not maintainable?
Analysis: Under Section 129D of the Customs Act, 1962, limitation was to be determined from the date on which the departmental appeal was originally filed. The record showed that the review order was passed and the appeal was filed in 2010; its subsequent placement in the call book and renumbering upon recall in 2012 did not amount to a fresh institution of the appeal.
Conclusion: The departmental appeal was not barred by limitation. This issue is against the assessee.
Issue (ii): Whether the appellant satisfied the substantive requirements of Notification No. 102/2007-Cus. for refund of Rs.5,02,579/-, notwithstanding the generic description of the goods in the sale invoices and the sales effected through consignment agents?
Analysis: Notification No. 102/2007-Cus. required payment of SAD at import, subsequent sale of the imported goods on payment of VAT/CST, and prescribed documentary proof. The refund sanction was based on verified Bills of Entry, sale invoices, VAT/CST evidence, reconciliation, and a Chartered Accountant's certificate. A generic description of plastic granules in sale invoices, without positive material showing that the goods sold differed from those imported, did not disprove correlation. The documentary correlation and Chartered Accountant's certification could not be displaced merely by variations in grade nomenclature.
Analysis: Circular No. 16/2008-Cus. recognises consignment-agent sales where the agent is authorised to sell on behalf of the importer and VAT/CST payment and its correlation with SAD-paid imports are certified. No specific transaction was identified as involving unpaid VAT/CST, different goods, or an unreliable certificate. Consignment sales, therefore, did not independently warrant denial of refund. The statutory conditions and contemporaneous documents prevailed over unsupported nomenclature-based objections and material of limited evidentiary value.
Conclusion: The substantive conditions for SAD refund were satisfied and the refund was rightly admissible. This issue is in favour of the assessee.
Final Conclusion: The refund sanction remains operative, and recovery founded solely on the order denying that refund cannot survive.
Ratio Decidendi: A SAD refund cannot be denied solely because domestic sale invoices use a generic description instead of the precise imported grade, where contemporaneous records, reconciliation, and reliable certification establish subsequent sale of the imported goods and payment of applicable VAT/CST.
Issues: Whether an alleged deficiency in verification of an exporter's antecedents and KYC particulars, without evidence linking the Customs Broker to substitution or attempted export of prohibited goods, attracts penalty under Sections 114(i) and 117 of the Customs Act, 1962.
Analysis: Section 114(i) requires an identifiable act, omission or abetment having a statutory nexus with the goods becoming liable to confiscation. The Customs Broker had obtained authorisation, verified the exporter's IEC through DGFT and ICEGATE, and examined a previous shipping bill. There was no evidence of its participation in stuffing, transport, substitution, tampering, false documentation, collusion, control of the container, or facilitation of the prohibited export. A deficiency in antecedent or KYC verification, without further material connecting the broker with the offending operation, was only a regulatory lapse and did not establish the required nexus. Section 117, as a residuary penalty provision, could not apply without an independently established contravention of a statutory obligation.
Conclusion: The alleged KYC/antecedent verification deficiency did not attract penalty under Section 114(i) of the Customs Act, 1962, and could not independently sustain penalty under Section 117 of the Customs Act, 1962.
Issues: (i) Correct tariff classification of the temperature sensors, gas-analysis sensors, brake-pedal sensor, ultrasonic-sensor retainer, and speed sensor; (ii) Validity of reclassifying 36 sensors under Section 28 where no differential duty was demanded; (iii) Entitlement to alternative FTA benefits and the revenue-neutrality plea for four reclassified goods; (iv) Revenue-neutrality of differential IGST on two goods through available input tax credit; (v) Invocation of the extended period of limitation for four goods; (vi) Liability to interest on differential IGST for imports preceding 16.08.2024.
Issue (i): Correct tariff classification of the temperature sensors, gas-analysis sensors, brake-pedal sensor, ultrasonic-sensor retainer, and speed sensor.
Analysis: Classification was governed by the objective characteristics and function of the article as imported, under Rules 1 and 6 of the General Rules for Interpretation. Revenue bore the burden of establishing a classification different from that declared. A specific tariff entry prevails over the residuary Heading 9031.
