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AI TextQuick Glance (AI)Headnote
Section 148(A)(d) Orders Quashed; Petitioner Allowed Fresh Objections Within Four Weeks Following SC Guidelines
The Allahabad High Court addressed a petition challenging the rejection of objections to reassessment proceedings initiated under Section 148 of the Income Tax Act, 1961, pursuant to orders under Section 148A(d). The Court noted the Supreme Court's rulings in Union of India vs. Rajeev Bansal (2024) and Union of India vs. Ashish Agarwal (2022), which conclusively determined the validity of notices issued under Section 148 between April 1, 2021, and June 30, 2021. Relying on these precedents, the Court quashed and set aside the impugned orders under Section 148A(d) and any consequential proceedings. The Assessing Officer was directed to permit the petitioner to file fresh objections within four weeks, including jurisdictional challenges and reliance on other Apex Court judgments, followed by a hearing and disposal of objections in accordance with law as laid down in the cited Supreme Court decisions. The petitioner was expressly allowed to pursue all legal remedies except on issues conclusively settled by Ashish Agarwal and Rajeev Bansal. Additionally, the Court clarified that the Supreme Court's observations regarding time-barred orders under Section 148A(d) in Rajeev Bansal paragraphs 112-114 would apply. The writ petition was disposed of with these directions, emphasizing adherence to the Supreme Court's authoritative rulings on reassessment notices and procedural compliance under the Income Tax Act.
Section 148(A)(d) Orders Quashed; Petitioner Allowed Fresh Objections Within Four Weeks Following SC Guidelines
The HC quashed and set aside orders passed under Section 148(A)(d) relating to reopening of assessment from 1st April to 30th June 2021. The AO was directed to allow the petitioner to file fresh objections within four weeks, including jurisdictional issues, and dispose of them per SC rulings in Ashish Agarwal and Rajeev Bansal. The petitioner may raise new objections and rely on other Apex Court judgments except on issues settled by these decisions. The petitioner retains all legal rights except those conclusively addressed by the cited SC judgments. The HC also clarified that the Supreme Court's observations on time limits for orders under Section 148(A)(d) in Rajeev Bansal shall apply.
Reopening of assessment u/s 147 - orders passed under Section 148(A)(d) - validity of notices issued u/s 148 of the Income Tax, 1961 from 1st April, 2021 till 30th June, 2021 - TOLA - scope of New regime - HELD THAT:- We are of the view that the orders passed under Section 148(A)(d) in all the above matters and any other consequential proceedings, are required to be quashed and set aside with a direction upon the AO to allow the petitioner to once again file objections, and thereafter, dispose of the objections in terms of the law laid down by the Supreme Court in Ashish Agarwal [2022 (5) TMI 240 - SUPREME COURT] and Rajeev Bansal [2024 (10) TMI 264 - SUPREME COURT (LB)]
The petitioner shall be at liberty to raise new objections, including jurisdictional ones and rely upon other judgments of the Apex Court as applicable. These objections should be filed by the petitioner within a period of four weeks. The authority shall thereafter grant an opportunity of hearing to the petitioner and pass orders in accordance with law.
We make it clear that the assessee shall also be at liberty to pursue all the rights and remedies in accordance with law, except the issues that have been concluded in the judgments of Ashish Agarwal [2022 (5) TMI 240 - SUPREME COURT] and Rajeev Bansal [2024 (10) TMI 264 - SUPREME COURT (LB)]
With regard to the orders passed under Section 148(A)(d) of the Income Tax Act, 1961 that may have been passed beyond time as observed by the Supreme Court in paragraphs 112, 113 and 114 of Rajeev Bansal (supra), we make it clear that the observations made therein shall apply.
AI TextQuick Glance (AI)Headnote
Section 69A addition of Rs. 7.5 lakh set aside for lack of proper verification per CBDT Circular SOP
1. ISSUES PRESENTED and CONSIDERED
- Whether the Income Tax Appellate Tribunal (ITAT) was justified in sustaining an addition of Rs. 7,50,000 under Section 69A of the Income Tax Act, 1961, treating the amount as unexplained money despite the appellant/assessee's submission of bank statements and income tax returns for multiple years.
- Whether the Standard Operating Procedure (SOP) prescribed in the CBDT Circular No. 3/2017 dated 21/02/2017, specifically Clauses 1.1 and 1.3 relating to Source Specific General Verification Guidelines for cash deposits, was properly followed by the Assessing Officer and the ITAT.
- Whether the failure to conduct verification as per the CBDT Circular renders the addition under Section 69A unsustainable and liable to be set aside.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1: Justification of addition under Section 69A of the Income Tax Act for unexplained cash deposits
Relevant legal framework and precedents: Section 69A of the Income Tax Act permits the Assessing Officer to treat any sum found credited in the books of an assessee for which no satisfactory explanation is offered as income of the assessee. The burden lies on the assessee to explain the source and nature of the cash deposits.
Court's interpretation and reasoning: The Assessing Officer observed cash deposits of Rs. 11,00,000 during the demonetization period and found the explanation offered by the assessee unsatisfactory. Consequently, the entire amount was added as unexplained money under Section 69A. This addition was affirmed by the Commissioner of Income Tax (Appeals) and partly sustained by the ITAT, which reduced the addition by Rs. 3,50,000 based on CBDT Instruction No. 3/2017.
Key evidence and findings: The appellant/assessee had deposited Rs. 11,00,000 in cash during the demonetization period. Bank account statements for three financial years and income tax returns for six financial years were submitted by the assessee to explain the source of the deposits.
Application of law to facts: While the Assessing Officer and CIT(A) did not accept the explanation and added the entire amount, the ITAT recognized the applicability of the CBDT Circular and allowed a partial deduction of Rs. 3,50,000, treating it as cash in hand at the relevant time.
Treatment of competing arguments: The appellant contended that the addition was unjustified as the source was explained by documentary evidence and the SOP under the CBDT Circular was not followed. The Revenue supported the addition on the ground of inadequate explanation.
Conclusions: The addition under Section 69A cannot be sustained without following the prescribed verification procedure as per the CBDT Circular. The partial allowance by the ITAT was a recognition of this principle but insufficient without full compliance with the SOP.
Issue 2: Compliance with CBDT Circular No. 3/2017 (Clauses 1.1 and 1.3) regarding verification of cash deposits
Relevant legal framework and precedents: The CBDT Circular No. 3/2017 dated 21/02/2017 provides Source Specific General Verification Guidelines for unexplained cash deposits during demonetization. Clause 1.1 exempts verification for cash deposits up to Rs. 2.5 lakh for individuals without business income (Rs. 5 lakh for senior citizens). Clause 1.3 mandates detailed verification if deposits exceed these thresholds, including consideration of bank statements, past income, returns filed, and cash withdrawals before quantifying undisclosed amounts.
Court's interpretation and reasoning: The Court noted that the appellant/assessee had submitted bank statements for three years and income tax returns for six years, which were not considered by the Assessing Officer or CIT(A). The ITAT partially allowed the appeal relying on the Circular but did not ensure full compliance with Clauses 1.1 and 1.3.
Key evidence and findings: The appellant's submission of detailed bank statements and income tax returns was a crucial factor under the Circular's guidelines. The authorities failed to conduct the requisite verification as mandated.
Application of law to facts: The failure to verify the source of cash deposits in accordance with the Circular's SOP meant that the addition of Rs. 7,50,000 as unexplained money was premature and legally unsustainable.
Treatment of competing arguments: The appellant argued for remand to allow proper verification as per the Circular. The Revenue opposed setting aside the addition. The Court emphasized adherence to the Circular's verification process as mandatory.
Conclusions: Non-compliance with the CBDT Circular's verification procedure invalidates the addition under Section 69A. The matter requires remand to the Assessing Officer for verification and fresh adjudication in line with Clauses 1.1 and 1.3 of the Circular.
Issue 3: Effect of non-compliance with SOP on the validity of additions under Section 69A
Relevant legal framework and precedents: The CBDT Circular is binding on income tax authorities and prescribes a mandatory procedure for verifying cash deposits during demonetization. Non-compliance may render the assessment order unsustainable.
Court's interpretation and reasoning: The Court held that since the SOP was not followed, the addition of Rs. 7,50,000 was bad in law. The impugned orders by the ITAT, CIT(A), and Assessing Officer were set aside to the extent of the addition, and the matter was remitted for fresh verification.
Key evidence and findings: The absence of verification under the Circular despite submission of relevant documents by the assessee was a critical defect.
Application of law to facts: The addition was quashed not on merits but due to procedural lapses in verification, requiring reassessment.
Treatment of competing arguments: The Revenue's insistence on sustaining the addition despite procedural non-compliance was rejected.
Conclusions: Additions under Section 69A must comply with the CBDT Circular's SOP. Non-compliance mandates setting aside the addition and remand for fresh verification.
Section 69A addition of Rs. 7.5 lakh set aside for lack of proper verification per CBDT Circular SOP
The HC set aside the addition of Rs. 7,50,000 as unexplained money under Section 69A, noting that the AO failed to verify the appellant's bank statements and income returns as required by Clauses 1.1 and 1.3 of the CBDT Circular dated 21/02/2017. The matter was remitted to the AO for fresh verification and reassessment in accordance with the prescribed SOP before making any addition.
Addition u/s 69A - unexplained money - cash as deposited by her in her bank account during the demonetization period - Scope of Standard Operating Procedure (SOP) - HELD THAT:- In the instant case, since the appellant/assessee had submitted her Bank account statement of the last three financial years and return of her income for the last six financial years, it ought to have been verified in terms of Clause 1.1 and 1.3 of CBDT Circular dated 21/02/2017 provided under the Source Specific General Verification Guidelines for cash out of earlier income or savings, which has not been carried out by either of the Authorities and straightway an amount of Rs. 7,50,000/- has been added to the income of the appellant/assessee on account of unexplained money under Section 69A of the Act, which is unsustainable and bad in law.
Consequently, the impugned order passed by learned ITAT to the extent of addition to the income of the appellant/assessee as unexplained money are hereby set aside and the matter is remitted to the Assessing Officer to conduct verification and pass an order afresh in terms of Clauses 1.1 and 1.3 of the CBDT Circular dated 21/02/2017 to the extent of addition of Rs. 7,50,000/- with the income of the appellant/assessee.
AI TextQuick Glance (AI)Headnote
TDS under Section 194C applies to Common Area Maintenance charges, not treated as rent under Section 194I
1. ISSUES PRESENTED and CONSIDERED
- Whether Common Area Maintenance (CAM) charges paid by tenants to mall owners constitute "rent" under Section 194I of the Income Tax Act, 1961, thereby attracting TDS at the rate prescribed under that section.
- Whether CAM charges are payments for services/work and thus liable for TDS deduction under Section 194C of the Income Tax Act, 1961.
- Whether the Assessing Officer's treatment of CAM charges as rent leading to short deduction of TDS and consequent declaration of the assessee as an assessee-in-default under Section 201(1) of the Act is justified.
- Whether the Tribunal's and High Court's precedents on the classification of CAM charges for TDS purposes are applicable and binding on the present cases.
- Whether any substantial question of law arises from the classification of CAM charges for TDS deduction under the Income Tax Act.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 & 2: Classification of CAM Charges for TDS Deduction under Sections 194I or 194C
Relevant legal framework and precedents:
- Section 194I of the Income Tax Act mandates TDS on rent payments for land, building, or machinery.
- Section 194C of the Income Tax Act mandates TDS on payments to contractors for carrying out any work, including supply of labor for carrying out work.
