Issues: Whether transportation of taxable goods without an E-Way Bill, subsequently produced after interception, constituted substantive non-compliance establishing an intention to evade tax and justified tax and penalty proceedings.

Analysis: Rule 138(1) requires generation of an E-Way Bill before commencement of movement of goods above the prescribed consignment value. The E-Way Bill was admittedly unavailable at interception. Its online generation, unlike a manually issued invoice, forms an essential statutory mechanism for monitoring movement of taxable goods. Subsequent production of the E-Way Bill could not cure the lapse. The short inter-State route, the nature of the goods, post-interception production of the E-Way Bill, and repetition of the same lapse demonstrated a deliberate course of conduct rather than a technical or procedural error. The precedents relied upon by the first appellate authority were factually distinguishable.

Conclusion: Transportation without the mandatory E-Way Bill constituted substantive non-compliance and established an intention to evade tax; invocation of the detention, tax and penalty provisions was justified.

Issues: Whether writ jurisdiction should be exercised to interfere with reassessment proceedings when the reassessment order was not challenged in the writ petition and the assessee had already pursued a statutory appeal against that order.

Analysis: The reassessment order was passed during the pendency of the petition, and the assessee thereafter filed a statutory appeal which remained pending. The reassessment order itself was not impugned in the writ petition. Writ jurisdiction under Article 226 is discretionary, and a party that has invoked an efficacious statutory remedy for the same cause cannot simultaneously pursue multiple proceedings seeking substantially the same relief.

Conclusion: No writ interference was warranted; the challenge was not maintainable in view of the pending statutory appeal and the unchallenged reassessment order.

Outcome: Matter released for hearing before the regular Bench, with status quo maintained for four weeks.

Issues: (i) Whether revocation and security forfeiture were warranted for the customs broker's alleged breaches under the licensing regulations; (ii) Whether the customs broker was liable for exporters' excess RoSL availment and whether the penalty required modification.

Issue (i): Whether revocation and security forfeiture were warranted for the customs broker's alleged breaches under the licensing regulations.

Analysis: Regulation 10(o) imposes a time-bound obligation to intimate changes in address; its breach is a regulatory contravention for which Regulation 18 provides a monetary penalty. Failure to obtain permission under Regulation 7(3) for operations at ICD Loni was a compliance failure and did not constitute a breach of the primary obligations under Regulation 10. The signature-related irregularities indicated procedural lapses in employment and supervision, but did not establish a serious breach of the Customs Act warranting revocation.

Analysis: The allegation of subletting was unsupported by concrete evidence. Electronic filing through ICEGATE did not require the broker's physical presence at each Customs station, and clearances at multiple ports could not, by themselves, establish subletting. Dealings through intermediaries did not establish a breach because physical verification of every client's premises was not required. The alleged concealment of DRI notices was also not established in the absence of proof of service.

Conclusion: Revocation of the customs broker licence and forfeiture of the security deposit were unwarranted and were set aside in favour of the assessee; the monetary penalty for procedural violations was sustained.

Issue (ii): Whether the customs broker was liable for exporters' excess RoSL availment and whether the penalty required modification.

Analysis: The obligations of due diligence and client advice under Regulation 10 are confined to compliance matters arising from documents handled during customs clearance. They do not extend to downstream lapses or excess RoSL availed by exporters after the broker's statutory function has been discharged. The finding fastening responsibility on the broker for the exporters' conduct lacked an independently sustainable basis.

Conclusion: The customs broker was not liable for the exporters' excess RoSL availment, and the penalty was reduced to Rs. 5,000 in favour of the assessee.

Final Conclusion: Licensing sanctions must remain proportionate to established substantive misconduct; unproved allegations and procedural regulatory failures may justify monetary penalty but not revocation of a customs broker licence.

Ratio Decidendi: Revocation of a customs broker licence cannot be sustained solely on procedural licensing breaches or unsubstantiated allegations where no serious substantive breach affecting customs revenue or integrity is established.