Analysis: The temperature sensors merely transmitted thermistor resistance signals to the ECU, without evidence that their internal circuitry independently converted or calibrated those signals into a temperature value; they therefore retained the essential character of thermistors. The oxygen, air-fuel-ratio and nitrogen-oxide sensors used electrochemical cells to determine the concentration of identified constituents in exhaust gas and consequently performed gas-analysis functions. The brake-pedal assembly detected pedal position and movement but neither applied braking force nor automatically regulated braking, and was consequently a measuring or checking instrument excluded from vehicle-parts classification. The specially moulded ultrasonic-sensor retainer was not proved to be a part of general use and was suitable solely or principally for motor vehicles. The speed sensor detected magnetic-field variation and generated a digital signal, while speed was calculated only subsequently by the ECU; it was therefore an electrical apparatus having an individual function rather than a measuring instrument.
Conclusion: In favour of the assessee, the three temperature sensors are classifiable under Tariff Item 8533 4030; the oxygen, air-fuel-ratio and nitrogen-oxide sensors under Tariff Item 9027 1000; the brake-pedal sensor assembly under Tariff Item 9031 8000; the ultrasonic-sensor retainer under Tariff Item 8708 9900; and the speed sensor under Tariff Item 8543 7099.
Issue (ii): Validity of reclassifying 36 sensors under Section 28 where no differential duty was demanded.
Analysis: Classification is integral to assessment, and the statutory definition includes a nil-duty assessment. Section 28 is a mechanism to determine and recover duty that was not levied, paid, or was short-levied or short-paid; it cannot be used solely to alter the classification in a completed assessment where no duty recovery is proposed. After clearance, reassessment or alteration requires an independent statutory source of power.
Conclusion: In favour of the assessee, the proposed reclassification of the 36 sensors is beyond the scope of Section 28 and is set aside.
Issue (iii): Entitlement to alternative FTA benefits and the revenue-neutrality plea for four reclassified goods.
Analysis: An otherwise available exemption cannot be denied merely because it was not initially claimed, but eligibility for alternative preferential tariff treatment requires examination of the notification conditions, certificates of origin, and other foundational facts. Revenue neutrality based on an alternate exemption must be established and cannot rest on a hypothetical entitlement.
Conclusion: Entitlement to the alternative FTA benefits, and the consequential plea of revenue neutrality, requires fresh determination by the Original Authority.
Issue (iv): Revenue-neutrality of differential IGST on two goods through available input tax credit.
Analysis: Revenue neutrality does not ordinarily extinguish a substantive duty liability and must be established. In the peculiar circumstances, including the nominal amount involved and the asserted availability of input tax credit, the plea was accepted without remand.
Conclusion: In favour of the assessee, the differential IGST demand on the two goods is set aside.
Issue (v): Invocation of the extended period of limitation for four goods.
Analysis: A wrong classification or inconsistent classifications under self-assessment, even by an AEO Tier-3 importer, does not by itself establish collusion, wilful misstatement, or suppression with intent to evade duty. Cogent evidence of a positive act indicating wilful default is required. The disclosed Bills of Entry and the interpretational nature of the dispute did not establish the requisite intent.
Conclusion: In favour of the assessee, the extended-period demand for the four goods is barred by limitation; any liability within the normal period remains governed by the original order.
Issue (vi): Liability to interest on differential IGST for imports preceding 16.08.2024.
Analysis: Before its substitution on 16.08.2024, Section 3(12) of the Customs Tariff Act, 1975 did not incorporate the Customs Act provisions concerning interest for IGST. Interest cannot be levied without a substantive charging or borrowing provision.
Conclusion: In favour of the assessee, no interest is payable on the differential IGST for the period in dispute.
Final Conclusion: The declared classifications are restored for the nine contested articles, the duty consequences of impermissible reclassification and time-barred demands are removed, and the unresolved preferential-duty entitlement is left for fresh statutory examination.
Issues: Whether an operational creditor's application for initiation of CIRP could be maintained when a genuine pre-existing dispute concerning the alleged operational debt existed before issuance of the demand notice.