- Precedents from ITAT Delhi Bench and Delhi High Court have consistently held that CAM charges are payments for services related to maintenance and not rent for use of premises. Notably, decisions in Kapoor Watch Company Pvt. Ltd. vs. ACIT and Liberty Retail Revolutions Limited have clarified this distinction.
Court's interpretation and reasoning:
- The Court examined the factual nature of CAM charges, emphasizing that these are payments made by tenants for maintenance services of common areas such as cleanliness, utilities, and upkeep, which are shared expenses and not payments for occupying or using premises.
- The Court noted that CAM charges are fundamentally contractual payments for services rendered, distinct and separate from rent payments for the use of leased premises.
- The Court concurred with the reasoning of the ITAT and coordinate Bench decisions that only payments for use of premises or equipment fall under Section 194I, while payments like CAM charges for maintenance services fall under Section 194C.
Key evidence and findings:
- Factual record confirming that CAM charges are not part of rent but separate payments for maintenance services.
- Prior departmental proceedings and ITAT decisions confirming that mall owners collect CAM charges separately from rent and deduct TDS under Section 194C at 2%.
- Orders of CIT(A) and AO treating CAM charges as rent and declaring assessee as assessee-in-default were found contrary to the established legal position.
Application of law to facts:
- Applying the legal framework and precedents, the Court held that CAM charges do not constitute rent and thus do not attract TDS under Section 194I.
- Since CAM charges are payments for maintenance work, they are liable for TDS deduction under Section 194C at the prescribed rate of 2%.
- The AO's and CIT(A)'s orders treating CAM charges as rent and holding the assessee in default were set aside.
Treatment of competing arguments:
- The Revenue argued that CAM charges are composite payments including rent and should attract TDS under Section 194I, relying on certain earlier decisions.
- The Court rejected this view, relying on consistent ITAT and High Court decisions distinguishing CAM charges from rent.
- The Revenue's reliance on the composite agreement was found unpersuasive in light of factual and legal clarity on the nature of CAM charges.
Conclusions:
- CAM charges are not rent for use of premises and thus do not attract TDS under Section 194I.
- CAM charges are contractual payments for maintenance services and attract TDS under Section 194C at 2%.
- Orders treating CAM charges as rent and holding the assessee in default under Section 201(1) are erroneous and liable to be set aside.
Issue 3: Validity of Declaration of Assessee as Assessee-in-Default under Section 201(1)
Relevant legal framework and precedents:
- Section 201(1) of the Income Tax Act provides for deeming a person an assessee-in-default for failure to deduct or pay TDS as required under the Act.
- Precedents establish that incorrect classification of payments for TDS purposes can lead to such declarations but must be based on correct legal interpretation of the nature of payments.
Court's interpretation and reasoning:
- The Court found that the AO and CIT(A) erred in treating CAM charges as rent and thus short deducting TDS under Section 194I.
- Since CAM charges are liable to TDS under Section 194C and were deducted accordingly, the declaration of the assessee as an assessee-in-default was unjustified.
Application of law to facts:
- The Tribunal and High Court set aside the orders declaring the assessee in default, holding that proper TDS deduction was made under the correct provision.
Conclusions:
- The assessee cannot be held in default for short deduction of TDS where the deduction was made under the correct provision applicable to CAM charges.
Issue 4: Applicability and Binding Nature of Precedents on CAM Charges Classification
Relevant legal framework and precedents:
- Decisions of coordinate Benches of ITAT and the Delhi High Court on identical issues form binding precedents.
- Recent Delhi High Court decisions have consistently held CAM charges to be liable for TDS under Section 194C, not Section 194I.
Court's interpretation and reasoning:
- The Court expressly followed the decision of the coordinate Bench in Liberty Retail Revolutions Limited and other ITAT decisions such as Kapoor Watch Company Pvt. Ltd.
- The Court noted that these precedents have settled the issue conclusively and are directly applicable to the present appeals.
Application of law to facts:
- The Court applied these precedents to the facts of the present appeals, finding no reason to deviate from the established legal position.
Conclusions:
- The precedents are binding and support the conclusion that CAM charges attract TDS under Section 194C, not Section 194I.
Issue 5: Existence of Substantial Question of Law
Relevant legal framework and precedents:
- Substantial question of law arises where there is a significant legal issue requiring interpretation or where there is conflict in law.
Court's interpretation and reasoning:
- Given the clear and consistent precedents on the classification of CAM charges for TDS purposes, the Court found no substantial question of law arises in these appeals.
Conclusions:
- No substantial question of law arises from the issue of TDS deduction on CAM charges as the legal position is settled.
TDS under Section 194C applies to Common Area Maintenance charges, not treated as rent under Section 194I
The HC held that TDS under section 194C applies to payments made towards Common Area Maintenance (CAM) charges. These charges are not to be treated as rent payments; hence, provisions of section 194I do not apply.
TDS u/s 194I or u/s 194C - payments towards Common Area Maintenance (CAM) charges - HELD THAT:- CAM charges can be covered under provisions of 194C of the Act of 1961, the said charges cannot be construed as payment of rent for occupying the premises in question.
AI TextQuick Glance (AI)Headnote
HC allows deduction under Section 80P(2)(a)(i) for cooperative society's bank interest income, denies staff housing loan interest deduction
1. ISSUES PRESENTED and CONSIDERED
- Whether the Tribunal was justified in confirming the disallowance of deduction of interest income under Section 80P(2)(a)(i) of the Income Tax Act, 1961, relying on the assessee's own case for an earlier assessment year.
- Whether the Tribunal was justified in relying on the Supreme Court decision in Totgars' Cooperative Sale Society Ltd. v. ITO, despite factual distinctions rendering that precedent inapplicable.
- Whether the Tribunal was justified in rejecting the alternative submission that attributable cost of funds used for deposits should be deducted to increase eligible business profit qualifying for deduction under Section 80P(2)(a)(i).
- Whether the Tribunal was justified in holding that interest on personal loans and house building loans to staff do not qualify as income attributable to banking business and thus are not eligible for deduction under Section 80P.
- Whether income from commission, miscellaneous and sundry incomes relate to business activities and qualify for deduction under Section 80P(2)(d) or 80P(2)(a)(i) (not pressed and hence not considered).
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1, 2 and 3: Deduction of Interest Income under Section 80P(2)(a)(i) and Applicability of Totgars' Cooperative Sale Society Ltd. Decision
Legal Framework and Precedents: Section 80P(2)(a)(i) provides deduction for profits and gains attributable to the business of banking or providing credit facilities by a cooperative society. The key interpretative question is the scope of the term "attributable to." The Supreme Court in Cambay Electric Supply Industrial Co. Ltd. v. CIT held that "attributable to" is wider than "derived from," allowing inclusion of receipts beyond direct business conduct. The Supreme Court decision in Totgars' Cooperative Sale Society Ltd. involved a cooperative engaged in both credit facilities and marketing of agricultural produce, with deposits arising from retained sale proceeds payable to members.
Court's Reasoning and Findings: The Court examined the facts distinguishing the present case from Totgars. Here, the interest income arose from short-term deposits of surplus funds, which were not amounts due or liabilities payable to members, but funds temporarily held pending repayment to NABARD as per fixed schedules. The Court relied on Karnataka High Court decisions (Guttigedarara Credit Cooperative Society Ltd. and Tumkur Merchants Souharda Credit Cooperative Ltd.) and Telangana & Andhra Pradesh High Court decision (Vavveru Co-operative Rural Bank Ltd.) which interpreted "attributable to" broadly to include interest earned on temporary deposits of surplus funds by cooperative societies engaged in credit facilities. It was held that such interest income is integral and incidental to the lending business and thus eligible for deduction under Section 80P(2)(a)(i).
Application of Law to Facts: The cooperative society's business model involves wholesale borrowing and retail lending, causing floating funds that must be prudently invested. Interest earned on such investments is not from a separate business but arises from the credit facility business itself. The Court found the Tribunal erred in applying Totgars, which concerned retained sale proceeds (a liability), unlike the present surplus funds scenario.
Treatment of Competing Arguments: The Revenue's reliance on Totgars was rejected as factually distinguishable. The argument that the attributable cost of funds should be deducted to increase eligible profits was accepted in principle, supporting a wider interpretation of "attributable to."
Conclusion: The disallowance of deduction of interest income under Section 80P(2)(a)(i) was not justified. The interest income on short-term deposits of surplus funds is attributable to the business of providing credit facilities and qualifies for deduction. The Tribunal's reliance on Totgars was misplaced. Issues 1, 2, and 3 are answered in favour of the assessee.
Issue 4: Deduction of Interest on Personal Loans and House Building Loans to Staff
Legal Framework: Section 80P provides deduction for income attributable to the cooperative society's banking or credit facility business. The question is whether interest on personal loans to members and house building loans to staff qualify.
Court's Interpretation and Reasoning: The Court distinguished between two components: (a) interest on personal loans to members, and (b) interest on house building loans to staff. The society's membership includes individuals (Class D members) eligible to receive loans. Interest on personal loans to these members is directly connected to the credit facility business and qualifies for deduction under Section 80P(2)(a)(i).
Conversely, interest on house building loans to staff, even if secured by mortgage and some staff being members, was held not to be income attributable to the banking business. The Assessing Officer, CIT(A), and Tribunal consistently held this income does not qualify for deduction under Section 80P.
Application of Law to Facts: The personal loans fall squarely within the cooperative's lending business to members, whereas house building loans to staff are outside the scope of the business activity qualifying for deduction.
Treatment of Competing Arguments: The assessee's contention that house building loan interest should be deductible was rejected due to lack of direct connection with the business of providing credit facilities to members.
Conclusion: Interest on personal loans to members qualifies for deduction under Section 80P(2)(a)(i), but interest on house building loans to staff does not. Issue 4 is partly answered in favour of the assessee (personal loans) and partly against (house building loans to staff).
Issue 5: Deduction of Income from Commission, Miscellaneous and Sundry Incomes
This issue was expressly not pressed by the appellant and therefore rejected as not pressed. No further analysis was undertaken.
HC allows deduction under Section 80P(2)(a)(i) for cooperative society's bank interest income, denies staff housing loan interest deduction
The HC allowed the deduction under section 80P(2)(a)(i) for interest income earned by the cooperative society on investments in nationalised banks, holding that such income is "attributable to" the society's business activities and qualifies for deduction. The AO, CIT(A), and Tribunal erred in denying the deduction and in relying on an inapplicable SC decision. However, the court upheld the denial of deduction for interest on house building loans to staff. Interest earned on personal loans given to certain member categories was held eligible for deduction under section 80P. Thus, substantial questions of law were answered largely in favor of the appellant/assessee except regarding staff housing loan interest.
Disallowance of Deduction of interest income u/s 80P(2)(a)(i) - scope of word ‘attributable’ - HELD THAT:- The expression ‘attributable to’ being a wider in import, the said expression is used by the legislature whenever they intended to gather receipts from sources other than the actual conduct of the business. See M/S GUTTIGEDARARA CREDIT CO-OPERATIVE SOCIETY LTD. [2015 (7) TMI 874 - KARNATAKA HIGH COURT]
The original source of investment made by the petitioner-Society in nationalised banks is admittedly the income of the petitioner derived from the activities listed in sub-clauses (i) to (vii) of clause [a] and the character of such income may not be lost, especially when the statue uses the expression ‘attributable to’ and not any one of the two expressions, namely ‘derived from’ or ‘directly attributable to’. In Principal Commissioner of Income Tax vs. Gunja Samabay Krishi Unnayan Samity Ltd.[2023 (1) TMI 783 - CALCUTTA HIGH COURT] it was held that where the assessee/Co-operative Society earned interest income on surplus fund invested in deposits with banks and Government securities, since neither the said amount of deposit was due to its members nor was it a liability to its members, same would quality for deduction under section 80P(2)(a)(i).