Issues: (i) Whether charges deducted by foreign or intermediary banks while transmitting export proceeds rendered the exporter liable to service tax under reverse charge as recipient of Banking and Other Financial Services; (ii) Whether preparation and compilation of regulatory dossiers and assistance in obtaining overseas pharmaceutical approvals constituted Scientific or Technical Consultancy Services.

Issue (i): Whether charges deducted by foreign or intermediary banks while transmitting export proceeds rendered the exporter liable to service tax under reverse charge as recipient of Banking and Other Financial Services.

Analysis: Under the reverse-charge framework of the Finance Act, 1994, liability requires an established service provider-recipient relationship. The foreign buyer remitted export consideration through its own banking arrangements, and the intermediary banks' role formed part of the inter-bank fund-transfer process. There was no evidence that the exporter engaged those banks, contracted with them, or was obliged to pay them consideration. Economic incidence of deductions from the remittance did not by itself establish receipt of a taxable service. The materially identical issue for an earlier period had also been decided on the same basis.

Conclusion: The foreign-bank charges did not make the exporter the recipient of Banking and Other Financial Services; the reverse-charge demand is unsustainable and decided in favour of the assessee.

Issue (ii): Whether preparation and compilation of regulatory dossiers and assistance in obtaining overseas pharmaceutical approvals constituted Scientific or Technical Consultancy Services.

Analysis: Classification depends on the essential character of the activity actually performed, rather than the professional qualifications of the service provider. Scientific or Technical Consultancy requires advice, consultancy, or scientific or technical assistance in a discipline of science or technology. Compiling existing data and published material into documentation for regulatory filings, and assisting in obtaining marketing approvals, without independent scientific research, experimentation, technical study, or such advice, did not satisfy that character. The same foreign service providers and substantially identical activities had previously been determined not to fall in that taxable category.

Conclusion: Regulatory documentation and approval-assistance services were not Scientific or Technical Consultancy Services; the demand under that classification is unsustainable and decided in favour of the assessee.

Final Conclusion: As neither substantive tax demand survived, the associated interest and penalties also lacked basis.

Ratio Decidendi: Reverse-charge liability requires proof that the assessee received the taxable service, and service classification must follow the actual essential character of the activity rather than its incidental commercial effect or the provider's technical qualifications.

Outcome: The interlocutory applications for early hearing were allowed, and the appeals were directed to be listed together after three weeks.

Issues: Whether waiver of interest and penalty under Section 128A was available where the disputed excess input tax credit was availed in December 2020 but was claimed to relate to debit notes of financial year 2018-19.

Analysis: Section 128A grants waiver only where the demand covered by the specified notice, statement or order pertains to the period from 1 July 2017 to 31 March 2020 and the prescribed statutory conditions are cumulatively met. The decisive consideration is when the disputed input tax credit was actually availed and became the subject matter of proceedings under Section 73. The records established that the excess credit was first claimed in GSTR-3B for December 2020, rather than having been availed during financial year 2018-19 and carried forward. The origin of the underlying debit notes could not alter the tax period of the demand. The statutory period under the waiver provision could not be enlarged by interpretative or procedural considerations.

Conclusion: The demand pertained to December 2020, outside the period covered by Section 128A; consequently, waiver of interest and penalty was unavailable to the assessee.

Issues: Whether the notification approving the Port Trust as custodian of a customs area under Section 45(1) of the Customs Act, 1962 was valid, and whether such approved custodian incurs customs-duty liability for pilfered imported goods under Section 45(3).

Analysis: Section 45(1) permits approval of the person having custody of imported goods, while Section 45(3), introduced with an overriding clause, imposes customs-duty liability on the approved custodian where goods are pilfered in its custody. Section 13 absolves the importer from duty on pilfered goods, making the approved custodian's liability the mechanism for protecting collection of duty. The saving clause in Section 45(1) applies where another law provides a corresponding liability in respect of pilfered goods.

Analysis: The Major Port Trusts Act, 1963 regulates the Port Board's conditional civil responsibility as a bailee towards the owner for loss, destruction or deterioration of goods. That liability is distinct in source, nature and object from the independent statutory liability to Revenue under Section 45(3) of the Customs Act, 1962. Since the Major Port Trusts Act does not impose customs-duty liability for pilferage, it neither displaces the Commissioner's approval power nor conflicts with Section 45(3). Approval under Section 45(1) is, however, necessary before liability under Section 45(3) can arise.