Analysis: Section 9 requires rejection where the operational creditor has received a notice of dispute or the Information Utility records a dispute. The material showed that, before the Section 8 demand notice, the corporate debtor had issued a legal notice denying the underlying purchase orders and supplies, raised allegations of fraudulent transactions, initiated related complaints, and recorded the debt as disputed with the Information Utility. The disputes concerned the foundation and genuineness of the transactions, including purchase orders, invoices, deliveries and payments, and required detailed factual adjudication in the pending civil proceedings. Such contentions were neither spurious nor illusory and could not be resolved in summary insolvency proceedings.
Conclusion: The pre-existing dispute barred initiation of CIRP under Section 9, in favour of the corporate debtor.
Issues: (i) Whether service tax paid on commission to recovery/collection agents is admissible as CENVAT credit on an input service; (ii) Whether the extended period of limitation was validly invoked; (iii) Whether the penalties imposed are sustainable.
Issue (i): Whether service tax paid on commission to recovery/collection agents is admissible as CENVAT credit on an input service.
Analysis: Rule 3(1) of the CENVAT Credit Rules, 2004 permits credit of tax paid on an input service. Under Rule 2(l), input service includes a service used for providing output service. Lending is a continuing commercial activity that does not end with disbursement; recovery of defaulted instalments and enforcement of hypothecated security are inherent and inseparable incidents of extending credit. Recovery-agent services are therefore used for providing the lending service. The coordinate-Bench view on materially identical facts was required to be followed in the absence of grounds for Larger-Bench reconsideration. The services also bear a direct relation to security and financing under the inclusive limb of the definition.
Conclusion: CENVAT credit of service tax paid on commission to recovery/collection agents is admissible as credit on an eligible input service, in favour of the assessee.
Issue (ii): Whether the extended period of limitation was validly invoked.
Analysis: The proviso to Section 73(1) of the Finance Act, 1994 requires fraud, collusion, wilful misstatement, suppression of facts, or contravention with intent to evade tax. Mere omission or an interpretation subsequently rejected does not meet that threshold. The absence of a service-wise break-up in returns, particularly where the credit was reflected and the prescribed form did not require such break-up, did not establish deliberate concealment. The divergent views concerning eligibility of recovery-agent services demonstrated a genuine interpretational dispute.
Conclusion: The extended period was not validly invokable, and the demand beyond the normal limitation period is time-barred, in favour of the assessee.
Issue (iii): Whether the penalties imposed are sustainable.
Analysis: Penalty under Rule 15(3) of the CENVAT Credit Rules, 2004 and Section 78 of the Finance Act, 1994 requires a foundation of inadmissible credit and culpable suppression. The penalties under Section 76 of the Finance Act, 1994 were also consequential to the credit demand. Since the credit was eligible and suppression with intent to evade was not established, that foundation was absent.
Conclusion: The penalties are unsustainable, in favour of the assessee.
Final Conclusion: The denial of credit, the time-barred demand, and the associated penal consequences lack legal basis.
Ratio Decidendi: Recovery and enforcement services engaged by an NBFC for defaulted loan instalments are integral to its lending activity and qualify as input services for CENVAT credit.
Issues: (i) Whether denial of exemption under Notification No. 12/2012-CE on the ground of alleged non-fulfilment of conditions under Notification No. 12/2012-Cus is legally sustainable? (ii) Whether the consequential duty demand, interest and penalties confirmed under the impugned order are sustainable in law?
Issue (i): Whether denial of exemption under Notification No. 12/2012-CE on the ground of alleged non-fulfilment of conditions under Notification No. 12/2012-Cus is legally sustainable?
Analysis: Serial No. 336 of the central excise notification grants exemption to supplies under International Competitive Bidding subject to Condition No. 41, which imports applicable customs conditions mutatis mutandis. That expression incorporates only conditions capable of application to domestic clearances, and does not mechanically transplant import-specific procedural requirements onto an indigenous manufacturer. The eligible project, actual end use, and authenticity of the Project Authority Certificate were undisputed. As the substantive eligibility requirements were fulfilled, procedural requirements framed for import transactions could not defeat the exemption or the object of preserving parity between imported and domestically manufactured goods.
Conclusion: Denial of the exemption was legally unsustainable and the assessee was entitled to the exemption.
Issue (ii): Whether the consequential duty demand, interest and penalties confirmed under the impugned order are sustainable in law?