Assessing Officer, the CIT(A) as well as the Tribunal erred in not granting the deduction as claimed by the assessee under section 80P(2)(a)(i) of the Act and also erred in following the decision in Totgars Cooperative Sales Society Ltd. [2010 (2) TMI 3 - SUPREME COURT] which is not applicable to the facts and circumstances of the case. Accordingly, the substantial questions of law (1), (2) and (3) are answered in favour of the appellant/assessee.
Interest on house building loan to staff - We concur with the view taken by the AO as confirmed by the CIT(A) as well as the Tribunal. Therefore, to that extent the substantial question of law has to be answered against the appellant/assessee.
Interest on personal loan given to the members - It is not in dispute that the assessee is registered under the provisions of the West Bengal Co-operative Societies Act and it has got four categories of members, (i) Class A - members are State Government, (ii) Class B are 24 primary Agricultural Rural Development Banks, (iii) Class-C are 450 Co- operative Societies and (iv) Class-D are individuals above 18 years of age who are given loan through branches. As the assessee has earned interest on the personal loans extended to one class of members namely, members in Class D, the said amount would be eligible for deduction under section 80P of the Act. Accordingly, this issue is answered in favour of the appellant/assessee.
AI TextQuick Glance (AI)Headnote
HC upholds ITAT ruling: No TDS under Section 194H as payments were principal-to-principal, not commission
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
- Whether the payment of Rs. 80 Crores made by the assessee to another entity is covered under the provisions of Section 194H of the Income Tax Act, 1961, requiring deduction of tax at source (TDS) as "commission or brokerage."
- Whether the payment in question constitutes "commission or brokerage" within the meaning of Section 194H, particularly considering the proviso to Explanation (i) which includes payments received for services rendered (not being professional services) or for any services in the course of buying or selling goods or in relation to any transaction relating to any asset, valuable article or thing, excluding securities.
- Whether the transactions between the assessee and the payee were on a principal-to-principal basis or involved an agency relationship that would attract the provisions of Section 194H.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1: Applicability of Section 194H to the payment of Rs. 80 Crores
Relevant legal framework and precedents: Section 194H mandates deduction of tax at source on payments by way of commission or brokerage at the prescribed rate. The Explanation (i) to Section 194H expands the definition of "commission or brokerage" to include payments for services rendered (other than professional services) or services in the course of buying or selling goods or relating to any transaction involving assets or valuable articles, excluding securities.
The Supreme Court's authoritative interpretation clarified that the element of agency is essential for a payment to qualify as commission or brokerage under Section 194H, emphasizing that payments made on a principal-to-principal basis do not attract this provision.
Court's interpretation and reasoning: The Court examined the nature of the transaction and the relationship between the parties. It noted that the payment was made pursuant to a joint venture agreement forming an Association of Persons (AOP), where both parties contributed assets and shared responsibilities. The payee had acquired tenancy rights in its own name and brought these as capital contribution. The development expenses were borne by the assessee, and the payment was made as consideration for the joint venture arrangement.
The Court relied on the factual finding that the transactions were on a principal-to-principal basis, not involving an agency relationship. It held that the payment could not be characterized as commission or brokerage under Section 194H since there was no element of agency or services rendered in the course of buying or selling goods by one party on behalf of the other.
Key evidence and findings: The joint venture agreement, the formation of the AOP, the assignment agreements between the payee and tenants, and the manner in which tenancy rights were acquired and contributed were examined. The Assessing Officer's survey report and the subsequent appellate orders were also considered. The CIT (Appeals) and ITAT both found that the payment was not commission or brokerage but part of a principal-to-principal transaction.
Application of law to facts: Given the absence of agency and the nature of the joint venture, the payment did not fall within the ambit of Section 194H. The Court emphasized that the wide definition in Explanation (i) does not extend to payments made in principal-to-principal dealings. The Supreme Court's precedent was applied to confirm that mere payments in the course of buying or selling goods do not automatically attract TDS under Section 194H unless there is an agency element.
Treatment of competing arguments: The Revenue contended that the payment was commission or brokerage and thus liable for TDS under Section 194H. The Court rejected this argument on the ground that the Revenue did not challenge the factual findings regarding the principal-to-principal nature of the transactions. The Court distinguished the present case from cases where agency or service element exists, relying on the Supreme Court's reasoning that the definition of commission or brokerage requires an agency relationship.
Conclusion: The payment of Rs. 80 Crores was not commission or brokerage within the meaning of Section 194H. Therefore, there was no requirement to deduct tax at source under this provision.
Issue 2: Interpretation of "commission or brokerage" under Explanation (i) to Section 194H
Relevant legal framework and precedents: Explanation (i) to Section 194H includes payments for services rendered (not professional) or services in the course of buying or selling goods or relating to transactions involving assets. The Supreme Court clarified that the definition requires the payment to be made to a person acting on behalf of another, i.e., an agent.
Court's interpretation and reasoning: The Court reiterated that the element of agency is crucial. It cited the Supreme Court's example distinguishing a car dealer purchasing cars on principal-to-principal basis from a dealer acting as agent for the manufacturer. The Court noted that without agency, the payment cannot be considered commission or brokerage.
Key evidence and findings: The Court relied on the joint venture agreement and the fact that the payee acquired tenancy rights in its own name, indicating independent ownership and no agency. The nature of the joint venture and the financial arrangements further supported the absence of agency.
Application of law to facts: The Court applied the Supreme Court's interpretation to the facts, concluding that the payment was not for services rendered as an agent but was a principal-to-principal transaction. Therefore, the payment did not fall within the Explanation (i) to Section 194H.
Treatment of competing arguments: The Revenue's argument that the wide definition in Explanation (i) covers the payment was rejected because it ignored the essential element of agency. The Court emphasized that the definition cannot be stretched to cover all payments made in the course of buying or selling goods.
Conclusion: The payment did not constitute "commission or brokerage" under Explanation (i) to Section 194H as there was no agency relationship involved.
Issue 3: Nature of transactions - Principal to Principal vs. Agency
Relevant legal framework and precedents: The distinction between principal-to-principal transactions and agency relationships is fundamental in determining the applicability of TDS provisions under Section 194H. The Supreme Court's ruling clarified that only payments made to agents for services rendered attract Section 194H.
Court's interpretation and reasoning: The Court accepted the factual findings of the ITAT and CIT (Appeals) that the transactions were on a principal-to-principal basis. The joint venture arrangement and the manner in which tenancy rights were acquired and contributed supported this conclusion.
Key evidence and findings: The joint venture agreement, formation of AOP, assignment agreements with tenants, and the financial arrangements between the parties were key evidence. The payee's independent acquisition of tenancy rights in its own name was significant.
Application of law to facts: Since the transactions were principal-to-principal, the payment was not commission or brokerage. The Court held that the absence of agency negates the applicability of Section 194H.
Treatment of competing arguments: The Revenue's contention that the payment was commission or brokerage was dismissed due to lack of challenge to the factual findings and the absence of agency.
Conclusion: The principal-to-principal nature of the transactions excludes the payment from the scope of Section 194H.
HC upholds ITAT ruling: No TDS under Section 194H as payments were principal-to-principal, not commission
The HC upheld the ITAT's decision allowing the assessee's appeal regarding TDS under section 194H. It was held that payments made by the assessee to the other party were on a principal-to-principal basis and not commission or brokerage, as there was no element of agency involved. The court referenced SC precedent clarifying that mere buying or selling of goods does not constitute agency services attracting TDS under section 194H. Since the Revenue did not challenge the factual findings, the HC found no substantial question of law arising from the ITAT order and dismissed the Revenue's contention.
TDS u/s 194H - payment on account of “commission or brokerage” - ITAT allowed assessee appeal - HELD THAT:- Revenue has not challenged any of the factual findings given by the ITAT, the most important one being that the transactions entered into by the Assessee and M/s. Assay Developers Pvt Ltd were on a principal to principal basis.
Once this is the finding, there can be no question of the Revenue contending that the payment by the Assessee to M/s. Assay Developers Pvt Ltd was in the nature of “commission or brokerage”. To style the payment as “commission or brokerage”, as contemplated under Section 194H, there would have to be an element of agency. This has been very succinctly set out by the Hon’ble Supreme Court in the case of Ahmedabad Stamp Vendors Association [2012 (9) TMI 298 - SC ORDER] as held services rendered by the dealer in the course of selling cars does not make the activity of selling cars itself an act of agent of the manufacturer when the dealings between the company and the dealer in the matter of sale of cars are on “principal to principal” basis. This is just an illustration to clarify that a service in the course of buying or selling of goods has to be something more than the act of buying or selling of goods. When the license stamp vendors took delivery of stamp papers on payment of full price less discount and they sell such stamp papers to retail customers, neither of the two activities (buying from the Government and selling to the customers) can be termed as the service in the course of buying or selling of goods.
We find that the order of the ITAT does not give rise to any substantial question of law.
AI TextQuick Glance (AI)Headnote
Writ Petition Dismissed for Assessment Order Under Sections 147 and 144 IT Act; Appeal Is Proper Remedy
Writ Petition Dismissed for Assessment Order Under Sections 147 and 144 IT Act; Appeal Is Proper Remedy
The HC dismissed the writ petition challenging the assessment order framed under sections 147 read with 144 of the IT Act, holding that disputed questions of fact and jurisdictional issues are to be addressed by the appellate authority under the statute. The Court emphasized that an efficacious alternative remedy exists in the form of appeal, and the writ petition was not maintainable since it did not fall within the limited scope for such petitions. The Court noted that jurisdictional questions involve mixed questions of fact and law, which are better suited for determination by the appellate forums. Consequently, the petition was dismissed as devoid of merit, and all pending interlocutory applications were also dismissed.
Assessment order framed u/s 147 r.w.s.144 - scope of alternative statutory remedy - disputed questions of fact - HELD THAT:- As jurisdiction to entertain writ petition against order of assessment for which efficacious alternative remedy is available under the statute, as enumerated hereinabove, when the present contents of the writ petition is tested, the averments and fact-situation narrated by the petitioner do not seem to have fallen within such parameters.
In the present case, since disputed question of fact is patently perceived on the record, this Court is of the considered view that the appellate authority is the competent authority to deal with the facts as well as the law including the point of jurisdiction of the Assessing Authority. It deserves to be observed that the question whether Office of Income Tax Officer, Purulia in the State of West Bengal has the jurisdiction to proceed with the assessment under the IT Act is essentially a mixed question of fact and law. Therefore, issues raised in the present case can very well be addressed to in appeal under the IT Act. If need be other alternative fora are also put in place to question the appellate order(s) after disposal of the first appeal.
As decided in Santoshi Tel Utpadak Kendra [1981 (7) TMI 80 - SUPREME COURT] when an Appellate Authority is considering a second appeal against a “first appellate” order, it is examining an order which can be broadly described as an order of assessment. It is a final order disposing of an appeal which, in a sense, is a continuation of the assessment. A second appeal against such an order is an appeal against an order of assessment.
In the wake of above discussions made with reference to the legal perspective to entertain writ petition when disputed questions of fact are involved which can be dealt with by the authorities vested with power under the IT Act, this Court restrains to entertain the present writ petition keeping in view the fact that it is the petitioner who has taken the proceeding to the fag-end of statutory limitation for framing assessment.