Conclusion: The notification approving the Port Trust as custodian under Section 45(1) was valid, and the approved custodian is liable under Section 45(3) for pilferage occurring during the period of its approval. No such liability arose for the pre-notification demands.

Issues: Whether an exception under the National Litigation Policy could be invoked in a Special Leave Petition when that ground had not been raised before the High Court.

Outcome: The Special Leave Petition was declined as the purported Policy exception had not been urged before the High Court.

Issues: (i) Whether the imported mixed lots of polyester knitted fabric were classifiable under Customs Tariff Item No. 6006 9000 or Customs Tariff Item No. 6006 3200, with consequential entitlement to concessional duty; (ii) Whether penalty for wilful misstatement or suppression was imposable for the disputed classification.

Issue (i): Whether the imported mixed lots of polyester knitted fabric were classifiable under Customs Tariff Item No. 6006 9000 or Customs Tariff Item No. 6006 3200, with consequential entitlement to concessional duty.

Analysis: The goods were originally assessed and cleared under Customs Tariff Item No. 6006 9000. Each Bill of Entry required classification by reference to the goods actually imported. The description as mixed lots of fabrics of assorted colours and weights did not, without more, establish that every imported fabric was of synthetic fibres. No laboratory test or other cogent technical evidence was produced to establish the actual composition necessary for classification under Customs Tariff Item No. 6006 3200. A subsequent change of perception could not displace the accepted assessment without such evidentiary foundation. Contemporaneous acceptance of the declared classification in comparable imports further supported the declared classification.

Conclusion: The goods are classifiable under Customs Tariff Item No. 6006 9000, not under Customs Tariff Item No. 6006 3200; the differential customs-duty demand and interest are unsustainable. This conclusion is in favour of the assessee.

Issue (ii): Whether penalty for wilful misstatement or suppression was imposable for the disputed classification.

Analysis: The dispute was interpretational and the record did not establish deliberate suppression, wilful misstatement, or mala fide intent to evade duty. The classification declared by the importer was also sustained.

Conclusion: Penalty under Section 114A of the Customs Act, 1962 is not imposable and is set aside. This conclusion is in favour of the assessee.

Final Conclusion: The accepted tariff classification and the corresponding concessional-duty treatment remain operative, with no surviving fiscal or penal liability arising from the proposed reclassification.

Ratio Decidendi: A classification accepted at assessment cannot be displaced by a subsequent change of view unless the Revenue establishes, through cogent evidence relating to the actual imported goods, that a different tariff entry applies.

Issues: Whether personal penalties for alleged aiding and abetting of gold smuggling could be sustained against a Customs official under Section 112(a) of the Customs Act, 1962.

Analysis: The evidence against the official consisted principally of co-accused statements, call-data material and an allegation concerning use of a syndicate member's SIM card. No incriminating material or SIM card was recovered from the official. Under Section 108 of the Customs Act, 1962, statements may constitute substantive material, but an accomplice's statement required corroboration in material particulars under Section 114 illustration (b) of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872. The recorded calls to the Superintendent before the seizure supported the explanation that the official had furnished information about the concealed gold. The alleged SIM usage was unverified and the failure to contact other officers could not establish complicity. Suspicion, however strong, could not replace proof.

Conclusion: The alleged involvement in smuggling was not proved; the personal penalties under Section 112(a) of the Customs Act, 1962 were unsustainable.

Issues: (i) Whether an application for attachment and disgorgement was validly instituted in the name of the Central Government when presented through the Serious Fraud Investigation Office pursuant to ministerial authorization; (ii) Whether disgorgement relief is available only under Section 212(14A) of the Companies Act, 2013.

Issue (i): Whether an application for attachment and disgorgement was validly instituted in the name of the Central Government when presented through the Serious Fraud Investigation Office pursuant to ministerial authorization.