Analysis: The duty demand was wholly derivative of the denial of exemption. Payment under protest could not validate an unsustainable demand. Interest under Section 11AA presupposes a legally recoverable principal duty liability. Further, the clearances were made under the claimed exemption after prior intimation and production of the Project Authority Certificate; in the absence of suppression or clandestine removal, and where the dispute was interpretational, penalties under Rule 25 were not attracted.
Conclusion: The duty demand, consequential interest, and penalties were unsustainable and were required to be set aside in full, in favour of the assessee.
Final Conclusion: The eligible International Competitive Bidding supplies remained exempt, with no surviving central excise duty, interest, or penal liability.
Ratio Decidendi: A mutatis mutandis incorporation of customs-notification conditions into an excise exemption applies only conditions capable of operation for domestic supplies; import-specific procedural requirements cannot override undisputed substantive eligibility for exemption.
Issues: (i) Whether the appellant is entitled to avail CENVAT credit of CVD paid on capital goods imported by CECL, a separate legal entity? (ii) Whether the confirmation of demand of Rs. 8,13,91,044/- together with interest and penalty under the impugned order is legally sustainable in law?
Issue (i): Whether the appellant is entitled to avail CENVAT credit of CVD paid on capital goods imported by CECL, a separate legal entity?
Analysis: Under Rules 3(1) and 4(3) of the CENVAT Credit Rules, 2004, credit is available only to the legally eligible manufacturer or service provider in the statutorily prescribed manner. CECL imported the capital goods, paid the CVD, held the Bills of Entry, and owned the power plant. Majority shareholding, captive consumption of electricity, and economic integration do not extinguish CECL's separate juristic personality or transfer its statutory credit entitlement to the appellant. The Rules do not permit cross-entity availment of credit merely on functional nexus, revenue neutrality, or commercial convenience.
Conclusion: The appellant was not entitled to avail CENVAT credit of CVD paid on capital goods imported by CECL. The issue is decided against the assessee.
Issue (ii): Whether the confirmation of demand of Rs. 8,13,91,044/- together with interest and penalty under the impugned order is legally sustainable in law?
Analysis: Since the disputed credit was inadmissible, its recovery follows under Rule 14 of the CENVAT Credit Rules, 2004 read with Section 11A of the Central Excise Act, 1944. Revenue neutrality cannot validate credit availed without statutory authority. Statutory interest follows the wrongful availment, and the equal penalty under Rule 15(2) of the CENVAT Credit Rules, 2004 read with Section 11AC of the Central Excise Act, 1944 was sustained on the facts.
Conclusion: The demand of Rs. 8,13,91,044/-, with applicable interest and equal penalty, is legally sustainable. The issue is decided against the assessee.
Final Conclusion: CENVAT credit linked to duty paid on imported capital goods remains available only to the legally entitled importing entity and cannot be claimed by a distinct corporate entity on the basis of captive use or common economic control.
Ratio Decidendi: Statutory CENVAT credit cannot be transferred between separate corporate entities absent an express statutory mechanism, notwithstanding their shareholding relationship, economic integration, or captive business arrangement.
Issues: (i) Whether rejection of the claim for interest on sanctioned refund on grounds of delay and laches under the Limitation Act, 1963 was sustainable; (ii) Whether the duty payments and contemporaneous electronic refund claims were voluntary payments at the assessee's peril or payments under protest made with departmental knowledge; (iii) Whether the contemporaneous electronic claims or the subsequent Form R claim constituted the application under Section 11B(1) of the Central Excise Act, 1944 for reckoning the three-month period under Section 11BB; and (iv) Whether interest under Section 11BB was payable on the sanctioned refunds and, if so, for what period.
Issue (i): Whether rejection of the claim for interest on sanctioned refund on grounds of delay and laches under the Limitation Act, 1963 was sustainable.
Analysis: Section 11BB of the Central Excise Act, 1944 imposes an automatic and self-executing obligation to pay interest where refund is delayed beyond three months. A request for such interest merely invokes that statutory obligation and does not institute a fresh, time-barred cause of action. Failure to appeal the refund sanction orders or to file cross-objections could not defeat the entitlement where those orders contained no determination on interest. The departmental appeal against the principal refund also remained pending for part of the period treated as delay.
Conclusion: Rejection of interest on grounds of limitation, delay and laches was unsustainable and is set aside in favour of the assessee.