However, it goes without saying that the factual details discussed above are taken out for the purpose of deciding whether to entertain writ petition; but the same would not impose fetter on the statutory authorities to decide and adjudicate merit of the issues, if raised before them in the event circumstances so arise.
As a consequence of above observations made, the writ petition, sans merit, is dismissed and pending interlocutory applications, if any, shall also be dismissed accordingly.
AI TextQuick Glance (AI)Headnote
Income Tax Proceedings Barred After Resolution Plan Approval Under IBC; Prior Dues Cannot Disrupt Process
1. ISSUES PRESENTED and CONSIDERED
- Whether the Income Tax Department can initiate or continue proceedings and raise demand against a petitioner for an assessment year prior to the approval of a Resolution Plan under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 (IBC).
- Whether the approval of a Resolution Plan by the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) extinguishes all past claims, including statutory dues such as income tax demands, against the corporate debtor.
- The interplay and reconciliation between the provisions of the IBC and the Income Tax Act, 1961, particularly whether the IBC can be interpreted in a manner that affects the rights of the Income Tax Department.
- The validity and applicability of precedents, including decisions of the Supreme Court and various High Courts, on the issue of claims post-approval of a Resolution Plan.
- Whether the Income Tax Department's claims can be included belatedly after the Resolution Plan approval, and the implications of such inclusion on the Resolution Applicant's ability to restart business operations with a clean slate.
- Assessment of the reasoning in conflicting judgments, particularly the decision of the Madras High Court, in light of Supreme Court rulings on the subject.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1: Authority of Income Tax Department to Proceed Post-Resolution Plan Approval
Relevant Legal Framework and Precedents: Sections 201(1), 201(1A), 148, and 148A of the Income Tax Act, 1961; Section 31 of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016; Supreme Court decisions including Ghanshyam Mishra & Sons Pvt. Ltd. v. Edelweiss Asset Reconstruction Company Ltd. and Vaibhav Goel & Another v. Deputy Commissioner of Income Tax & Another; Bombay High Court rulings in Alok Industries Ltd. and Uttam Galva Metallics Ltd.
Court's Interpretation and Reasoning: The Court held that once a Resolution Plan is approved by the NCLT under Section 31 of the IBC, all past claims, including income tax dues for periods prior to such approval, stand extinguished. This principle is supported by the Supreme Court's ruling that no belated claims can be included after approval, ensuring that the Resolution Applicant can restart the corporate debtor's business with a clean slate.
Key Evidence and Findings: The Resolution Plan approved by the NCLT explicitly extinguished past claims. The petitioner brought this fact to the Assessing Officer's notice. Despite this, the Assessing Officer proceeded to issue notices and orders under the Income Tax Act, relying on a Madras High Court decision.
Application of Law to Facts: The Court found that the Income Tax Department's attempt to raise demand post-approval conflicted with the settled legal position that the Resolution Plan's approval extinguishes prior claims. The petitioner's reliance on the NCLT order and Supreme Court precedents was upheld.
Treatment of Competing Arguments: The Assessing Officer's reliance on the Madras High Court decision was considered but found to be inconsistent with binding Supreme Court precedents and other High Court rulings. The Court emphasized that the IBC provisions must be given effect to as intended, and cannot be overridden by conflicting interpretations under the Income Tax Act.
Conclusions: The Income Tax Department cannot proceed against the petitioner or raise demands for periods prior to the Resolution Plan's approval. The impugned orders and notices issued under the Income Tax Act were quashed.
Issue 2: Extinguishment of Past Claims by Resolution Plan Approval
Relevant Legal Framework and Precedents: Section 31 of the IBC; Ghanshyam Mishra & Sons Pvt. Ltd. v. Edelweiss Asset Reconstruction Company Ltd.; Vaibhav Goel & Another v. Deputy Commissioner of Income Tax & Another.
Court's Interpretation and Reasoning: The Court interpreted the NCLT order approving the Resolution Plan as a binding determination that past claims, including statutory dues, are extinguished. The Supreme Court's decision in Ghanshyam Mishra was cited to emphasize that the Resolution Plan provides a fresh start to the corporate debtor, free from prior liabilities.
Key Evidence and Findings: The NCLT order's paragraphs explicitly stated the extinguishment of past claims. The Supreme Court's endorsement of this principle was decisive.
Application of Law to Facts: The Court applied the principle of extinguishment to the petitioner's case, holding that the Income Tax Department's claims for the assessment year prior to the Resolution Plan could not survive the NCLT approval.
Treatment of Competing Arguments: Arguments that the Income Tax Department's claims were not considered or included in the Resolution Plan were rejected, as the Supreme Court has held that no belated claims can be admitted post-approval.
Conclusions: The approval of the Resolution Plan extinguished the Income Tax Department's past claims against the petitioner for the relevant assessment year.
Issue 3: Interplay Between IBC and Income Tax Act and Interpretation of Conflicting Provisions
Relevant Legal Framework and Precedents: IBC 2016; Income Tax Act, 1961; Dishnet Wireless Ltd. v. Assistant Commissioner of Income-tax (Madras High Court); Ghanshyam Mishra & Sons Pvt. Ltd.; Vaibhav Goel & Another.
Court's Interpretation and Reasoning: The Court acknowledged the principle that laws must be harmoniously construed. However, it emphasized that the IBC's provisions relating to insolvency resolution and the finality of Resolution Plan approval have overriding effect on claims, including those under the Income Tax Act. The Court found that the Madras High Court's reasoning, which suggested that the Income Tax Department's rights could not be curtailed, conflicts with Supreme Court rulings.
Key Evidence and Findings: The Madras High Court decision was distinguished on facts and legal grounds. The Supreme Court's recent rulings were given primacy.
Application of Law to Facts: The Court applied the principle of overriding effect of the IBC Resolution Plan approval to the Income Tax proceedings, rejecting the notion that the Income Tax Act could be used to undermine the finality of the Resolution Plan.
Treatment of Competing Arguments: The Court respectfully disagreed with the Madras High Court's view that the Income Tax Department's claims must be preserved irrespective of the Resolution Plan. The Court held that such a view is inconsistent with the statutory scheme and Supreme Court precedents.
Conclusions: The IBC's Resolution Plan approval overrides conflicting claims under the Income Tax Act, and the Income Tax Department cannot proceed in a manner inconsistent with the Resolution Plan.
Issue 4: Requirement of Notice to Income Tax Department and Inclusion of Claims in Resolution Plan
Relevant Legal Framework and Precedents: IBC provisions; Dishnet Wireless Ltd. decision; Ghanshyam Mishra & Sons Pvt. Ltd.; Vaibhav Goel & Another.
Court's Interpretation and Reasoning: The Court noted the Madras High Court's observation that the petitioners should have given notice to the Income Tax Department and secured its claims in the Resolution Plan. However, the Court found this reasoning inapplicable to the facts before it and inconsistent with the Supreme Court's rulings that no belated claims can be admitted after Resolution Plan approval.
Key Evidence and Findings: The petitioner had informed the Assessing Officer of the NCLT order and Resolution Plan approval. The NCLT had approved the Plan with extinguishment of past claims.
Application of Law to Facts: The Court held that the absence of explicit inclusion of Income Tax claims in the Resolution Plan does not revive or preserve such claims post-approval. The legal effect of the Plan's approval is to extinguish prior claims regardless of procedural steps taken or omitted.
Treatment of Competing Arguments: The Court rejected the argument that failure to notify the Income Tax Department or include its claims in the Plan invalidated the extinguishment of such claims.
Conclusions: Proper notice or inclusion of Income Tax claims in the Resolution Plan is not a precondition to the extinguishment of such claims upon Plan approval.
Issue 5: Consequences of Allowing Belated Claims Post-Resolution Plan Approval
Relevant Legal Framework and Precedents: Supreme Court rulings in Ghanshyam Mishra and Vaibhav Goel; IBC provisions.
Court's Interpretation and Reasoning: The Court emphasized that allowing belated claims after Resolution Plan approval would defeat the purpose of insolvency resolution, which is to enable the Resolution Applicant to restart the corporate debtor's business with a clean slate.
Key Evidence and Findings: The Supreme Court has explicitly held that no belated claims can be admitted post-approval, as it would prejudice the Resolution Applicant and undermine the efficacy of the insolvency resolution process.
Application of Law to Facts: The Court applied this principle to quash the Income Tax Department's proceedings and demands raised post-Resolution Plan approval.
Treatment of Competing Arguments: Arguments supporting the Income Tax Department's right to raise claims post-approval were rejected as contrary to the settled law and policy underlying the IBC.
Conclusions: Belated claims post-Resolution Plan approval are not permissible, and any such claims or proceedings must be quashed.
Income Tax Proceedings Barred After Resolution Plan Approval Under IBC; Prior Dues Cannot Disrupt Process
The HC held that once a Resolution Plan is approved under the IBC, the Income Tax Department cannot initiate proceedings against the petitioner for dues prior to the plan's approval. This principle, supported by prior HC and SC rulings, prevents belated claims from disrupting the resolution process and allows the corporate debtor to restart business with a clean slate. Consequently, the petition challenging notices issued under Sections 148 and 148A(3) was allowed, and all related orders and notices were quashed. The assessee's appeal was upheld.
Income tax proceedings against company dissolved - Petitioner’s argument is that once a Resolution Plan has been approved in accordance with the provisions of the IBC, the dues of the Income Tax Department would have to be governed by what is stated in the Resolution Plan approved by the NCLT -
Whether the Income Tax Department could have proceeded against the Petitioner after approval of the Resolution Plan by the NCLT for a period prior to approval of such plan? - HELD THAT:- This issue is no longer res integra and is covered by several decisions of this Court including Alok Industries Ltd. [2024 (3) TMI 1083 - BOMBAY HIGH COURT] and Uttam Galva Metallics Ltd [2024 (9) TMI 371 - BOMBAY HIGH COURT] In fact recently, even the Hon’ble Supreme Court in the case of Vaibhav Goel & Another [2025 (3) TMI 1052 - SUPREME COURT] has taken a view that once the Resolution Plan is approved by an Adjudicating Authority, no belated claim can be included therein. If one were to allow this, the Resolution Applicants would not be in a position to recommence the business of the Corporate Debtor with a clean slate as held by the Hon’ble Supreme Court in the case of Ghanshyam Mishra [2021 (4) TMI 613 - SUPREME COURT].
Thus, the above Petition is allowed and the impugned order passed u/s 148A (3) and impugned notice issued under Section 148, as also any consequential orders/ notices are hereby quashed and set aside. Assessee appeal allowed.
AI TextQuick Glance (AI)Headnote
Petitioner must file revised ITR for AY 2018-19 under Section 148; CGDS Account closure to follow promptly
Petitioner must file revised ITR for AY 2018-19 under Section 148; CGDS Account closure to follow promptly
The HC directed the petitioner to file revised income tax returns for AY 2018-19 before the designated respondent, permitting physical submission if needed. The petitioner's CGDS Account closure was delayed due to non-compliance with a Section 148 notice. The petitioner had mistakenly parked sale proceeds in the CGDS Account based on tax consultant advice, despite claiming a capital loss. The respondents were instructed to issue final orders for closure of the CGDS Account promptly after receipt of the revised returns, emphasizing expeditious resolution given the matter's pendency since 2019.
Pass a speaking order for the closure of the Capital Gain Deposit Scheme (CGDS) Account of the petitioner - HELD THAT:- This Court notes that the non-closure of the CGDS Account finally, was due to the stand taken by the respondents, that the revised income tax return as requested by the notice under Section 148 had not been complied with. Though, it has been submitted by the learned counsel for the petitioner that a revised return had been submitted on 03.09.2024, the same was admittedly prior to the order of this Court dated 06.09.2024.