Analysis: The investigation report was submitted to the Central Government, which approved institution of proceedings and directed the Serious Fraud Investigation Office to place the report before the Tribunal and seek attachment and disgorgement. The application was instituted in the name of the Union of India. Under the Allocation of Business Rules and Transaction of Business Rules framed under Article 77(3) of the Constitution of India, the authorized officer could implement the Central Government's decision. Since the essential decision-making discretion remained with the Central Government, the authorization to present and execute the application was ministerial implementation, not delegation of statutory power requiring a notification under Section 458.

Conclusion: The application was validly instituted on behalf of the Central Government; the maintainability objection is rejected against the appellant.

Issue (ii): Whether disgorgement relief is available only under Section 212(14A) of the Companies Act, 2013.

Analysis: Disgorgement is an equitable remedy to prevent retention of undue gains and is not confined to Section 212(14A). The statutory scheme also permits the Central Government to seek such relief under Sections 241(2), 242, 246 and 339 of the Companies Act, 2013.

Conclusion: Disgorgement relief is not exclusively available under Section 212(14A) of the Companies Act, 2013; this contention is rejected against the appellant.

Final Conclusion: The Central Government's decision to initiate the proceedings and its implementation through an authorized officer were legally effective, and the statutory framework permits the relief sought.

Ratio Decidendi: Where the statutory decision-maker itself takes the substantive decision, authorization of an officer to implement and present that decision does not amount to delegation of statutory discretion.

Issues: (i) Whether the show cause notice issued to the insolvency professional was valid under the pre-amendment statutory scheme when the investigation report found no actionable material and the notice rested on matters extraneous to that investigation; (ii) Whether the disciplinary order finding contraventions concerning constitution of the stakeholders' consultation committee, disclosure of liquidation costs, and delay in auction notices was vitiated by procedural infirmity and breach of natural justice.

Issue (i): Whether the show cause notice issued to the insolvency professional was valid under the pre-amendment statutory scheme when the investigation report found no actionable material and the notice rested on matters extraneous to that investigation.

Analysis: Under Section 219 of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016, as it stood before the amendment of 6 April 2026, a show cause notice could follow completion of investigation under Section 218. Regulation 11 of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (Inspection and Investigation) Regulations, 2017 required consideration of the investigation report and formation of a prima facie opinion that sufficient cause existed for action. The investigation report found no actionable material on the complaints that initiated the inquiry, whereas the notice alleged five distinct matters outside those complaints and the investigation findings. Although the regulator may act on its own motion where warranted, it must identify and furnish the material forming the basis for such action.

Conclusion: The show cause notice was procedurally vitiated, being founded on extraneous and undisclosed material despite the investigation report containing no adverse actionable material; this finding is in favour of the petitioner.

Issue (ii): Whether the disciplinary order finding contraventions concerning constitution of the stakeholders' consultation committee, disclosure of liquidation costs, and delay in auction notices was vitiated by procedural infirmity and breach of natural justice.

Analysis: Writ review was confined to procedural legality and not an appellate reassessment of disciplinary findings. The disciplinary authority failed to consider material circumstances and defences relevant to each charge. The liquidator's view that secured financial creditors who had relinquished security formed one class under Regulation 31A(3) of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (Liquidation Process) Regulations, 2016 was a reasonably possible interpretation, particularly as the other creditors attended the meetings and raised no objection. The finding on liquidation costs improperly considered meetings beyond those specified in the show cause notice, while Regulation 31A(6B) had not yet come into force when notice for the fourth meeting was issued. The authority also disregarded material showing that obstruction by the promoters affected the auctions and that the adjudicating authority had condoned the auction delays.

Conclusion: The disciplinary findings and suspension order were vitiated by failure to consider relevant material, consideration beyond the charged meetings, and violation of principles of natural justice; this finding is in favour of the petitioner.

Final Conclusion: The regulatory disciplinary action could not stand under the applicable pre-amendment procedure, and the order imposing suspension was quashed.

Ratio Decidendi: A disciplinary show cause notice and consequential order under the pre-amendment insolvency framework are invalid where they depart from the investigation findings without disclosing the independent material relied upon and ignore material defences and relevant circumstances bearing on the alleged contraventions.