Issue (ii): Whether the duty payments and contemporaneous electronic refund claims were voluntary payments at the assessee's peril or payments under protest made with departmental knowledge.
Analysis: The interim restraint operated against the Department and did not prohibit payment of duty under protest, a course protected by the second proviso to Section 11B(1) of the Central Excise Act, 1944. The Department accepted the registration, protest payments and electronic claims over several years without objection, reservation or recourse to the High Court. It could not subsequently rely on its own inaction to characterize the payments as voluntary.
Conclusion: The payments and contemporaneous electronic claims were made under protest with departmental knowledge, not voluntarily at the assessee's peril; the contrary finding is set aside in favour of the assessee.
Issue (iii): Whether the contemporaneous electronic claims or the subsequent Form R claim constituted the application under Section 11B(1) of the Central Excise Act, 1944 for reckoning the three-month period under Section 11BB.
Analysis: The second proviso to Section 11B(1) recognizes refund claims relating to duty paid under protest while the underlying levy remains disputed. Section 11BB measures interest from receipt of the application under Section 11B(1), and the relevant-date definition in Clause (ec) of Explanation (B) to Section 11B governs only the limitation for filing a refund application, not postponement of interest. The electronically filed claims were received without deficiency memo or objection; the later physical Form R filing was only an administrative reiteration of claims already on record.
Conclusion: The contemporaneous electronic claims constituted the applications under Section 11B(1) for computing interest under Section 11BB; Form R was only a physical reiteration of those claims, in favour of the assessee.
Issue (iv): Whether interest under Section 11BB was payable on the sanctioned refunds and, if so, for what period.
Analysis: Since the refunds corresponded to the amounts paid and claimed under protest, there was no unascertained quantification preventing the running of interest. Interest must run after expiry of three months from receipt of each corresponding electronic claim until the date on which the refund was actually sanctioned. Exact dates of receipt require verification from departmental records.
Conclusion: The assessee is entitled to interest under Section 11BB from the day following expiry of three months from receipt of each electronic claim until 05.05.2015, subject to verification and quantification by the refund sanctioning authority.
Final Conclusion: The orders denying statutory interest are displaced, and the matter is returned solely for verification of the electronic-claim receipt dates and calculation and sanction of the consequential interest in accordance with natural justice.
Ratio Decidendi: Interest under Section 11BB on refund of duty paid under protest runs from expiry of three months after receipt of the valid refund application, and cannot be postponed to a subsequent judicial determination or physical reiteration of an unobjected electronic claim.
Issues: Whether dismissal of the statutory appeal as time-barred was sustainable where the show-cause notice and adjudication order were uploaded only under the 'Additional Notice and Orders' tab without separate intimation.
Analysis: The materials indicated that the relevant notice and adjudication order were uploaded only in the specified portal tab and that no separate intimation was given. This prevented the petitioner from responding to the proceedings. As the appellate authority dismissed the appeal solely on limitation without considering its merits, the circumstances disclosed a violation of the principles of natural justice warranting interference.
Conclusion: The limitation-based appellate order was quashed, and the appeal was required to be admitted and decided afresh on merits after affording an opportunity of hearing.
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1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
(1) Whether the notice issued under section 148 for assessment year 2015-16 on 21.04.2021 was barred by limitation and invalid in view of the amended reassessment regime, section 149, and the operation of TOLA, as interpreted by the Jurisdictional High Court and the Supreme Court.
(2) Whether, upon the notice under section 148 for assessment year 2015-16 being held invalid, the consequential reassessment order under section 147 read with section 144B and the quantum additions made therein could survive.
(3) Whether penalties imposed for assessment year 2015-16 under sections 271(1)(c), 271A and 271F could be sustained when the underlying reassessment order itself was quashed as void ab initio.
(4) For assessment years 2013-14, 2014-15 and 2016-17, whether the cash deposits/credits in the assessee's bank accounts could be taxed substantially as unexplained money under section 69A, or only the profit element was taxable by estimating net profit on such deposits treated as business turnover.
(5) For assessment years 2013-14, 2014-15 and 2016-17, what rate of net profit should be reasonably applied on the bank deposits (treated as business turnover) of a brass trading commission agent in the absence of regular books, and whether such income is taxable at normal rates or under section 115BBE.