A perusal of the impugned order also reflects that the assessee had acted on the advice of a Tax Consultant, and the sale proceeds of the transaction was parked mistakenly in the CGDS Account, though as claimed by the assessee, there was a capital loss.
As Capital Gain is a subject matter of the assessment proceedings for the assessment year 2018-19, in the considered view of this Court, and as per the submission of the learned counsel for the respondents, it is directed that the petitioner shall file her revised income tax returns for the assessment year 2018-19, before the respondent No. 3, and if necessary, also be permitted to effect the same by filing the returns physically.
Respondents shall then take up the matter for issuance of final orders for closure of the CGDS Accounts, in accordance with law. The exercise considering the fact that the matter has been pending since 2019, shall be dealt with most expeditiously.
AI TextQuick Glance (AI)Headnote
Profits Must Follow Companies Act for Section 32AB Deduction, Not Income Tax Adjustments
Profits Must Follow Companies Act for Section 32AB Deduction, Not Income Tax Adjustments
The HC held that for claiming the 20% deduction under Section 32AB, profits must be determined as per Parts II and III of Schedule VI of the Companies Act, not adjusted based on Income Tax Act provisions. Deducting additional cane price from profits for computing the Section 32AB benefit was impermissible. The court rejected the Revenue's reliance on a Supreme Court decision unrelated to the issue. The question was answered in favor of the Assessee, confirming that profits finalized under the Companies Act alone are relevant for Section 32AB benefits, and additional sugarcane price paid could not be deducted while calculating such profits.
Deducting the additional cane price from the profits of the Assessee while allowing the benefit u/s 32AB - whether it is permissible for an Assessee to seek benefit of 20% deduction under Section 32AB of the Act on profits as reflected in the Profit & Loss Account finalized under Part II and III of the VI Schedule of the Companies Act, 1956 (Companies Act) or whether they must be determined with reference to the actual profits for the purposes of the Income Tax Act - AO proceeded to deduct the said additional amount of sugarcane from the amount of profits for the relevant AY while computing the 20% deduction admissible under Section 32AB
HELD THAT:- There appears to be a consistent view taken by different High Courts by relying on judgment of the Apex Court in Apollo Tyres Ltd [2002 (5) TMI 5 - SUPREME COURT] that the profits for the purpose of grant of benefit under Section 32AB of the Act can only be the one determined in accordance with Parts-II and III of Schedule-VI of the Companies Act. It has repeatedly held that Section 32AB does not require the profit to be calculated in accordance with the provisions of the Income Tax Act. There can be no two incomes, one for the purpose of Companies Act and another for the purpose of Income Tax Act for the purpose of applicability of provisions of Section 32AB.
Reliance by DR on judgment of the Apex Court in Tasgaon Taluka S.S.K. Ltd. [2019 (3) TMI 321 - SUPREME COURT] does not assist the case of the Revenue. The issue involved before the Apex Court was entirely different.
The question of law formulated while admitting the Appeal is accordingly answered in favour of the Assessee and against the Revenue. It is held that while computing the benefit under Section 32AB of the Act, the profit of the eligible business computed as per the requirement of Parts-II and III of Schedule-VI to the Companies Act can alone be taken into consideration and that therefore the additional sugarcane price paid in the month of October, 1990 could not have been deducted as expenditure while considering the profits for the purpose of grant of benefit under Section 32AB of the Act.
AI TextQuick Glance (AI)Headnote
Reopening assessment under Section 147 invalid without reason to believe income escaped for non-earning spouse
1. ISSUES PRESENTED and CONSIDERED
1. Whether the issuance of a Notice under Section 148 of the Income Tax Act, 1961 (IT Act) is valid where the Petitioner, a housewife with declared income, was made a joint owner of an immovable property purchased entirely by her husband from his own funds.
2. Whether the Assessing Officer had sufficient reason to believe that income chargeable to tax had escaped assessment in the hands of the Petitioner for the relevant assessment year.
3. Whether the Petitioner was required to prove the negative, i.e., that she had not contributed any funds towards the purchase of the immovable property.
4. The legal effect of the Petitioner furnishing the Purchase Agreement and the husband's bank statements evidencing the source of funds for the property purchase in response to Notices under Section 133(6) of the IT Act.
5. The applicability and impact of precedents where similarly situated assessees, particularly housewives with no income who were joint owners for convenience, were subject to Notices under Section 148 or Section 148A(d) of the IT Act.
6. Whether the issuance of the impugned Notice under Section 148 is sustainable when the husband's income is separately assessed and the Petitioner has not made any payment towards the property.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 & 2: Validity of Section 148 Notice and Reason to Believe Escapement of Income
- Legal Framework and Precedents: Section 148 of the IT Act permits reopening of assessment if the Assessing Officer has reason to believe that income chargeable to tax has escaped assessment. The reason to believe must be based on tangible material or information. The Court referred to a recent decision wherein a similar issue arose involving a housewife joint owner with no income.
- Court's Interpretation and Reasoning: The Court examined the facts that the Petitioner declared income of Rs. 4,36,850/-, and that the property was purchased entirely by her husband from his own funds. The Petitioner's name was added as joint owner purely for convenience. The Petitioner responded to Notices under Section 133(6) by furnishing the Purchase Agreement and the husband's bank statements showing payments made to the vendor.
- Key Evidence and Findings: The bank statement entries dated 7th December 2020 (Rs. 2 crores), 12th January 2021 (Rs. 1,69,93,750/-), 15th January 2021 (Rs. 25 lacs), and 27th January 2021 (Rs. 3 crores) were paid to the vendor as per the registered Sale Agreement. The Petitioner's explanation that she did not contribute to the purchase was corroborated by these documents.
- Application of Law to Facts: Given that the Petitioner did not contribute any consideration and that the husband's income and payment details were furnished, the Court found no basis for the Assessing Officer to have reason to believe that income had escaped assessment in the Petitioner's hands. The issuance of the Section 148 Notice was therefore held to be unsustainable.
- Treatment of Competing Arguments: The Department's contention that the source of the husband's income was insufficient was considered but rejected because the Petitioner was not the owner of the funds. The Court noted that the husband was separately issued Notices under Section 148 for the same transaction.
- Conclusion: The Section 148 Notice issued to the Petitioner was quashed as there was no valid reason to believe that income had escaped assessment in her hands.
Issue 3 & 4: Burden of Proof and Sufficiency of Response to Section 133(6) Notices
- Legal Framework and Precedents: The burden of proof does not lie on the Petitioner to prove a negative, i.e., that she did not contribute to the purchase. Notices under Section 133(6) require furnishing of information and documents relevant to the inquiry.
- Court's Interpretation and Reasoning: The Petitioner furnished the Purchase Agreement and the husband's bank statements in response to the Section 133(6) Notices. The Court found that these documents were sufficient to establish that the funds were provided by the husband.
- Key Evidence and Findings: The Petitioner's response dated 3rd July 2024 and subsequent submissions included detailed bank statements and the registered agreement. The preliminary verification report incorrectly stated that no documents were attached and questioned the sufficiency of the husband's income source without considering the husband's separate assessment.
- Application of Law to Facts: Since the Petitioner had no income and did not pay any consideration, the Court held that she could not be required to provide bank statements or source details. The husband's income and source verification was a separate matter.
- Treatment of Competing Arguments: The Department's reliance on the preliminary verification report was rejected as it failed to consider the documents furnished and the separate assessment of the husband.
- Conclusion: The Petitioner's response to Section 133(6) Notices was adequate and the burden to prove source of funds did not extend to her.
Issue 5 & 6: Precedential Support and Separate Assessment of Husband
- Legal Framework and Precedents: The Court relied on a recent decision involving a housewife with no income who was joint owner for convenience. The decision held that reopening assessment under Section 148 or Section 148A(d) was not justified where the husband's income was separately assessed and the wife had not contributed any funds.
- Court's Interpretation and Reasoning: The Court noted that the Department conceded that the husband's income details should be sought from him and not from the Petitioner. The Principal Chief Commissioner's sanction for reopening the Petitioner's case was questioned.
- Key Evidence and Findings: The precedent decision quashed the reopening order where the only basis was non-submission of source details by the wife, who had no income and had not made any payment.
- Application of Law to Facts: The Court applied the precedent to the present facts and found the issuance of the Section 148 Notice to the Petitioner was not sustainable.
- Treatment of Competing Arguments: The Department's argument that the Petitioner's name as joint owner justified reopening was rejected given the husband's separate assessment and the Petitioner's lack of contribution.
- Conclusion: The issuance of the Section 148 Notice was quashed in line with the precedent, and the Petitioner's case was held not fit for reopening.
Reopening assessment under Section 147 invalid without reason to believe income escaped for non-earning spouse
The HC held that reopening assessment u/s 147 against the petitioner was unsustainable as there was no reason to believe income had escaped assessment for A.Y. 2021-22. The petitioner, a housewife, did not contribute to the purchase consideration of the jointly owned property, which was paid entirely by her husband, corroborated by bank statements. The Section 148 notice issued to her lacked basis since the alleged escapement pertained to the husband's income. The court relied on precedent where similar facts led to dismissal of reassessment notices against a non-earning spouse. The petitioner's appeal was allowed, quashing the reopening notice.
Reopening of assessment u/s 147 - Income Tax Department had information regarding a purchase of an immovable property (financial transaction) which could have an implication on the taxable income - Joint property purchased by husband and wife - - case of the Petitioner that she not having paid any consideration for purchase of the said flat, she was not in position to prove the negative AND despite this, her name was added as a joint second owner of the flat purely for the sake of convenience.
HELD THAT:- When we look at all the documents, we fail to understand how the AO could have been come to the conclusion that in relation to this transaction, as far as the Petitioner is concerned, any income had escaped assessment for A.Y. 2021-22. In fact, the Petitioner fairly stated that her income for that assessment year was only Rs. 4,36,850/-.
She further stated before the Income Tax Department that she has not contributed anything towards purchase of the said flat and the entire consideration was paid by her husband. This is duly corroborated from the bank statement of her husband.
Once this is the case, we are clearly of the view that as far as this transaction is concerned, the Officer issuing the Section 148 Notice could never have had reason to believe that income of the Petitioner had escaped assessment for A.Y. 2021-22. Ironically, in the facts of the present case, Notice under Section 148 had also been issued to the husband of the Petitioner, pursuant to Notices issued under Section 133(6) to the husband, alleging escapement of income for the very same transaction. In these circumstances, we are clearly of the view that the Notice under Section 148 issued to the Petitioner is wholly unsustainable.
We are supported by a decision of this Court in the case of Kalpita Arun Lanjekar [2024 (3) TMI 733 - BOMBAY HIGH COURT] wherein also the Assessee was a housewife, who had no income and a flat was purchased by her husband in the joint name of himself and the wife. The wife’s name was joined purely for the sake of convenience. Court noted that the only basis for issuing the impugned order under Section 148A(d) was that the Assessee had not submitted the details of source of the money paid for purchase of property by her husband, especially when the husband’s income was only Rs. 18,49,980/-. This Court in fact noted the concession made on behalf of the Department that these details have to be sourced from her husband’s assessment and not from the wife because the AO had accepted that the wife had not made any payment for purchase of the property.
Assessee appeal allowed.