Issues: (i) Whether construction of individual houses on independent plots constituted taxable Construction of Complex Service; (ii) Whether demands raised under Construction of Complex Service could be sustained for composite construction contracts involving transfer of materials; (iii) Whether extended limitation and penalties were invocable.

Issue (i): Whether construction of individual houses on independent plots constituted taxable Construction of Complex Service.

Analysis: Section 65(91a) of the Finance Act, 1994 requires a residential complex to comprise more than twelve residential units, a common area, and specified common facilities within premises approved by the competent authority. The constructions were individual houses on separate plots for respective purchasers, while roads and open spaces had been transferred to the municipal authority. The Department did not establish the existence of common areas and common facilities forming part of a residential complex. Construction of several independent houses in a common layout, without the statutory ingredients, does not attract the taxable category.

Conclusion: The individual houses did not constitute a residential complex under Section 65(91a) of the Finance Act, 1994 and were not taxable under Construction of Complex Service; this issue is decided in favour of the assessee.

Issue (ii): Whether demands raised under Construction of Complex Service could be sustained for composite construction contracts involving transfer of materials.

Analysis: The contracts involved construction along with supply or transfer of materials and were, to that extent, composite works contracts. Their classification and taxability required examination under the statutory framework governing works contract service, rather than a simpliciter demand under Construction of Complex Service.

Conclusion: A demand under Construction of Complex Service without addressing the true nature and classification of the composite works contracts is unsustainable; this issue is decided in favour of the assessee.

Issue (iii): Whether extended limitation and penalties were invocable.

Analysis: The Department had issued periodic show-cause notices concerning the same activity over successive periods, demonstrating departmental knowledge of the activity. Further, refund of service tax for an earlier period on the same activity had been granted, showing that the issue admitted of differing interpretation. These circumstances negate suppression or wilful misstatement and deliberate evasion.

Conclusion: The extended period was not invocable and penalties were not sustainable; this issue is decided in favour of the assessee.

Final Conclusion: The service-tax demands, with related interest and penalties, lacked a sustainable legal basis.

Ratio Decidendi: Construction of independent residential houses is not taxable as Construction of Complex Service unless the Department proves every statutory ingredient of a residential complex, including common areas and specified common facilities.

Issues: (i) Whether charges collected for certification of SOFTEX forms, issuance of NoCs and allied assistance to software exporting units constituted consideration for taxable Business Support Service or related to sovereign/statutory functions outside service tax; (ii) Whether invocation of the extended period was valid for non-payment of service tax on the impugned receipts; (iii) Whether penalty for non-payment of service tax was sustainable.

Issue (i): Whether charges collected for certification of SOFTEX forms, issuance of NoCs and allied assistance to software exporting units constituted consideration for taxable Business Support Service or related to sovereign/statutory functions outside service tax.

Analysis: The appellant, though functioning under governmental administrative control, was an autonomous society and not a Government department. Statutory authorisation or exclusivity to perform an activity does not by itself make that activity sovereign. The certification, approvals and related assistance directly facilitated the export and business operations of recipient units, and the charges had a direct nexus with identifiable services rendered to them. Circular No. 96/7/2007-ST excludes functions of public authorities only where the collection is a compulsory statutory levy payable into the Government account. The impugned charges were neither established as statutory exactions nor deposited into the Government Treasury; they were retained and used by the appellant.

Conclusion: The impugned activities were taxable as Business Support Service, and the charges were consideration for taxable services, against the assessee.

Issue (ii): Whether invocation of the extended period was valid for non-payment of service tax on the impugned receipts.

Analysis: The taxable value of the impugned activities was not declared in statutory service tax returns, despite the appellant being registered and discharging service tax on other services. Availability of information or records during audit did not amount to prescribed disclosure of the taxable receipts, which were quantified only upon departmental scrutiny.

Conclusion: Invocation of the extended period was valid, against the assessee.

Issue (iii): Whether penalty for non-payment of service tax was sustainable.

Analysis: The appellant failed to correctly assess, disclose and pay tax on the impugned receipts over a substantial period despite its service tax registration and compliance for other taxable services.

Conclusion: Penalty was sustainable, against the assessee.