(6) For assessment years 2013-14 and 2014-15, whether penalty under section 271(1)(c) was leviable where the additions were made only on estimated net profit rates on turnover/deposits.
(7) For assessment year 2013-14, whether penalty under section 271A for failure to maintain books of account was exigible when the assessee was a small taxpayer eligible to file under the presumptive scheme of section 44AD and thus not statutorily obliged to maintain books under section 44AA.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue (1): Validity and limitation of notice under section 148 for A.Y. 2015-16 issued on 21.04.2021
Legal framework discussed
(a) The Tribunal considered the limitation for issuance of notice under section 148 for assessment year 2015-16 in light of the amended reassessment scheme operative from 01.04.2021, section 149, and the relaxation provisions under TOLA.
(b) The Tribunal relied on the decision of the Jurisdictional High Court in Gordhanbhai Devjibhai Kapadia v. ITO, which in turn referred to and applied the ratio and concessions recorded by the Supreme Court in Union of India v. Rajeev Bansal, Deepak Steel and Power Ltd. v. CBDT, and other allied decisions.
Interpretation and reasoning
(c) The Tribunal noted that the impugned notice under section 148 was issued on 21.04.2021 for assessment year 2015-16.
(d) It recorded that, as per the Jurisdictional High Court in Gordhanbhai Devjibhai Kapadia, for assessment year 2015-16 the time limit for issuing reassessment notice under the amended section 149 stood exhausted, and notices issued during the extended period under TOLA (01.04.2021 to 30.06.2021) were invalid.
(e) The Tribunal reproduced and relied upon the reasoning of the High Court that, in view of the Supreme Court's decision in Rajeev Bansal and the concession of the Revenue recorded therein, all notices for assessment year 2015-16 issued on or after 01.04.2021 were required to be dropped as they could not be completed within the prescribed period under TOLA.
(f) The Tribunal rejected the Revenue's contention that the assessee's participation in assessment proceedings should preclude the assessee from raising this legal objection, holding that the question of limitation and validity of jurisdictional notice is a pure legal issue and controlling precedent of the Jurisdictional High Court has to be followed.
Conclusions
(g) The Tribunal held that the notice under section 148 dated 21.04.2021 for assessment year 2015-16 was issued beyond the permissible period and was therefore time barred and invalid.
(h) It held the notice under section 148 for assessment year 2015-16 to be void and without jurisdiction in view of the binding jurisdictional precedent.
Issue (2): Consequence of invalid notice on reassessment order and quantum additions for A.Y. 2015-16
Interpretation and reasoning
(a) Having found the section 148 notice for assessment year 2015-16 invalid, the Tribunal considered the effect on the reassessment order passed under section 147 read with section 144B on 27.05.2023 and on the additions made under section 69A and the taxability under section 115BBE.
(b) The Tribunal applied the principle that where the foundational jurisdictional notice is void, all consequential proceedings and orders based upon it are vitiated.
Conclusions
(c) The Tribunal quashed the reassessment order dated 27.05.2023 passed under section 147 read with section 144B for assessment year 2015-16 as void ab initio.
(d) In consequence, all issues on the merits of additions for assessment year 2015-16, including characterization of deposits as unexplained money under section 69A and applicability of section 115BBE, were held to be academic and infructuous and were not adjudicated.
Issue (3): Sustainability of penalties under sections 271(1)(c), 271A and 271F for A.Y. 2015-16 when reassessment is quashed
Interpretation and reasoning
(a) The Tribunal observed that all the penalties for assessment year 2015-16 had been imposed with reference to the reassessment order which stood quashed as void ab initio.
(b) It invoked the legal maxim "sublato fundamento cadit opus" to hold that once the very foundation (reassessment order) is removed, the entire superstructure of consequential penalty proceedings falls.
(c) It held that where the assessment itself is non est in law, penalties founded upon such assessment cannot survive.
Conclusions
(d) The Tribunal quashed and deleted the penalties imposed for assessment year 2015-16 under: (i) section 271(1)(c); (ii) section 271A; and (iii) section 271F, holding them to be void as consequential to an invalid reassessment.