AI TextQuick Glance (AI)Headnote
Notice under Section 153C valid only for assessment years linked to seized incriminating material
Notice under Section 153C valid only for assessment years linked to seized incriminating material
The HC held that a notice under Section 153C can only be issued for the assessment years corresponding to the incriminating material gathered or obtained. Following the SC ruling in Sinhgad Technical Education Society, which disallowed notices for earlier assessment years not covered by the material, and the Delhi HC's decision in Saksham Commodities Ltd., the court allowed the assessee's appeal. The notice issued for assessment years beyond those linked to the seized material was declared invalid.
Validity of Notice u/s 153C - mandation to record satisfaction of same Assessment Years for which the incriminating material had been gathered or obtained - HELD THAT:- We find that the issue in the present case is squarely covered by a decision of Sinhgad Technical Education Society [2017 (8) TMI 1298 - SUPREME COURT] - Assessment Years before the Hon’ble Supreme Court were Assessment Years 2000-01, 2001-02, 2002-03 and 2003-04. In the satisfaction note before the Hon’ble Supreme Court, the material referred to therein was for Assessment Year 2004-05 onwards. It is in this light that the Hon’ble Supreme Court held that the Notice under Section 153C could not be issued for the Assessment Years 2000-01, 2001-02, 2002-03, 2003-04.
This decision of the Hon’ble Supreme Court was thereafter followed by a Division Bench of Saksham Commodities Ltd. [2024 (4) TMI 461 - DELHI HIGH COURT] The Delhi High Court also, after considering the law on subject, came to the conclusion that the Notice under Section 153C could be issued only in respect of the Assessment Years for which the incriminating material had been gathered or obtained. Assessee appeal allowed.
AI TextQuick Glance (AI)Headnote
HC allows delay condonation in filing Income Return for AY 2024-25 under Section 80IBA, prioritizing genuine hardship
HC allows delay condonation in filing Income Return for AY 2024-25 under Section 80IBA, prioritizing genuine hardship
The HC allowed the petitioner's application for condonation of delay in filing the Return of Income for A.Y. 2024-25, setting aside the impugned order. The court rejected the Revenue's grounds that professional guidance precluded delay and that documentary evidence was required at this stage. It held that errors or delays can occur despite professional advice and that proof of deduction claims under s. 80IBA is not necessary during condonation but will be examined during assessment. The court emphasized that "genuine hardship" must be construed liberally to avoid denying substantive rights and meritorious claims. Denial of condonation would cause undue hardship by preventing the petitioner from claiming significant deductions. The delay was condoned to ensure the matter proceeds on merits.
Condonation of Delay in filing the Return of Income - ground for rejecting the Petitioner’s Application is that since Petitioner was guided by professionals, the explanation offered by Petitioner was not acceptable - scope of phrase “genuine hardship” - HELD THAT:- We are of the opinion that just because an assessee is guided by professionals cannot mean that there is no possibility of errors or delay. Moreover, the second ground of rejection is that the Petitioner did not submit the documentary evidences to substantiate its claim of deduction u/s 80IBA of the Act.
We are of the firm view that there is no requirement in law to prove the claim of deduction at the stage of condonation of delay. The same would be subjected to examination by the authorities during assessment which would commence only if Petitioner’s Return of Income is accepted.
Therefore, this reason for rejection is also unsustainable. If the delay is not condoned, there will be genuine hardship caused to the Petitioner inasmuch as the Petitioner would be unable to even claim the deduction u/s 80IBA of the Act, which is a substantial amount.
While interpreting what would constitute ‘genuine hardship’, this aspect is also to be borne in mind. This view is supported by a decision rendered in K. S. Bilawala [2024 (1) TMI 950 - BOMBAY HIGH COURT]
In cases like the present one (delay in filing Return of Income) the phrase “genuine hardship” is to be construed liberally and that refusing to condone the delay can result in a meritorious matter being thrown out at the very threshold and the cause of justice being defeated. As against this, when the delay is condoned, the highest that can happen is that a cause would be decided on merits after hearing the parties.
We set aside the Impugned Order and the delay in filing the Return of Income for A. Y. 2024-25 is hereby condoned.
AI TextQuick Glance (AI)Headnote
Tribunal Erred in Deleting Share Trading Addition Without Proper Merit Examination Under Circular No. 5 of 2024
Tribunal Erred in Deleting Share Trading Addition Without Proper Merit Examination Under Circular No. 5 of 2024
HC held that the tribunal erred in deleting the addition related to share trading, as it failed to examine the merits or correctness of the assessing officer's and CIT(A)'s reasoning, relying instead on a decision with only "substantially similar" facts. The court distinguished the present case from a recent decision disposed of on low tax effect, finding that the current matter falls within an exception under Circular No. 5 of 2024. Consequently, the HC set aside the tribunal's order and restored the appellate authority's and assessing officer's decision, ruling in favor of the revenue.
Disallowance on account of share trading - assessee failed to prove the genuineness of the whole transaction - ITAT deleted addition - HELD THAT:- As observed earlier, the learned tribunal did not examine the merits of the matter, did not go into the facts of the case, did not touch upon the correctness of the reasoning given by the CIT(A) or that of the assessing officer but referred to the decision of the Coordinate Bench of the tribunal in the case of Namokar Builders Private Limited [2024 (5) TMI 1454 - ITAT KOLKATA] extracted the entire judgment running to be more than 15 pages and in the last paragraph, the tribunal states that the facts of the case of the assessee are also “substantially” similar and therefore the appeal was allowed. There is nothing to indicate as to how the tribunal found that the facts of the assessee’s case were identical to the facts in Namokar Builders Private Limited. The expression “substantially similar” used in paragraph 8 of the impugned order would show that the facts are not identically similar.
Respondent referred to the decision of this court in Brightstar Vincom Private Limited [2024 (11) TMI 1202 - CALCUTTA HIGH COURT] and submitted that one of the substantial questions of law raised in this appeal is identical to the substantial questions of law raised in the case of Brightstar and the said appeal was disposed of on the ground of low tax effect. We find from the said order that no objection appears to have been taken by the department to bring case under any one of the exceptions which have been curbed out in Circular No. 5 of 2024 dated 15.03.2024. In the preceding paragraphs, we have dealt with this issue in detail and recorded our conclusions that the case on hand would fall within the exception as contained in paragraph 3.1(h) of the Circular No. 5 of 2024. Therefore, the decision in Brightstar Vincom Private Limited cannot be applied to the assessee’s case.
We hold that the learned tribunal committed a serious error of law and fact in allowing the asseess’s appeal and setting aside the order passed by the appellate authority and the assessing officer. Decided in favour of revenue.
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Section 68 upheld: Share capital with premium treated as unexplained cash credit hiding undisclosed income
Section 68 upheld: Share capital with premium treated as unexplained cash credit hiding undisclosed income
The HC upheld the addition under section 68, treating the share capital with premium as unexplained cash credit. It applied the doctrine of "origin of origin" to conclude that the funds were routed through the corporate veil to conceal undisclosed income. The assessing officer and appellate authority rightly found the assessee failed to prove the genuineness and creditworthiness of the transactions. Despite partial identification of investors, the financial analysis showed the investing companies had nil income, undermining the explanation. The tribunal erred in reversing these findings. The revenue appeal was allowed, affirming the addition.
Addition u/s 68 - share capital/premium as unexplained cash credit - Scope of doctrine of “origin of origin” or “source of source”
HELD THAT:- If the doctrine of “origin of origin” or “source of source” is applied to the case on hand, it will be manifestly clear that the share capital raised with huge premium was a devise adopted to route undisclosed funds to the desired end of the beneficiary taking recourse to the corporate veil.
Thus, on facts the appellate authority as well as the assessing officer was right in holding that the assessee did not discharge the creditworthiness and the genuineness of the transactions.
Though it can be said that the identity of the investors were partly established as they are shown to have been registered under the Company’s Act and returns have been filed but what is important is on analysing the financials, the assessing officer found that all investment companies had NIL income.
Thus, the assessing officer was right in not accepting the explanation offered by the assessee as being not satisfactory upon proper appreciation of the materials placed before him by the assessee and the other attending circumstances available on record.
Tribunal committed a serious error in reversing the findings recorded by the appellate authority while affirming the order passed by the assessing officer. Revenue appeal allowed.
AI TextQuick Glance (AI)Headnote
HC upholds no penalty under Section 270A for foreign company on IBM India IT support and salary payments
1. ISSUES PRESENTED and CONSIDERED
1. Whether the receipts received by a foreign tax resident company from an Indian company towards IT support services and reimbursement of salary expenses of seconded employees constitute 'fee for technical services' (FTS) under Section 9(1)(vii) of the Income Tax Act, 1961 or 'fees for included services' (FIS) under Article 12 of the India-US Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement (DTAA).
2. Whether the payments made for IT support services and reimbursement of salary expenses fall within the narrower definition of FIS under the DTAA or the broader definition of FTS under the Act.
3. Whether penalty under Section 270-A of the Income Tax Act can be imposed on the Assessee for the disputed tax liability, considering the nature of the dispute and the existence of bona fide belief.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 & 2: Characterization of Receipts as Fee for Technical Services (FTS) or Fees for Included Services (FIS)
Relevant Legal Framework and Precedents:
- Section 9(1)(vii) of the Income Tax Act, 1961 defines 'fee for technical services' broadly, including payments for managerial, technical or consultancy services.
- Article 12 of the India-US DTAA defines 'fees for included services' (FIS) in a narrower manner than the Act's definition of FTS.
- It is well established that definitions in the DTAA prevail over domestic law definitions and are not controlled by the Income Tax Act's definitions.
- Various judicial authorities have examined whether payments for IT support services and reimbursements for seconded employees' salaries fall within FTS/FIS.
Court's Interpretation and Reasoning:
- The Court noted that the Assessee, a tax resident of Australia, received payments from an Indian company for IT support services including reimbursement of salary expenses for seconded employees.
- The primary dispute was whether such receipts were taxable as FTS under the Act or FIS under the DTAA.
- The Court recognized that the DTAA's definition of FIS is considerably narrower than the Act's definition of FTS.
- The Court emphasized that expressions defined in the DTAA are not to be interpreted based on the Act's definitions but must be understood in the treaty context.
- The Court referred to a comprehensive tabular compilation of judicial decisions from various High Courts and Tribunals, largely favoring the view that such receipts do not constitute FTS/FIS.
Key Evidence and Findings:
- The tabular statement included 17 judicial decisions from different forums, with the majority holding the payments as not constituting FTS/FIS.
- Notably, the Delhi High Court in Centrica India Offshore Pvt. Ltd. took a contrary view, holding that secondment of employees could result in absorption of knowledge and thus attract tax.
- The Assessee's case was supported by several High Court and Tribunal decisions, including the Karnataka High Court in Flipkart Internet Pvt. Ltd., which favored the Assessee's interpretation.
Application of Law to Facts:
- Given the conflicting judicial precedents, the Court acknowledged that the question of taxability of such receipts is a vexed one with plausible opposing views.
- The Assessee's claim that the payments did not fall within FIS under the DTAA was not insubstantial, supported by numerous judicial pronouncements.
- The Assessee had opted for the Vivad Se Vishwas Scheme to settle the tax dispute, indicating an intention to avoid protracted litigation.
Treatment of Competing Arguments:
- The Court considered the unfavorable view of the Delhi High Court in Centrica India Offshore but noted that other High Courts and Tribunals had taken a favorable view for the Assessee.
- The Court recognized the existence of divergent judicial opinions and the complexity inherent in interpreting the scope of FTS/FIS in such contexts.
Conclusions:
- The Court held that the receipts in question do not unambiguously fall within the scope of FTS/FIS as defined under the DTAA and the Act.
- The existence of conflicting judicial views rendered the question a debatable one, precluding a definitive finding against the Assessee on this issue.