Final Conclusion: Charges retained by an autonomous body for certifications, approvals and facilitation supplied to exporting units do not acquire the character of sovereign or statutory collections merely because the activities are government-authorised.

Ratio Decidendi: A government-authorised activity performed by an autonomous body is not immune from service tax where the amount collected is consideration for an identifiable service to a business recipient rather than a compulsory statutory levy payable to the Government.

Issues: (i) Whether differential excise duty on freight and loading charges could be sustained beyond the transactions established by the sample purchase orders relied upon in the show-cause notice; (ii) Whether the extended period of limitation could be invoked for non-inclusion of freight and loading charges in assessable value; (iii) Whether penalty under Section 11AC of the Central Excise Act, 1944 was imposable.

Issue (i): Whether differential excise duty on freight and loading charges could be sustained beyond the transactions established by the sample purchase orders relied upon in the show-cause notice.

Analysis: Under Section 4 of the Central Excise Act, 1944, inclusion of outward freight depends on the place of removal. The relied-upon purchase orders supported a factual distinction between FOR sales, where the buyer's premises constituted the place of removal and freight formed part of the assessable value, and ex-factory sales, where freight was separately indicated and was not includible. The show-cause notice relied only on sample purchase orders; the adjudicating authority could not travel beyond that evidentiary foundation to presume that all other sales were FOR sales.

Conclusion: Differential duty was sustainable only for transactions established as FOR sales; the remaining demand was rightly dropped. This finding is in favour of the assessee.

Issue (ii): Whether the extended period of limitation could be invoked for non-inclusion of freight and loading charges in assessable value.

Analysis: The respondent's records and transportation activity had been examined in departmental audits during the relevant period. Further, the inclusion of outward freight and determination of the place of removal involved conflicting judicial views and an interpretative dispute. Circular No. 1065/4/2015-CX dated 08.06.2018 recognised that the extended period should not be invoked where an assessee had adopted an alternative interpretation before clarification by the Supreme Court.

Conclusion: The extended period was not invocable. This finding is in favour of the assessee.

Issue (iii): Whether penalty under Section 11AC of the Central Excise Act, 1944 was imposable.

Analysis: The foundation for alleging suppression with intent to evade duty did not survive once the extended period was held inapplicable in the circumstances of the interpretative dispute and departmental knowledge.

Conclusion: Penalty under Section 11AC of the Central Excise Act, 1944 was not imposable. This finding is in favour of the assessee.

Final Conclusion: The adjudicating authority's valuation findings, restriction of duty to proven FOR transactions, and deletion of the time-barred demand and penalty were sustained.

Ratio Decidendi: Outward freight is includible in excise assessable value only where the evidence establishes an FOR sale with the buyer's premises as the place of removal; a demand cannot be extended beyond the transactions and evidence forming the foundation of the show-cause notice.

Issues: (i) Whether refund of reversed Cenvat credit can be denied solely because the original invoices are unavailable and the credit is supported by photocopies of invoices; (ii) Whether a refund claim is inadmissible merely because it is not consequent upon an earlier appellate order.

Issue (i): Whether refund of reversed Cenvat credit can be denied solely because the original invoices are unavailable and the credit is supported by photocopies of invoices.

Analysis: Rule 9 of the Cenvat Credit Rules, 2004 requires prescribed documents to establish duty payment, receipt of goods, identity of the recipient and protection against duplicate or fraudulent credit. However, loss or non-availability of an original invoice does not invariably defeat credit where the defect is satisfactorily explained and the duty-paid nature of the goods, their receipt and use, and eligibility to credit are independently established. The photocopies were not found fabricated or unreliable, and there was no allegation or evidence of fraud, manipulation, or duplicate availment. The factual genuineness and admissibility of the credit had been verified and concurrently accepted.

Conclusion: Otherwise admissible Cenvat credit cannot be denied solely for non-production of original invoices where the underlying transaction is genuine and independently verified.

Issue (ii): Whether a refund claim is inadmissible merely because it is not consequent upon an earlier appellate order.