Issue (4): Characterization of cash deposits/credits in bank accounts for A.Ys. 2013-14, 2014-15, 2016-17 - unexplained money u/s 69A vs. business turnover with only profit taxable
Legal framework (as discussed)
(a) The Tribunal considered section 69A (unexplained money) and the principle that mere bank deposits, when explained as business receipts with supporting evidences, cannot automatically be treated as unexplained income on a standalone basis if corresponding withdrawals and trading pattern support a business explanation.
Interpretation and reasoning
(b) For assessment years 2013-14, 2014-15 and 2016-17, the assessee had substantial cash deposits/credits in three ICICI Bank accounts across various locations in India, with withdrawals at Jamnagar claimed to be for purchase of brass items.
(c) The assessee stated that he was engaged in trading in brass items on commission basis, that customers deposited sale proceeds directly into the bank accounts from different cities, and that the assessee immediately withdrew cash to purchase brass items.
(d) During the assessment and appellate proceedings, the assessee furnished bank statements, sample sale invoices, details of customers and deposit entries, and other materials to authenticate the existence of business and to show that deposits represented sale proceeds or business turnover.
(e) The Tribunal noted that neither the Assessing Officer nor the Commissioner (Appeals) disputed the existence of the brass trading business or the assessee's role as a commission agent, nor did they hold the evidences produced to be bogus.
(f) The Tribunal observed that there were regular and substantial withdrawals corresponding to deposits, leaving negligible balances, consistent with a trading pattern and not with unexplained cash accumulation.
(g) The Tribunal referred to a prior decision of the same Bench (as cited before it and confirmed by the High Court and Supreme Court) where, in comparable circumstances of deposits and withdrawals in bank accounts linked to trading activities, it was held that deposits cannot be treated as income on a standalone basis without considering withdrawals, and that only the profit element should be taxed.
(h) The Tribunal held that gross credits in business bank accounts cannot be treated in toto as income when the business explanation and supporting evidences are broadly accepted and not disproved.
(i) It therefore rejected the approach of treating a large portion of deposits as unexplained money under section 69A and held that deposits should be considered as representing turnover/business receipts, on which a reasonable net profit has to be estimated.
Conclusions
(j) The Tribunal concluded that, for assessment years 2013-14, 2014-15 and 2016-17, the cash deposits/credits in the assessee's bank accounts are to be treated as business turnover of a brass trading commission agent, and not as unexplained money under section 69A to the extent determined by the lower authorities.
(k) Only the profit element on such turnover is to be brought to tax on an estimated net profit basis; the deposits themselves are not the assessee's income in full.
Issue (5): Reasonable net profit rate on bank deposits/turnover and head/rate of tax for A.Ys. 2013-14, 2014-15, 2016-17
Interpretation and reasoning
(a) The assessee voluntarily declared income at 2% of the total credits/deposits for each relevant year, claiming that in similar brass commission/trading cases, 2%-5% had been accepted by appellate authorities as a reasonable net profit rate.
(b) The Assessing Officer, citing absence of regular books and full documentary support, rejected the assessee's 2% rate and, for A.Y. 2016-17, treated 25% of deposits as unexplained money under section 69A; the Commissioner (Appeals), while accepting that most deposits were business receipts, estimated 10% of deposits as unexplained money and thus upheld additions of 10% of deposits (and 5% in some earlier years) to safeguard the interests of Revenue.
(c) The Tribunal accepted that there is no fixed or standard profit margin in this line of brass trading/commission business; profits can vary between 0.5% and 5% depending on products and business model.
(d) It took note that the assessee was effectively acting as an agent/commission agent, that prices were competitive and open in the market, and that it would be difficult for such an agent to earn a very high margin, especially when comparable data indicated lower margins.
(e) The Tribunal observed that the assessee had produced a chart of average net profit rates of comparable entities in similar business; these indicated that margins in the range of 2%-5% were typical, and that in other similar cases the Tribunal had accepted net profit rates between 2% and 5% on bank credits treated as turnover.
(f) At the same time, the Tribunal also considered that the assessee had not maintained regular books and there were certain inconsistencies and incomplete documentation, warranting some upward adjustment over the 2% claimed.
(g) Balancing these factors, and to account for possible deficiencies in record keeping while not unduly inflating income, the Tribunal held that adoption of a 3% net profit rate on total cash deposits/credits in the bank accounts would meet the ends of justice.