Issue 3: Imposition of Penalty under Section 270-A of the Income Tax Act
Relevant Legal Framework and Precedents:
- Section 270-A of the Income Tax Act provides for levy of penalty for concealment of income or furnishing inaccurate particulars of income.
- Penalty is generally not leviable where there is a bona fide belief or a genuine dispute on the taxability of the income.
Court's Interpretation and Reasoning:
- The Tribunal examined the nature of the dispute and noted the existence of judicial precedents favoring the Assessee's view.
- The Tribunal also noted that in related withholding tax proceedings involving IBM India, the payments were accepted as not chargeable to tax.
- Given the conflicting judicial opinions and the bona fide belief of the Assessee, the Tribunal held that penalty under Section 270-A could not be imposed.
Key Evidence and Findings:
- The Assessee's bona fide belief was supported by multiple judicial decisions and acceptance of its stand in withholding tax proceedings.
Application of Law to Facts:
- The Court applied the principle that penalty should not be levied where the question of taxability is debatable and the Assessee has acted in good faith.
Treatment of Competing Arguments:
- The Revenue's appeal against the non-imposition of penalty was considered but rejected on the ground that the dispute was genuine and vexed.
Conclusions:
- The Court upheld the Tribunal's decision to not levy penalty under Section 270-A, recognizing the Assessee's legitimate bona fide belief and the existence of two plausible views.
- No substantial question of law arose for consideration regarding the penalty issue.
HC upholds no penalty under Section 270A for foreign company on IBM India IT support and salary payments
The HC upheld the ITAT's decision quashing the penalty under section 270A imposed on the foreign resident company for receipts from IBM India towards IT support and salary reimbursements. Although some courts viewed such receipts as taxable fees for technical services under section 9(1)(vii) or DTAA provisions, the existence of conflicting judicial opinions rendered the issue debatable. The assessee had a bona fide belief that the payments were not taxable and had settled the tax demand under the Vivad Se Vishwas Scheme to avoid further litigation. Given the nature of the dispute and divergent views, the penalty was rightly not imposed. No substantial question of law arose for HC's interference.
Income deemed to accrue or arise in India - Assessee – a company which is a tax resident in Australia - Assessee received a sum from M/s. IBM India Limited [IBM India], a company incorporated in India, towards IT support services, including recovery of salary expenses of the employees that were seconded to IBM India -
Receipts chargeable to tax as 'fee for technical services' [FTS] u/s 9 (1)(vii) or ‘fees for included services’ [FIS] under Article 12 of the India - US DTAA - Assessee contended that the reimbursement of salary expenses and payment towards IT support services do not come under the FTS - penalty u/s 270-A
HELD THAT:- Whilst various courts and tribunals had accepted the contentions as are advanced by the Assessee, the Delhi High Court in the case of M/s. Centrica India Offshore Private Limited[2014 (5) TMI 154 - DELHI HIGH COURT] had taken a view that in the given facts secondment of the employees would result in absorption of knowledge by the entity to whom such employees had been seconded.
Given the possible view, the Assessee had to avoid further litigation, opted for the Vivad Se Vishwas Scheme and had settled the issue regarding the levy of tax.
Imposition of penalty u/s 270A - Tribunal as examined the nature of the disputes and had further noted that the decision of this Court in Flipkart Internet (P). Limited [2022 (6) TMI 1251 - KARNATAKA HIGH COURT] had favoured the Assessee. Further, in proceedings relating to withholding of tax at source in case of IBM India, the stand that the payments were not chargeable to tax had been accepted.
ITAT had held that given the nature of the disputes, clearly, two views are possible. Thus, the penalty u/s 270-A could not be levied, as the question involved was a vexed one.
Assessee had laboured under the legitimate bona fide belief that the payments received were not taxable under the Act. We find no infirmity in the said order and no substantial question of law exists for consideration by this court.
AI TextQuick Glance (AI)Headnote
High Court Upholds Section 80G Approval, Rejects Revenue's Challenge, Supports Assessee's Claim
High Court Upholds Section 80G Approval, Rejects Revenue's Challenge, Supports Assessee's Claim
The HC upheld the ITAT's decision allowing the assessee's claim for approval under Section 80G, despite the Revenue's challenge. The court found no contrary binding precedent or material to overturn the Agra Bench ITAT ruling relied upon. It held that the Commissioner was unjustified in rejecting the assessee's application, given the existing registration under Section 12AA. The HC set aside the CIT's order and directed grant of approval under Section 80G. The assessee's appeal was allowed.
Non grant of approval to assessee u/s 80G - registration under Section 12AA is in existence - ITAT allowed claim - HELD THAT:- ITAT has held that Revenue / appellant herein has not pointed out any contrary binding decision nor has placed any material on record to demonstrate that the aforesaid decision of Agra Bench of Tribunal [2018 (3) TMI 1893 - ITAT AGRA] has been set aside by the higher judicial forum and following the decision of Agra Bench of Tribunal learned ITAT held that in the present case the Commissioner of Income Tax was not justified in rejecting the application of assessee / respondent herein and set aside the order of learned CIT and directed for grant of approval to assessee under Section 80G of the Act. Assessee appeal allowed.
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Assessment order valid under Section 143(3) despite misquotation of Section 147; full Section 80-IA deduction allowed on business interest income
Assessment order valid under Section 143(3) despite misquotation of Section 147; full Section 80-IA deduction allowed on business interest income
The HC held that the assessment order, though incorrectly citing Section 147 alongside Section 143(3), was validly passed under Section 143(3), and the misquotation did not invalidate the proceedings under Section 292B. The reopening under Section 147 was not justified as the case was taken up for regular scrutiny with a valid notice under Section 143(2). The CIT(A)'s interpretation favoring Section 147 was erroneous, but the ITAT correctly treated the order as under Section 143(3). Regarding deduction under Section 80-IA, the court ruled against artificially segregating interest income from business income, affirming the assessee's entitlement to the full deduction. The interest income could not be offset against interest paid when it arose from the business. Both parties agreed this aligns with SC precedent favoring the assessee's claim for deduction without reduction.
Reopening of assessment u/s 147 - notice was issued u/s 143(2) - effect of wrong quoting of the provision - As per assessee no issue had escaped assessment for invoking Section 147 - Case was taken up for regular scrutiny. Accordingly, a notice was issued under Section 143(2) of the Act on 03.09.2004.
HELD THAT:- We find that in the assessment order, the provision of law is stated as, “143(3) / 147”. In the assessment order, the assessing officer had inadvertently not stated about the withdrawal of the notice issued under Section 148 and had proceeded to finalise the assessment.
CIT(A) erroneously proceeded on the basis that the assessment order was made u/s 147 of the Act and held that the power u/s 147 of the Act was wide enough to cover items, which had come to the knowledge of the assessing officer during the course of the assessment.
ITAT held that the parties proceeded on the basis that the assessment order was made u/s 143(3) of the Act and not u/s 147 of the Act and wrong quoting of the provision is curable under Section 292B of the Act.
From letter it is evident that the notice under Section 148 of the Act was withdrawn and the case was taken up for regular scrutiny. In fact, a notice was issued under Section 143(2) of the Act, on the very same day. It is not in dispute that the assessing officer had at the relevant point of time was empowered to take up the case for regular scrutiny as it was not beyond the time stipulated. The assessment order though had referred to Section 147 of the Act, the reading of it as a whole would indicate that it was an order under Section 143(3) of the Act.
Though the CIT(A) had erred in construing the order as one under Section 147/148 of the Act, the ITAT had rightly observed that the parties i.e., the assessee and the revenue had proceeded that it was an order under Section 143(3) of the Act.
It is well settled that wrong quoting of a provision or quoting a provision in addition to the right provision under which the order was passed would not invalidate any proceeding, if from an order of proceeding it is clear that it has been done in exercise of a power conferred under a particular provision.
In this case, we are convinced that the order was actually passed u/s 143(3) of the Act and the wrong quoting of Section 147 of the Act in the assessment order would not render the order as nullity. Section 292(b) of the Act, would certainly cover the mistakes of this kind.
Scope of the proceedings under Section 143(3) and Section 147 of the Act are not one and the same and the finding of the ITAT to the contra, cannot be justified. However, in the facts and circumstances, since we have found that it is an order under Section 143(3) of the Act, that would hardly make any difference in view of the final conclusion made by us. Accordingly, we answer the first two substantial questions of law, in favour of the revenue.
Computation of deduction available u/s 80-IA - treating the interest income under the head 'income from other sources' - HELD THAT:- No occasion to artificially bifurcate and dissect the interest income earned by the assessee in the present case in its ordinary course of business, so as to take it out of the ambit of deduction available to it under section 80-IA - The efforts on the part of the Revenue authorities to create such artificial compartments in the "business income" of the assessee, merely to reduce the quantum of deduction available to the assessee u/s 80-IA of which the eligibility of the assessee is not even in doubt, is nothing but a whimsical and the arbitrary view of the Revenue authorities and the same is opposed to common sense and business prudence of a common businessman - Decided in favour of the assessee.
Tribunal upholding that the interest income cannot be netted off against interest paid when in fact the interest income arises from the business of the assessee - Both assessee and the revenue submitted that this question of law also has to be answered in favour of the assessee, in view of the judgment of the Hon'ble Supreme Court in Shital Fibers Ltd. [2025 (5) TMI 1599 - SUPREME COURT (LB)] as held that deduction u/s 80HHC had to be given without reducing the deduction u/s 80IB.
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Denial of Mandatory Video Conference Hearing Under Section 144B Violates Natural Justice, Order Quashed
Denial of Mandatory Video Conference Hearing Under Section 144B Violates Natural Justice, Order Quashed
The HC held that denial of the mandatory video conference personal hearing under the Faceless Assessment provisions u/s 144B violates natural justice. Despite the petitioner's response and request for video hearing, the authorities failed to comply with the Standard Operating Procedure. Consequently, the impugned Assessment Order and demand notice dated 19.03.2025 were quashed and set aside. The matter was remanded to the National Faceless Assessment Authority for fresh adjudication in accordance with the SOP.
Procedure of service of notice under the Faceless Assessment provisions u/s 144B - mandatory requirement of the Standard Operating Procedure - non granting requirement of video conference for personal hearing - HELD THAT:- If the assessee is not granted mandatory requirement of video conference for personal hearing, it would amount to breach of principles of natural justice. Even if the petitioner had not responded to the show-cause notice, the department could have written physical communication to the petitioner at the latest address known through speed-post.
In the instant case, the petitioner had responded and categorically had demanded for personal hearing through video conferencing which was not granted by the respondent. Therefore, the authorities have failed to follow the mandatory requirement of the Standard Operating Procedure, and resultantly, the impugned Assessment Order dated 19.03.2025 as well as the demand notice dated 19.03.2025 would not stand at all.
Resultantly, the impugned Assessment Order and demand notice are hereby quashed and set aside and the matter is remanded back to the National Faceless Assessment Authority to comply with the SOP and pass a fresh order.
AI TextQuick Glance (AI)Headnote
Section 164: Circular No. 13/2014 Read Down to Exempt Determinable Trusts from Max Marginal Tax Rate
Section 164: Circular No. 13/2014 Read Down to Exempt Determinable Trusts from Max Marginal Tax Rate
The HC set aside the impugned order of the respondent/BAR, holding that Circular No. 13/2014 issued by CBDT under section 164 of the Act must be read down. The Court agreed with precedents from Karnataka HC and Madras HC that shares of beneficiaries in a trust are determinable if benefits are proportionate to investments, thus exempting such trusts from maximum marginal rate taxation. The Court rejected the contention that SEBI regulations prohibit naming beneficiaries in the trust deed. It held that judicial review under Art. 226 was appropriate despite availability of statutory appeal, given the wider public interest and the flawed interpretation by BAR. The writ petition was allowed, quashing the order and directing that Circular No. 13/2014 be construed consistently with settled legal principles regarding determinable trusts under section 164.