Analysis: Reversal of credit following an audit objection is not a final adjudication of inadmissibility. A subsequent claim for refund or re-credit requires independent determination on its substantive merits under the applicable statutory framework; the absence of a prior appellate order does not determine the claim's admissibility.

Conclusion: A refund claim is not inadmissible merely because it does not arise from an earlier appellate order.

Final Conclusion: The refund of credit found substantively eligible after verification of the duty-paid transaction remains legally sustainable.

Ratio Decidendi: A procedural deficiency in the prescribed credit document does not extinguish substantively established Cenvat credit where the transaction is genuine, independently verified, and free from fraud or duplicate availment.

Issues: Whether a show-cause notice invoking the extended limitation under Section 74, based on alleged input-tax-credit mismatch and short payment, was sustainable without pleaded foundational facts establishing fraud, wilful misrepresentation, or suppression of facts.

Analysis: Section 73 permits proceedings in cases not involving fraud, wilful misrepresentation, or suppression, subject to the prescribed limitation linked to the annual return under Section 44 and Rule 80. The limitation under Section 73(10) concerns passing the order, while Section 73(2) requires issuance of notice at least three months before that deadline. The pandemic-related exclusion did not preserve the notice issued after 28.02.2025 under the ordinary limitation. Section 74 permits the longer period only upon satisfaction that fraud, wilful misrepresentation, or suppression caused the tax shortfall or excess credit. An audit objection does not substitute the Assessing Officer's independent satisfaction. The notice contained only a bare assertion of suppression, without facts demonstrating a deliberate device to evade tax or avail excess credit; the Department's reference of the audit objection to the Public Accounts Committee further indicated absence of such satisfaction. Explanation 2 to Section 74, having been omitted from 01.11.2024, could not support the allegation. A protective demand is not a statutory measure under the GST regime.

Conclusion: The notice could not validly invoke Section 74, and the consequential adjudication was unsustainable for want of foundational facts supporting fraud, wilful misrepresentation, or suppression. Fresh proceedings under Section 74 remain permissible only if a notice discloses the requisite foundational facts and the order is made within the remaining extended period.

Issues: (i) Whether the Revenue appeal was maintainable where the amount involved was below the monetary threshold prescribed for departmental appeals; (ii) Whether amendment of exported shipping bills from "NO" to "YES" for pursuing MEIS benefit was permissible under Section 149 of the Customs Act, 1962.

Issue (i): Whether the Revenue appeal was maintainable where the amount involved was below the monetary threshold prescribed for departmental appeals.

Analysis: No customs duty, interest, fine or penalty was involved. Even treating the asserted MEIS entitlement as the disputed amount, its value was Rs. 47,19,103/-, below the Rs. 50,00,000/- threshold prescribed for Customs appeals before CESTAT. The dispute did not fall within any identified exception to the monetary-limit policy, and Section 131BA required due regard to such Board instructions.

Conclusion: The appeal was not maintainable under the applicable monetary-limit instruction, in favour of the assessee.

Issue (ii): Whether amendment of exported shipping bills from "NO" to "YES" for pursuing MEIS benefit was permissible under Section 149 of the Customs Act, 1962.

Analysis: Section 149 permits post-export amendment where it is supported by documentary evidence existing at the time of export. During the relevant export period, the provision contained no prescribed limitation period; the subsequently introduced restriction could not be applied retrospectively. Repeated "NO" declarations, delay, and possible fiscal consequences were relevant to discretion but did not create an absolute bar. Amendment of the shipping bills does not itself confer MEIS benefit, which remains subject to independent scrutiny by the competent authority under the applicable scheme.

Conclusion: Amendment under Section 149 was legally permissible, subject to the statutory requirement of contemporaneous documentary evidence, in favour of the assessee.

Final Conclusion: The appellate order permitting the respondent to seek amendment of the shipping bills remains operative, while entitlement to MEIS benefit must be determined independently by the competent authority.

Ratio Decidendi: A post-export amendment of customs documents under Section 149 cannot be denied solely because it may facilitate a fiscal incentive claim or because a later-introduced limitation period is invoked; the governing test is whether contemporaneous documentary evidence supports the amendment under the law applicable at the time of export.