(h) It directed that such net profit so computed should be treated as business income taxable at the normal rates applicable under the Act, instead of invoking section 69A read with section 115BBE on the gross credits or on a higher deemed portion.
(i) It further clarified that this estimation at 3% is made on the peculiar facts of this case and is not to be treated as a binding precedent for other years.
Conclusions
(j) For assessment years 2013-14, 2014-15 and 2016-17, the Tribunal directed the Assessing Officer to compute income by applying a net profit rate of 3% on the total cash deposits/credits in the assessee's bank accounts, treating the same as turnover.
(k) The additions sustained by the Commissioner (Appeals) at 5% or 10% of deposits, or by the Assessing Officer at 25% of deposits under section 69A, were reduced and replaced by this 3% net profit estimation.
(l) The resultant income is to be assessed as business income chargeable at normal rates of tax, and not under section 69A/section 115BBE.
Issue (6): Levy of penalty under section 271(1)(c) on estimated additions for A.Ys. 2013-14 and 2014-15
Legal framework (as discussed)
(a) The Tribunal considered section 271(1)(c) relating to penalty for concealment of income or furnishing inaccurate particulars of income, and examined whether such penalty can be sustained where the underlying additions are purely based on estimation of profit rate.
(b) It relied on the decision of a Co-ordinate Bench in Gipilon Texturising Pvt. Ltd., wherein it was held, following jurisdictional High Court decisions (including Manish Dhirajlal Mehta and Vijay Proteins Ltd.), that no penalty under section 271(1)(c) is leviable on purely estimated additions.
Interpretation and reasoning
(c) The Tribunal observed that, in the present case, the Assessing Officer had made additions by estimating income based on turnover/bank deposits and that, on appeal, the Commissioner (Appeals) further altered the rate of estimation (5% or 10%), which itself showed the inherently estimative nature of the additions.
(d) It noted that there was no categorical finding by the Revenue authorities of any specific concealment of particular items of income or of deliberate furnishing of inaccurate particulars; the dispute essentially related to what net profit percentage should be reasonably applied.
(e) Applying the binding principle that penalty is not justified where additions rest solely on estimation and where there is no concrete evidence of concealment beyond such estimation, the Tribunal held that the preconditions for invoking section 271(1)(c) were not satisfied.
Conclusions
(f) The Tribunal held that penalties under section 271(1)(c) for assessment years 2013-14 and 2014-15, levied on the basis of estimated additions, were not sustainable.
(g) It deleted the penalties under section 271(1)(c) for these years in full.
Issue (7): Penalty under section 271A for non-maintenance of books where assessee is under presumptive scheme of section 44AD (A.Y. 2013-14)
Legal framework (as discussed)
(a) The Tribunal considered section 271A (penalty for failure to keep, maintain or retain books of account as required under section 44AA) and section 44AD (presumptive taxation scheme for eligible small taxpayers).
(b) It noted that, under section 44AD read with section 44AA(2), an eligible assessee opting for presumptive taxation is not required to maintain books of account as otherwise prescribed under section 44AA.
Interpretation and reasoning
(c) The Tribunal recorded that the assessee fell in the category of small taxpayers who returned income on a presumptive basis, and that the assessee's stand was that he was filing under section 44AD and therefore not obliged to maintain books.
(d) The Revenue's case was that, because the bank credits were treated as turnover, the assessee ought to have maintained books and thus was liable for penalty under section 271A.
(e) The Tribunal held that, where an assessee is eligible for and opts to declare income under the presumptive provisions of section 44AD, the statute itself exempts such assessee from the requirement of maintaining books of account under section 44AA.
(f) It emphasized that income under section 44AD is computed on a presumptive basis (at prescribed percentages of turnover), irrespective of actual profits, and in such a regime the legislative intent is to relieve small taxpayers from the compliance burden of maintaining formal books; therefore, failure to maintain books cannot be penalised under section 271A in such circumstances.
Conclusions
(g) The Tribunal held that, the assessee being an eligible small taxpayer under the presumptive scheme of section 44AD and not statutorily required to maintain books of account under section 44AA, no penalty under section 271A could be imposed for non-maintenance of books.
(h) It deleted the penalty under section 271A for assessment year 2013-14.
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