Determinate Trust - Measures to plug loopholes for tax avoidance through the medium of private trusts – Section 164 - Validity of Circular No. 13/2014 dated 28.07.2014 issued by CBDT
Order passed by the respondent no. 2/BAR holds that if the names of the beneficiaries are not set out in the original Trust Deed then such Trust would be treated as “indeterminate” and resultantly be subject to Maximum Marginal Rate under the provisions of section 164 - Legality of instructions contained in Circular no. 13/2014 dated 28.07.2014
Petitioner contended that the provisions of Regulation 3(1) and Regulation 6(3) of the SEBI Regulations read with provisions of section 12 of the SEBI Act would prohibit the petitioner from accepting any investment or mentioning the name of the beneficiaries in the original Trust Deed unless the said provisions were scrupulously complied with and that too, only after obtaining the certificate of registration from SEBI
HELD THAT:- Circular NO. 13/2014 [F.NO. 225/78/2014-ITA.II] pertains to clarification issued by the CBDT in respect of section 164 of the Act particularly as to how the charge of tax, where the share of beneficiaries is unknown, is to be ascertained and determined. Apparently, this clarification is in respect of AIF entities having status of non-charitable Trusts.
The Circular clarifies that where the Trust Deed either does not name the investors or does not specify their beneficial interests, provisions of sub-section (1) of section 164 of the Act would be applicable and the entire income of the fund would be liable to be taxed at the Maximum Marginal Rate of income tax in the hands of the trustees of such AIFs in their capacity as “Representative Assessee”.
Interpretation and construction of the requirement of mentioning the names of the investors or their beneficial interests in the original Trust Deed was engaging the attention of the Courts. The said interpretation and construction of such a requirement has no bearing in respect of which of the assessment years were in question. This opinion is further strengthened by the fact that even before Circular no. 13/2014 was notified, Explanation 1 to section 164 of the Act was on the statute book with effect from 01.04.1980 having identical restrictions.
Karnataka High Court in India Advantage Fund [2017 (2) TMI 722 - KARNATAKA HIGH COURT] has succinctly tested the proposition and set out its opinion. The Court was interpreting the provisions of section 164 of the Act and considering whether shares are determinable even when even or after the trust is formed or may be in future when the Trust is in existence; and on the facts of that case had concluded that once the benefits are to be shared in the proportion to the investments made, any person with reasonable prudence would reach to the conclusion that the shares are determinable. Consequently, on such reasoning, the Karnataka High Court concluded that once the shares were determinable, it would meet the requirement of law to come out of the applicability of section 164 of the Act. We respectfully concur with such reasoning. Thus, the said submission is unmerited and untenable both on law as well as on facts.
Thus, in view of the ratio decidendi in the judgements of India Advantage Fund (supra) and TVS Shriram Growth Fund [2020 (10) TMI 665 - MADRAS HIGH COURT] coupled with our own analysis above, we find the impugned order dated 27.06.2024 of the respondent no. 2/BAR unsustainable and is accordingly set aside.
CBDT Circular No. 13/2014 is concerned we direct that the same be read down in the manner as constructed and interpreted by us hereinabove.
Non-maintainability of the present writ petition on the premise that a statutory appeal under section 245W of the Act is available to the petitioner - We are not quite convinced with the said submission. This is for the reason that existence of an alternate efficacious remedy though may bar exercise of discretionary jurisdiction under Article 226 of the Constitution of India, 1950, however, is not a complete prohibition to exercise judicial review in such cases where it is deemed appropriate by the High Court. In the present case, though statutory appeal is available, yet, since the impugned order of BAR overlooks and ignores the interpretation and construction of section 164 of the Act by learned Division Bench of Karnataka and Madras High Court, this by itself would propel this Court to interfere with the impugned order.
Since the issue would have a wide impact on Category III AIFs all over the country, the remedy of an appeal specific to the petitioner may not be in public interest. The public interest as also the interest of the revenue would be sub-served, in our considered opinion, by exercising our jurisdiction under Article 226 of the Constitution of India, 1950. For the same reason, the impugned CBDT Circular No. 13/2014 also would be amenable to exercise of jurisdiction under Article 226 of the Constitution of India, 1950 since the recitals of Para 6 are contrary to the well settled principles of law.
Writ petition is allowed, the impugned order of the respondent no. 2/Board for Advance Rulings is quashed and set aside and simultaneously, the clarification contained in CBDT Circular No. 13/2014 dated 28.07.2014 is directed to be read down to conform to the above analysis and conclusion.
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HC upholds trust's exemption under Section 11(1)(a) for charitable activities and capital expenditure
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
- Whether the deletion of addition of Rs. 3,14,00,000/- on account of application of unutilized accumulation under Section 11(2) of the Income Tax Act, 1961 was correct despite the assessee's failure to furnish correct details of the purpose of utilization.
- Whether the ITAT was correct in determining if the claim of capital expenditure on fixed assets (construction of building) was financed by funds accumulated under Section 11(2) in preceding years.
- Whether the conclusion that funds accumulated in earlier years were applied for construction in the current year was justified in absence of specific documentary evidence.
- Whether the deletion of addition of Rs. 8,70,00,000/- was proper despite the assessee not providing details regarding commissioning of the RO water treatment plant and list of beneficiaries of the solar lamp project, thereby undermining proof of application of funds for stated charitable objects.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1: Deletion of addition of Rs. 3,14,00,000/- under Section 11(2) relating to unutilized accumulation
Legal Framework and Precedents: Section 11(2) of the Income Tax Act governs the accumulation of income by charitable trusts for application in future years, allowing accumulation up to 15% of receipts if specified conditions are met. The burden lies on the assessee to show that accumulated funds were utilized for charitable purposes within the prescribed period.
Court's Interpretation and Reasoning: The Court noted that the findings of the NFAC and ITAT that the sum of Rs. 3,14,51,045/- was accumulated in the previous year for a specific purpose were factual in nature. The assessee's claim was supported by Form No. 10 for AY 2015-16 and the depreciation table showing investment as current expenditure for construction.
Key Evidence and Findings: The assessee produced Form No. 10 reflecting accumulation and depreciation schedules indicating capital expenditure. Although the Revenue challenged the absence of detailed purpose, the factual findings by NFAC and ITAT accepted the accumulation and its application.
Application of Law to Facts: Since the accumulation was within permissible limits and utilized for charitable purposes, the addition was rightly deleted. The Revenue failed to establish that the accumulation was not for the stated purpose.
Treatment of Competing Arguments: Revenue argued failure to furnish correct details; however, the Tribunal's acceptance of the accumulation and its application was not found to be perverse or legally incorrect.
Conclusion: The deletion of the addition of Rs. 3,14,00,000/- was upheld as the assessee demonstrated compliance with Section 11(2) and application of accumulated funds.
Issue 2 & 3: Application of accumulated funds for capital expenditure on construction and sufficiency of documentary evidence
Legal Framework and Precedents: Capital expenditure financed by accumulated funds under Section 11(2) must be shown to be for charitable purposes. Documentary evidence is crucial to establish the source and application of funds.
Court's Interpretation and Reasoning: The Court observed that NFAC and ITAT accepted the assessee's explanation that Rs. 3,14,51,045/- was accumulated previously and Rs. 2,89,32,104/- was from current year income, both applied towards construction of building and related capital expenditure. The Tribunal found the depreciation records consistent with this claim.
Key Evidence and Findings: The assessee submitted depreciation tables and Form No. 10. Despite Revenue's contention on lack of specific documentary evidence, the Tribunal found the overall record sufficient to establish the claim.
Application of Law to Facts: The factual findings supported the conclusion that accumulated funds were applied for construction in the current year. The absence of additional documentary evidence did not vitiate the conclusion in light of existing proof.
Treatment of Competing Arguments: Revenue contended insufficiency of documentary proof; however, the Tribunal's acceptance of the evidence was not challenged as perverse or unsustainable.
Conclusion: The Tribunal's finding that accumulated funds were applied for capital expenditure was affirmed, and the deletion of addition on this ground was justified.
Issue 4: Deletion of addition of Rs. 8,70,00,000/- relating to expenditure on RO water treatment plant and solar lantern project
Legal Framework and Precedents: Expenditure incurred by a charitable trust on objects specified in its trust deed and for charitable purposes is eligible for exemption under Section 11. The trust must furnish details proving application of funds to charitable activities, including commissioning of projects and identification of beneficiaries.
Court's Interpretation and Reasoning: The NFAC and ITAT accepted that Rs. 8,40,00,000/- was spent on commissioning a water treatment plant in drought-affected rural areas and Rs. 30,00,000/- on distribution of solar lanterns in backward villages, both qualifying as charitable activities.
Key Evidence and Findings: The assessee provided explanations regarding the purpose and location of the projects. Although the AO faulted the assessee for not furnishing commissioning details and beneficiary lists, the Tribunal found the overall evidence adequate to establish the charitable nature and application of funds.
Application of Law to Facts: The Court noted that the Revenue did not challenge the factual findings as perverse. The Tribunal's acceptance of the expenditure as capital in nature and related to charitable objects was consistent with the law.
Treatment of Competing Arguments: Revenue argued absence of commissioning details and beneficiary lists undermined proof of application. The Tribunal, however, found the explanations and evidence sufficient to uphold the claim.
Conclusion: The deletion of the addition of Rs. 8,70,00,000/- was proper as the expenditure was applied for charitable purposes and the assessee sufficiently established such application.
Additional Observations
- All findings by NFAC and ITAT were factual and not assailed as perverse or legally unsustainable by the Revenue.
- The Revenue failed to raise any substantial question of law warranting interference by the High Court.
- The Court emphasized the distinction between factual findings and questions of law, declining to interfere with the former absent perversity or illegality.
HC upholds trust's exemption under Section 11(1)(a) for charitable activities and capital expenditure
The HC upheld the findings of the NFAC and ITAT, confirming that the trust lawfully accumulated less than 15% of its total receipts under section 11(1)(a) for a specific purpose. The capital expenditure on the building and RO water treatment plant, along with the distribution of solar lanterns, were recognized as part of charitable activities. The Revenue's appeal challenging these factual findings was dismissed, as no substantial question of law or perversity was demonstrated. The exemption under section 11 was thus maintained.
Exemption u/s 11 - assessment of trust - Disallowance for capital expenditure out of accumulated funds from previous year and Disallowance on account of RO water treatment plant - Assessee explained that the accumulated amount of less than 15% of its total receipts were carried forward u/s 11(1)(a)
HELD THAT:- NFAC accepted the Assessee's contention that a sum of Rs. 3,14,51,045/- was accumulated in the previous year for a specific purpose. Investment made was also shown in the depreciation table as current expenditure for construction of the building. Further an amount of Rs. 2,89,32,104/- was used from the income of the current year.
NFAC also accepted that the amount of Rs. 8,40,00,000/- was being spent for water treatment plant and Rs. 30,00,000/- was spent for distribution of solar lanterns, which were part of the charitable activity.
ITAT also accepted the finding of the NFAC. The Revenue in the present appeal has challenged the findings of the ITAT.
Plainly, the findings recorded by the NFAC and ITAT are factual findings and the Revenue has not projected any question to assail the findings as perverse. No substantial question of law.